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翔凤学校2025-2026学年度上期七年级中期检测
英语试题
（总分150分，120分钟）
A卷（共三部分，共95分）
第一部分 听力（共两节，共25分）
第一节（共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
听下面10段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题后所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案，并将答案转涂到答题卡上的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你有十秒钟的时间来回答有关问题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
( )1.What’s in Lisa’s hand
A. B. C.
( )2.What’s Mike going to wear tomorrow
A. B. C.
( )3. What’s Albert Einstein’s hobby
A. B. C.
( )4. How many students are there in John’s class
A.28 B.35 C.38
( )5. What does the boy like to do in his free time
A. B. C.
( )6. Where is the library
A. On the first floor. B.On the second floor. C.On the third floor.
( )7. What can Sam play well
A. The erhu. B.The guitar. C. The violin.
( )8. What will Li Hui bring to school
A. Some cards. B.Some fruit. C.Some flowers.
( )9. What’s Bob’s hobby
A. Doing paper-cutting. B. Watching Beijing opera. C. Reading books.
( )10.What’s Li Ming’s first lesson at junior high
A. Maths. B. Chinese. C.English.
第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
听下面三段对话和一段独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题后所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。听完每段对话或独白后,你有15秒钟的时间来回答有关问题。每段对话或独白读三遍。
听第 11 段对话,回答第11 至12小题。
( )11.What can Jack do well
A. Sing. B. Dance. C.Play football.
( )12. What club can Jack join
A. The music club. B.The sports club. C.The art club.
听第 12 段对话,回答第13 至14小题。
( )13. Where does Kate have science lessons
A. In the classroom. B. In the lab. C. In the art room
( )14.What can we see in the school
A. A pool. B.A cinema. C.A library.
听第 13 段对话,回答第15 至16小题。
( )15. What hobby does Li Hua like best
A. Skating. B.Writing. C. Reading.
( )16.What did Li Hua get from writing
A. New friends. B.Much fun. C.New clothes.
听下面一段独白,回答第17 至20小题。
( )17. What day is it today
A. Monday. B. Tuesday. C. Wednesday.
( )18.How many pens does Li Ming have
A.One. B. Two. C.Five.
( )19. What colour is Li Ming’s T-shirt
A. Blue. B.Black. C.White.
( )20.How is Li Ming’s baseball cap
A. Cool. B.Old. C.New.
第二部分 基础知识运用（共两节，共20分）
第一节 短文填空（共5小题，每小题2分，共10分）
阅读下面短文，从方框内的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
A. the second floor B. go to school C.science and music D.Our English classes. E.like my classes
Amy is 12 years old. She is in a junior high school now. Today is her first day to 21 . She gets to school at 7:30. She sees many boys and girls in the school. Amy finds her classroom quickly (很快地). It’s on 22 .
The class begins at 8:00. An old woman comes into the classroom. She looks very nice. “Good morning, I’m Mrs Green. I’m your English teacher. 23 are on Monday and Wednesday. I think you’ll 24 ,” says Mrs Green. After the English class, Amy has 25 . Music is her favorite subject. In the afternoon, Amy has art and history.
This is Amy’s first day at school. Do you remember yours
第二节 完形填空（共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
先通读全文，掌握其大意，然后从各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Hello, everyone! My name is Lisa. I’m a student in Grade Seven. I have a happy family and many good friends.
First, let’s talk about my family. There are four people in my family: my parents, my twin brother Tom and me. My father is a doctor. He likes playing 26 chess with his friends on weekends. My mother is a teacher. She often 27 time reading books after work. Tom and I are in the same class. We are classmates and we 28 go to school together every day. We both like sports. Tom likes playing ping-pong, and he has a new ping-pong 29 . I like playing tennis. Sometimes we play sports together after school.
