四川省广安市2024-2025学年高一下学期7月期末英语试题(含答案,无听力原文及音频)

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四川省广安市2024-2025学年高一下学期7月期末英语试题(含答案,无听力原文及音频)

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广安市2025年春季高一期末考试
英语参考答案
第一部分 听力(满分 30 分)
01-05 CAACA 06-10 BACBC 11-15 CAAAB 16-20 BBBCC
评分标准:1-20 小题,每小题 1.5 分
第二部分 阅读理解(满分 50 分)
第一节(满分 37.5 分)
21-23 BCD 24-27 CBBC 28-31 ADDC 32-35 BCAD
评分标准:21-35 小题,每小题 2.5 分
第二节(满分 12.5 分)
36-40 GFCAB
评分标准:36-40 小题,每小题 2.5 分
第三部分 语言知识运用(满分 30 分)
第一节(满分 15 分)
41-45 CACDA 46-50 BBCAB 51-55 DABAC
评分标准:41-55 小题,每小题 1 分
第二节(满分 15 分)
has been celebrated
where
development
to visit
and
yourself
virtually
with
museums
studying
评分标准:56-65 小题,每小题 1.5 分。有任何错误(包括用词错误、单词拼写错误 <含大小写> 或语法形式错误),均不给分。
第四部分 任务型阅读(满分 20 分)
第一节(共 10 小题;每小题 1 分,满分 10 分)
friends
forming
close
disagreement
regretful
had inspired
happily
to send
expect
whether
评分标准:66-75 小题,每小题 1 分。有任何错误(包括用词错误、单词拼写错误 <含大小写> 或语法形式错误),均不给分。
第二节(共 3 小题;满分 10 分)
They had a huge disagreement and parted ways.(3 分)
The author looked for Teresa on social media(Facebook), found her photo and sent her a message.(3 分)
After receiving a message from Teresa, the author met her and they became friends again.(4 分)
评分标准:
考生回答内容符合文本情景、合情合理且语句正确,即可给分;语义不完整或语言有错误,酌情扣分;语句不通顺、无意义或答案脱离文本,均不给分。
第五部分 写作(满分 20 分)
一、评分原则
本题总分为 20 分,按 5 个档次给分。
先根据内容和语言初步定档,再按档次要求调整,最后给分。
词数少于 60 或多于 120,酌情扣分。
评分重点:时态、人称、内容要点、词汇和语法准确性、上下文连贯性及语言得体性。
拼写与标点符号影响交际的,酌情扣分;英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
书写较差影响交际的,降低一个档次。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求
档次 描述
第五档 (17-20 分) 1. 完全完成试题任务;2. 覆盖所有内容要点;3. 应用较多语法结构和词汇;4. 语法或词汇错误少,为尝试复杂结构或高级词汇所致,语言运用能力强;5. 有效使用语句连接成分,结构紧凑;6. 完全达到写作目的。
第四档 (13-16 分) 1. 完全完成试题任务;2. 漏掉 1-2 个次重点,覆盖所有主要内容;3. 语法和词汇能满足任务要求;4. 语法或词汇错误少,主要因尝试复杂结构或词汇所致;5. 应用简单连接成分,结构紧凑;6. 达到写作目的。
第三档 (9-12 分) 1. 基本完成试题任务;2. 漏掉一些内容,覆盖所有主要内容;3. 语法和词汇能满足任务要求;4. 有少量语法或词汇错误,不影响理解;5. 应用简单连接成分,内容连贯;6. 基本达到写作目的。
第二档 (5-8 分) 1. 未恰当完成试题任务;2. 漏掉或未说清主要内容,有无关内容;3. 语法结构单调、词汇有限;4. 语法或词汇错误较多,影响理解;5. 很少使用连接成分,内容不连贯;6. 信息未清楚传达。
第一档 (1-4 分) 1. 未完成试题任务;2. 明显遗漏主要内容,有无关内容(可能因未理解试题);3. 语法结构单调、词汇有限;4. 语法或词汇错误多,影响理解;5. 缺乏连接成分,内容不连贯;6. 信息未传达。
0 分 白卷、内容太少无法评判或与题目无关。
三、参考范文
Distinguished guest Ryan, dear teachers and fellow students,On behalf of our school, I extend our warmest welcome to Ryan Hreljac, whose extraordinary dedication to building wells in Africa has inspired millions worldwide.
At just six years old, Ryan started his fundraising campaign with remarkable persistence. Over the past two decades, his efforts have provided clean water access for nearly a million Africans through over 1,000 wells. His journey embodies the spirit of perseverance and global citizenship, proving that small actions can make a big difference.
Today's speech, "The Well That Changed My Life," will undoubtedly deepen our understanding of social responsibility. It reminds us that we, as young people, hold the potential to shape a better world.
May your story inspire more young hearts! We wish this event a great success!广安市2025年春季高一期末考试
英语试题
本试卷满分150分,考试时间120分钟。
注意事项:
答题前,考生务必将自己的姓名、座位号和准考证号填写在答题卡规定的位置上。
答选择题时,必须使用2B铅笔将答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑,如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其它答案标号。
答非选择题时,必须使用0.5毫米黑色签字笔,将答案书写在答题卡规定的位置上。
所有题目必须在答题卡上作答,在试题卷上答题无效。
考试结束后,只将答题卡交回。
第一部分 听力(共两节,每小题1.5分,满分30分)
第一节(共5小题;每小题 1.分,满分7.5分)
听下面 5 段对话。每段对话有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
What's the trouble with the man
A. He can't eat cookies.
B. He wants to see a dentist.
C. He suffers from a toothache.
What should the man do first
A. Take Bus 7.
B. Walk to the train station.
C. Take a taxi to SiYuan Square.
How much will the woman pay
A. $180.
B. $200.
C. $10.
What are the speakers talking about
A. Moving to Beijing.
B. A party at home.
C. Vacation plans.
What does the woman think of her interview
A. It was successful.
B. It was promising.
C. It was tough.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。
6. Why does Mike refuse to join the woman
A. He has a sore knee.
B. He wants to watch TV.
C. He prefers to rest at home.
What is the woman most likely to do next
A. Exercise with Lisa.
B. Play tennis with Mike.
C. Watch TV with Mike.
听第7段材料,回答第8至第10题。
8. What does the new study find about sleep
A. Having enough sleep makes us happier.
B. The bedroom environment affects our sleep.
C. Not getting enough sleep can make us feel older.
How many suggestions have been given by the doctor
A. 3.
B. 4.
C. 5.
What can we infer from the conversation
A. The man seldom used his phone before bedtime.
B. Most teens don't get enough sleep nowadays.
C. The man will improve his sleep habits step by step.
听第8段材料,回答第11至第13题。
11. Which subject do the speakers both find fit
A. Math.
B. Geography.
C. Physics.
Why do they invite Betty to study
A. She is good at Physics.
B. She needs math help.
C. She tutors the sister.
What's the probable relationship between the speakers
A. Classmates.
B. Brother and sister.
C. Teacher and student.
听第9段材料,回答第14至第16题。
14. What does Lily mainly use DeepSeek for
A. Organizing paper outlines.
B. Checking historical facts.
C. Writing fantasy novels.
Why does DeepSeek prefer science fiction
A. Science fiction is more interesting.
B. Its database influences its choices.
C. Dr. Liang programmed it that way.
What might DeepSeek do with non-sci-fi books
A. Delete fantasy novels.
B. Process them less frequently.
C. Refuse to read historical fiction.
听第10段材料,回答第17至第20题。
17. Where did Tu get inspiration for her research
A. From modern medical journals.
B. From an old medical book.
C. From a civilian in China.
What was the key challenge in the experiment
A. Low-temperature extraction was difficult.
B. Boiling destroyed the drug's effect.
C. Sweet wormwood was hard to find.
How long did Tu and her team conduct experiments
A. For 2 years.
B. For less than 2 years.
C. For more than 2 years.
What can we learn from Tu's story
A. Teamwork is the key to scientific success.
B. Project 523 led to the medical breakthrough.
C. Ancient wisdom and modern science make wonders.
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
The Best Films of 2024: A Year of Remarkable Stories
The year 2024 has brought audiences an exciting collection of films with all sorts of stories. From heartwarming dramas to clever comedies, these movies showcase the creativity of modern cinema.
All of Us Strangers
Staring Andrew Scott as a lonely screenwriter who reunites with the ghosts of his parents, this emotional story explores themes of love, family, and healing. Another standout is Anora, a lively comedy about a dancer who gets caught up in the chaotic life of a wealthy Russian family. Its clever humor and sharp storytelling have earned it the prestigious award called "Palme d'Or at the Cannes Film Festival".
Green Border
It presents one of the year's most powerful political dramas. This gripping film reveals how Belarus lured refugees with false promises of safe passage to the EU, only to trap them between border guards from both countries. The film's unflinching portrayal of this humanitarian crisis makes it both difficult to watch and impossible to forget.