Next, let’s talk about my friends. I have a good friend named Sally. She is from 30 . She lives in Sydney with her family. Sally’s favorite food is Mapo tofu. She says it’s very delicious. Our hobbies are 31 . I like playing the guitar, but she likes playing the 32 . We often help 33 with our lessons. For example, I help her with Chinese, and she helps me with English. We also like to 34 friends with other students. We think it’s fun to get to know new people.
I love my family and my friends. They make my life full of happiness. I hope we can always stay together and have 35 every day.
26．A．China B．Chinese C．china D．chinese
27．A．spends B．takes C．uses D．pays
28．A．never B．sometimes C．usually D．hardly
29．A．ball B．bat C．hat D．rod
30．A．Australian B．the UK C．Australia D．the US
31．A．same B．the same C．different D．differently
32．A．guitar B．violin C．tennis D．chess
33．A．each other B．other C．others D．another
34．A．do B．make C．get D．take
35．A．fun B．funny C．activity D．mistake
第三部分 阅读理解和口语运用（共两节，共50分）
阅读理解共（共20 小题，每小题2分，共40分）
阅读下列语篇，从各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Jim’s grandpa has a farm. It’s small but beautiful. There are many animals on the farm. Under the trees, you can see five cows. They’re black and white. Listen! What are these They say “oink-oink”. Oh, they’re three pigs. What colour are they They’re white. On the lake, there are ten ducks. Are those ducks No, they aren’t. They are chickens. How many chickens does Jim’s grandpa have There are fifteen chickens. Where are the horses They’re behind the big tree. There are six horses. They’re black. Jim loves horses, but he can’t ride a horse.
I see some vegetables too. The carrots are orange. The tomatoes are red. There are also some potato plants. Jim likes the farm very much.
36．Where are the cows
A．On the lake. B．Under the trees.
C．Behind the big tree. D．Behind the house.
37．How many ducks does Jim’s grandpa have
A．Fifteen. B．Six. C．Ten. D．Five.
38．What colour are the horses
A．Black. B．White. C．Black and white. D．Brown.
39．Which of the following is TRUE
A．Jim can ride a horse.
B．There are five kinds of animals on the farm.
C．There are some apple trees on the farm.
D．You can see some sheep on the farm.
40．Which is the best title (最好的题目)
A．Jim’s grandpa B．The plants on the farm
C．The animals on the farm D．Jim’s grandpa’s farm
B
Tomorrow is the first day of junior high school. What are the students doing now And how do they feel Let’s have a look at these four students.
Hello, I’m Lisa. I’m packing my schoolbag now. I put my pencil case, textbooks, notebooks and my bottle in it. I’m very happy now because I will make new friends and have new teachers. Everything is new for me.
Hi, my name is Peter. I’m writing a self-introduction in my room now. Tomorrow my class teacher will ask us to introduce ourselves. I’m a little nervous, so I want to write it down first.
Hi, I’m Eric. I’m previewing (预习) the new textbooks in my room now. My parents and teachers all say previewing is a good way to study. I always preview before classes. I did well in all my subjects in primary school, so I’m confident for my junior high school life.
Good morning! I’m Sally. I’m making plans in my room now. A new term is beginning. I’m going to join the English club, the dance club and the art club. I will also learn maths well. Maths is difficult for me, but I think I will learn it well if I work hard. I’m excited about the junior high school life.
41.How many students are there
3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6
42.Who wants to join clubs in the new term
A．Lisa. B．Peter. C．Eric. D．Sally.
43．What is Lisa doing now
A．Making plans. B．Packing her schoolbag.
C．Writing a self-introduction. D．Previewing the new textbooks.
44．The underlined (划线) word “it” refers (指代) to ________.
A．English B．dance C．art D．maths
45．Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage
A．Lisa doesn’t need to take her bottle to the school.
B．Sally feels nervous about the beginning of the new term.
C．Eric was good at all subjects in his primary school.
D．The four students will introduce themselves on the first day.
C
Who is your favourite teacher The students of Class 2, Grade 7 take a vote (投票).
Simon: Mr. Green is my favourite teacher. He can sing very well. And he can teach us to sing. I admire him very much. Wednesday is my favourite day, because I have music that day.
Mr. Green, Mrs. Miller, Mr.Smith, music tcacher history teacher P.E,tcacher
Mar: Who’s my favourite teacher Mrs. Miller! She is very funny. She teaches history and we are relaxed and happy in her class. We have history on Monday. Tim: P.E. is my favourite subject and Mr. Smith is my favourite teacher. I think he is cool when he plays basketball.
46．How many students are there in Class 2, Grade 7
A．18. B．28. C．33. D．38.
47．Who is Simon’s favourite teacher
A．Mr. Green. B．Mr. Miller. C．Mr. Smith. D．Mrs. Miller.
48．Why is Wednesday Simon’s favourite day
A．Because he has history that day. B．Because he has music that day.
C．Because he can watch a film that day. D．Because he has no work to do that day.
49．When does Mar have history
A．On Monday. B．On Tuesday. C．On Wednesday. D．On Friday.
50．Which subject does Tim like best
A．English. B．P.E. C．Music. D．History.
D
①We all want to have great parties on our birthdays. But it’s not easy to have a great party. Let me tell you how to have a great party.
②We need to have it on the right day. If your friends or classmates are busy on that day, some of them will not come to your party. Saturday and Sunday are good days for a party because the students don’t go to school. You can have your party on Saturday afternoon. It’s OK to have it on Sunday afternoon, too.
③You need to invite (邀请) your friends and classmates to your party. Tell them when and where you have the party. If you have the party on Saturday, you need to tell them on Thursday. Then they can have time to prepare (准备) a present for you.
④Think about games for the party. If your friends and classmates like playing games at the party, you need to think about proper (合适的) games. The games need to be easy and interesting for your friends and classmates. Then you can have a good time at the party.
51．What’s the best time to have a party according to the passage
A．On Thursday. B．On Friday. C．On Monday. D．On Saturday.
52．You need to tell your friends and classmates ________ before the party so they can have time to prepare a present.
A．a week B．two days C．a month D．two hours
53．What does the last paragraph (段落) mainly talk about
A．The food at the party. B．The people at the party.
C．The games at the party. D．The presents at the party.
54．What is the structure (结构) of the passage
(①=Paragraph 1, ②=Paragraph 2,...)
A．B．C． D．
55．What’s the purpose (目的) of the passage
A．To introduce how to have a great party.
B．To advise students to prepare presents ahead (提前).
C．To introduce some proper games at the party.
D．To tell students to invite their friends and classmates.
第二节 口语运用（共5小题，每小题2分，共10分）
选择句子填入文段使对话完整 (有一个选项是多余的)。
A: Good afternoon, Dale!
B: Good afternoon, Helen!
A: What’s that
(
A
．
How do you spell it
B
．
What’s its name
C
．
She has a cute dog.
D
．
Is that girl your sister
E
．
Can you spell it
F
．
She’s my aunt.
)B: It’s a photo of my family.
A: 56
B: No, she’s my cousin, Alice. 57
A: What color is the dog
B: Brown.
A: 58
B: Scott.
A: 59
B: Yes. S-C-O-T-T.
A: Who’s the woman behind Alice
B: 60 The man and woman behind her are my grandparents.
A: Wow! What a big family you have!
B卷（共四部分，共55分）
第四部分 单词拼写（共两节，共20小题；每小题1分，共20分）
第一节 根据汉语提示，用单词的正确形式填空，每空一词。
1.Are you______________（准备好······的）for your first day of junior high？
2.Mr Wu asks me to______________（介绍）my new friend in English.
3.Learning _____________（缺乏；没有）thinking is of no use.
4.All my classmates are very_____________（有礼貌的）.
5.Do you____________（记得）your tenth birthday，Linda？
6.The____________（风）is heavy outside.