Babygirl
Nicole Kidman delivers a powerful performance as a successful businesswoman who becomes involved with a younger colleague. The film focuses on deep emotions rather than superficial attraction. Meanwhile, Robot Dreams charms viewers with its silent yet expressive storytelling. Set in 1980s New York, it follows a dog and a robot best friend through life's ups and downs.
Perfect Days
Offering a quiet contrast to the intense stories, this film follows a Tokyo toilet cleaner who finds contentment in simple routines - tending plants, reading books, and listening to music. Director Wim Wenders shows us how beauty can be found in ordinary moments.
What award did Anora win at Cannes
A. Best Humorist.
B. Palme d'Or.
C. Best Storyteller.
D. Best filmmaker.
What kind of movie is Green Border
A. Lyrical drama.
B. Lively comedy.
C. Political drama.
D. Action movie.
What do we know about the main character in Perfect Days
A. A hotel cleaner.
B. A restaurant cleaner.
C. A school cleaner.
D. A restroom cleaner.
B
I wasn't the most popular student in my first year of high school - not at all. In fact, I felt awkward. I didn't care about fashion, liked reading more than sports, and had trouble talking to boys. Because of this, my first year of high school was hard. I had no close friends. I usually stayed alone and read books a lot. That's why I was so surprised when Ashley and I became friends the summer before my second year.
Ashley was very different from me. She was outgoing and loved fashion. She listened to bands I never heard of and was good at art. She was popular, and I remembered she had always been like that. These were things I knew nothing about. We had been in the same class before, but we never talked much. I was always nervous around her.
During summer school, we took classes to graduate early. The teacher paired us for a project. At first, Ashley seemed unwilling to work with me. But I think she agreed because none of her "cool friends were in the class. We met at the library for the project and hit it off quickly. Ashley did most of the talking. We sat together for the rest of the summer, and after classes ended, we kept hanging out. We went shopping, listened to music, watched movies, and went to the beach. It was everything a great summer with a new friend should be.
What is the text mainly about
A. The author's lonely first year of high school.
B. How Ashley changed the author's life.
C. How the author and Ashley became friends.
D. The importance of summer school.
Why was Ashley willing to work with the author eventually
A. She thought the author was a big reader.
B. Her popular friends weren't in the class.
C. She has no close friends.
D. She loved fashion.
What can we learn about the author and Ashley before summer school
A. They often argued with each other.
B. They were classmates but seldom talked.
C. Ashley admired the author.
D. They were close competitors.
What does the phrase "hit it off" in paragraph 3 mean
A. Argued a lot.
B. Worked efficiently.
C. Got along well immediately.
D. Found many differences.
C
The recent U.S. decision to put on large tariffs has caused heated debates in global economics. On April 2nd, President Trump announced new tariffs of 25% on steel and 10% on aluminum imports, claiming these measures would reduce America's $566 billion trade deficit. However, economists worldwide have raised serious concerns about this protective policy.
Economic experts explain that trade deficits naturally occur when a nation's investments are more than its savings, and note that the U.S. has maintained strong economic growth despite running steady trade deficits since 1975. Historical evidence further goes against the government's position - while Trump praises 19th-century protectionism, studies show those tariffs reduced U.S. GDP growth by an average of 0.5% each year between 1870-1914.
The way of calculating tariffs has drawn particular criticism. The administration took 50% of each country's trade profit with America as the tariff rate, leading to too great effects. For example, China faces $50 billion in tariffs even though it only makes up 16% of the U.S. trade deficit.
Global reactions have been quick. The EU has threatened to put suitable tariffs on $3.5 billion on American goods, targeting politically sensitive products like whiskey and motorcycles. Canada and Mexico, at first not included, now face uncertainty as talks continue. Economists warn this could start a dangerous cycle - the 1930 Smoot-Hawley tariff finally reduced global trade by 66%.
As tensions rise, world leaders face difficult choices. Germany has proposed international talks through the WTO, while China has suggested compromises on car imports. The coming months will test whether global trade systems can stand these pressures or if history's protectionist mistakes will repeat, possibly causing serious problems for worldwide economic growth.
What is the primary purpose of the new tariffs
A. To reduce the trade deficit.
B. To improve America's steel imports.
C. To increase aluminum imports.
D. To protect President Trump's interests.
According to economists, what mainly causes trade deficits
A. Running consistent foreign trade deficit.
B. Strong economy growth and currency value.
C. Less investment than savings.
D. More investment than savings.
Why does the author mention the 1930 Smoot-Hawley tariffs
A. To compare global trade rates.
B. To explain Smoot-Hawley tariffs.
C. To show a trade competition.
D. To warn about potential dangers.
What is the author's attitude to the new tariffs
A. Supportive.
B. Indifferent.
C. Critical.
D. Optimistic.
D
Recent studies have revealed several important health and biological issues that deserve public awareness. The most alarming finding comes from research published in The Lancet, showing the development of antimicrobial resistance (AMR) as a major global health threat. According to the study, if current trends continue, AMR-related infections may cause over 39 million deaths worldwide in the next 25 years. Even more concerning is the prediction that AMR could overtake cancer and heart disease to become the leading cause of death by 2050.