7.These ping-pong__________(球拍)are nice.
8.______________（每人）has his own hobby.
9.I play the ___________(吉他) in the school band.
10.I’m Peter Brown. Brown is my _________(姓)name.
第二节、选词填空
将下列单词的适当形式填入空格。每词只能填一次。
and a he be song play on animal at some
On Sunday, Leo and 11 friends go to the West Hill Farm. It’s far from their school, so they go there on their school bus. They take some food and drinks with them. When they get to the farm, the farmers 12 very glad to see them.
13 the farm, they see many kinds of 14 , like cows, rabbits and chickens. Look 15 the rabbits. They are so cute! The girls help the farmers feed the pigs and the boys get 16 water for the farmers. In the afternoon, the students go to play on the hill. Bob 17 David fly a kite with their dog. Kate and Lucy sing many 18 with Jenny. Leo 19 basketball with Alan near the hill. They all have 20 happy day.
第五部分 短文改错（共10小题，每小题1 分，共10分）
下面短文中的划线部分是错误的，请改正，但不得改变原文意思。
Hello,boys and girls! We’re two new student at Green Middle School, 21______
and we’re excited to make some new friend! Let’s introduce 22_______
ourselves and share something about we. 23________
Hi, I’m Emma! I love animals, and I have a pet cat.He name is Toby, 24______
and he’s my best friend.I like read books . 25________
If(如果) you love animals or books,also . Let’s be friends! 26________
Hey, I’m Li Lan! I really like sports, and I can play the football 27_______
and basketball well. I play on ours school’s football team, 28_______
and I want to joining the basketball team . I also love listening 29_______
for music and playing the violin. If you’re interested in 30_______
sports or music, we can be friends!
第六部分 任务型阅读（共5小题，每小题2分，共10分）
请阅读下面一篇短文，根据所提供的信息，简要回答五个问题。要求所写答案语法正确、语义完整切题。
The students of primary schools in the UK arrive at school at 8:45 am. Most of the children walk to school, but some go to school by car.
The children wear school uniforms and carry their homework and lunch in their schoolbags. School begins at 8:55 am. The children stand in line (排队) in the playground and wait quietly for their teachers to take them to the classrooms. After they go into the classrooms, they take out their books and homework.
The first lesson of a day begins at 9:20 am. The morning lessons are usually English and maths. Each of these lessons lasts for an hour.
The children have their morning break from 10:20 am to 10:35 am. There are 15 minutes .They bring some snacks from home to eat and they play games in the playground. Football is a very popular game, and the children also play many other games.
Lunchtime is from 12:00 at noon to 1:10 pm. Most children bring their own lunch from home.
Afternoon lessons are usually PE, science, art and computer and the afternoon lessons go on until 3:15 pm.
31．What time do the students of primary schools in the UK arrive at school （no more than 3 words）
32．Who takes the students to the classrooms (no more than 2words)
33．When does the first lesson of a day begin (no more than 3 words)
34．How long do the children have their morning break (no more than 2 words)
35．What lessons do the students usually have in the afternoon (no more than 5 words)
第七部分 书面表达（共15分）
36．假如你是 Teng Fei，现在就读于No.1 Middle School, 请写一篇介绍自己、学校和家人的文章。 Write a passage about yourself,your family and your school.
写作要点：1、个人介绍：姓名、年龄、外貌、性格、爱好、最喜爱的科目。
家人介绍：家庭成员数量、家人的职业和与你的关系、你和家人喜欢一起做的事。
学校介绍：学校名称、班级、你最喜欢学校的哪个地方，喜欢的原因。
写作要求：1、 短文应包含所有要点，可适当发挥；
2、 词数：60词左右，开头已给出，不计入总词数；
3、 文中不得出现真实的姓名和学校名称。
参考词汇：tall， kind , smart, farmer, teacher, driver, housewife n. 家庭主妇
Hello! My name is Teng Fei.____________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
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