The primary driver behind this crisis is the overuse of antibiotics in human medicine, agriculture, and livestock production. While some level of resistance develops naturally, the widespread misuse of antibiotics has dramatically speeded up this process. To respond to this growing emergency, world leaders are preparing to sign international agreements at the upcoming United Nations General Assembly, aiming to establish coordinated global strategies to fight AMR.
In the field of neuroscience, a major study published in Nature Neuroscience has provided new insights into the situation commonly known as "pregnancy brain". Researchers conducted brain scans on women throughout their first pregnancy and for two years after childbirth. The results showed significant physical changes, including reductions in gray matter volume - changes surprisingly similar to those occurring during teenage brain development. Additionally, the study found white matter increased. These findings help explain the cognitive and emotional changes many women experience during pregnancy.
On a more funny note, biologists have made a funny discovery about water anoles, small tropical lizards known for their diving abilities. These clever reptiles have developed a special survival strategy - they form temporary air bubbles on their noses while underwater. Through careful experimentation, scientists confirmed these bubbles function as natural "air tanks", allowing the lizards to remain underwater up to 32% longer than they could without them. This remarkable adjustment helps the anoles escape from predators in their aquatic environment. The discovery not only provides understanding into animal evolution but also demonstrates nature's incredible creativity.
What does the Lancet study predict about AMR by 2050
A. It will lead to cancers and heart diseases.
B. It may become the top cause of death.
C. It will cause about 39 million deaths globally.
D. It will be far less dangerous than cancers.
What is identified as the main factor speeding AMR up
A. Misuse of human medicine.
B. Development of resistance.
C. Overuse of antibiotics.
D. Level of resistance.
What did neuroscience researchers discover about pregnancy brain changes
A. They are like teenage brain development.
B. They are the same as adolescent development.
C. They permanently damage brain function.
D. They only occur after the coming of child.
How do water anoles use their nose bubbles
A. To escape from the potential enemy.
B. To help remain underwater forever.
C. To produce permanent air bubbles.
D. To be temporary oxygen supplies.
第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Write Your Own Nature Prescription
You don't need to see your doctor to start experiencing the benefits of being outdoors. 36
Match your sleep schedule to the sun. If your schedule allows, try to get up as the sun rises and wind down as the sun sets.
Get early morning sun, preferably by walking outdoors. 37 You could also take the dog out for a quick stroll after breakfast.
Spend five to 20 minutes every day in green spaces. Sip your coffee on the deck instead of on the couch, or take your lunch break under a tree.
Try "grounding" or "earthing". This is where your bare feet touch grass or sand. Walk outside to get the mail or kick off your shoes the next time you're in a park or garden. 38 so you don't step on anything painful!
39 When you're outdoors, put away your phone. Instead, watch the clouds, listen to the birds or simply observe your surroundings.
Grow a garden. And make sure to get your hands dirty: There are healthy microbes in the soil. 40, even an indoor herb garden can reward you with fresh ingredients.
A. Practice nature mind
B. If your access to outdoor space is limited.
C. Just be careful to watch where you're going.
D. These simple habits benefit your mood instantly.
E. Use a fitness tracker to monitor outdoor activities.
F. You could park farther away from your work entrance
G. Here are some tips on how to put nature into your daily routine.
第三部分:英语知识运用(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
It was just another ordinary morning at Herring's house. After letting out Strike, his pet dog, he went to his garden. Herring was doing some gardening when a 41 from Strike stopped him, followed by a splash (落水声).
He didn't 42 , grabbed a garden tool and ran to a nearby lake. When he got there, he saw something 43 . Strike's head was just above water, and a huge alligator (鳄鱼) 44its teeth into his leg. 45 , Strike's life was in danger.
"I remember when I 46 into the lake, I thought to myself why is this lake so deep Because I couldn't touch the 47 ,"Herring said. But he couldn't 48 . Strike looked at him as if saying,"Please do something, Daddy. Please help me." Herring 49 he wouldn't leave without Strike. Then he pulled Strike free from the alligator and held him under one arm. But as they tried to get back to 50 , the alligator came up again.
Luckily, Herring and Strike made it back. He rushed his dog to a friend's vet clinic (兽医诊所). X-rays showed Strike had a broken 51 . They had to go to a (n) 52 clinic in Wilmington for more help. In the waiting room, Herring finally let the 53 and fear "take over for a moment. I couldn't speak or answer questions," he said.
Looking back, Herring doesn't recommend others' 54 what he did. "What I did was risky," he admitted. "You can't 55 an alligator like that was a nut."
But still, there's no question in his mind - he would do it again.
41.A.noise
B.voice
C.scream
D.sound
42.A.hesitate
B.criticise
C.help
D.cry
43.A.exciting
B.pleasant
C.frightening
D.confusing
44.A.broke
B.touched
C.released
D.sank
45.A.Obviously
B.Suddenly
C.Finally
D.Surprisingly
46.A.climbed
B.jumped
C.swam
D.watched
47.A.surface
B.bottom
C.bank
D.pet
48.A.took off
B.got through
C.gave up
D.hold on
49.A.decided
B.forgot
C.doubted
D.ignored
50.A.garden
B.shore
C.house
D.hospital
51.A.head
B.heart
C.tail
D.leg
52.A.emergency
B.expensive
C.cheap
D.faraway
53.A.happiness
B.stress
C.eagerness
D.peace
54.A.trying
B.remembering
C.reflecting
D.changing
55.A.pull
B.kill
C.fight
D.save
第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面材料,在空白处填入适当的内容(1个单词)或括号内单词的正确形式。
International Museum Day was observed in 1977 in Moscow for the first time aimed at directing the world's attention to the contributions of museums to humankind. Since then, International Museum Day 56 (celebrate) annually. Museums are undoubtedly places 57 you can promote mutual understanding, interaction, and world peace. Museums are vital places for cultural exchange and enrichment as well as for the 58 (develop) of peaceful coexistence and cooperation among nations and communities. This day encourages people 59 (visit) museums dedicated to many fields of human efforts such as agriculture, fashion, astronomy, archaeology, art, 60 natural history.
Visiting a museum in your community is one of the best ways to mark International Museum Day. You can do this by 61 (you), or with friends or your children.
You can visit a museum 62 (virtual) if you don't wish to wait in line or deal with crowds. Taking a virtual tour of a museum is in some ways practical because some of the more known museums are likely to be packed 63 guests.
You can share on social media your ideas or opinions about International Museum Day or a museum you've recently visited. This motivates other people to visit 64 (museum).
Today, more people than ever before visit museums all over the world. There are also more people 65 (study) history at universities now than at any other time.
第四部分 任务型阅读(共两节,满分20分)
Teresa and I had been good friends for many years. We had a lot of the same interests and could stay up all night chatting on the phone, laughing non-stop. We were always there for each other when we needed to share, cry or celebrate. We were so close that we could read each other's minds and finish each other's sentences. That all changed when we had a huge disagreement and parted ways.
There wasn't a day that passed when I didn't think of her or miss her. I often thought of reaching out to her to make an apology. But then I would think, if she cares, why hasn't she gotten in touch with me One other thing that we had in common was that we were both very stubborn (固执的).
It had been Teresa's birthday a month before, and that had inspired me to look for her on social media. She had a common name, but I eventually found her photo, with her famous broad smile and a head full of curls. More photos showed she liked to travel and had grandchildren. Ten years had been good to her.
I had sent her a Facebook message and expressed how much I'd missed her throughout the years and what she meant to me. I mentioned a few silly and funny memories we had had together. I told her that I was grateful that she was there for me when I was going through a hard time. I end the message by asking her if she would like to meet one day, and I wished her a happy birthday.
Days passed and I was wondering if she could accept me.
第一节(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
根据文本内容,从方框中选择恰当的词并用其正确形式填入图片中,每词限用一次,有两词为多余选项。
第二节(共3小题;满分10分)
根据文本内容回答下列问题。
What was the main reason that Teresa and the author stopped being close friends (3分)
What had Teresa's birthday inspired the author to do (3分)
What might happen next (4分)
第五部分 写作(满分20分)
假定你是广安市某高中一年级学生李华。学校即将邀请以募捐 "非洲井" 闻名的加拿大青年Ryan Hreljac到校做题为"The well that changed my life"的演讲。作为学生会代表,请你写一篇英文欢迎词,内容包括:
表示热烈欢迎;
简述其事迹;
该演讲的意义;
预祝演讲成功。
注意:
词数100左右;
可适当增加细节使行文连贯。
Distinguished guest Ryan, dear teachers and fellow students,____________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

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