资源简介

2025年秋季期期中教学质量检测八年级英语参考答案及评分标准
一、1~5 CAFEB 6~10 ACBCA 11~15 BABAC 16~20 CBBAC 21~25 BACAB
weekend 27. taste 28. square 29. cool 30. bamboo
二、31~35 BEFAC
三、36~40 AABBC 41~45 CBCAA
四、46-50 BABCC 51-55 CABCA 56~60 ABBCA
61. Camping. （抄原文得2分）
62. Tourists in Guizhou Province. （抄原文得1分）
63. Because many hotels and restaurants didn’t let pets in. （没有Because扣1分）
64. I think camping is a good way to travel. （言之有理即可）
65. More people will love camping trips in the future. / Camping will be more popular next National Day.
（言之有理即可）
五、66. greatest 67. real 68. ideas 69. as 70. novel
71. humour 72. lively 73. disappointed 74. died 75. role
六、One possible version
Dear Peter,
How are you Our class will have a party this Saturday evening. I’m writing to ask for your help—we need to decorate the classroom together, and there’s a lot to do.
First, we can clean the classroom first. Then, we’ll hang the colourful lights around the room. After that, we need to put up the party posters on the wall. Maybe we can also blow up some red balloons to make it nicer.
I hope you can come. With your help, the classroom will look great, and the party will be fun. Can you join me at 2 p.m. this Saturday
Best wishes,
Chen Jie
评分标准
一、听力测试（26—30小题）、选词填空（66—75小题）
按参考答案评分，每小题单词拼写完全正确才得分，形式不对（含大小写错误）不予评分。
二、书面表达
（一）评分原则
1.本题满分为15分，不设小数点以下分值。评卷员熟悉各档次作文评分细则（第5档13-15分；第4档10-12分；第3档7-9分：第2档4-6分；第1档1-3分)。（见下表）。
2.本题具有一定的开放性，考生可以根据要点紧扣主题适当发挥，但必须涵盖所有要点内容。
3.评分时，先根据考生的书面表达内容及语言表达情况，初步确定其所属档次，然后根据该档次的要求衡量、确定或调整档次，最后评分。相同的错误不重复计算；单词拼写错误四个以上扣0.5分，全文最多扣2分；字数少于80词扣1分。
4.如书写较差以至影响交际，将其分数扣分1分。
5.对于抄袭试卷内容情况的处理：完全抄袭试卷内容，赋分0分；若抄袭内容是根据主题巧妙增删后写进作文的，则参照评分标准给分。
6.文中若透露个人信息，一律不予评分。
五级写作评分标准
档次 分数 评分标准
第五档 13～15分 很好地完成了规定的写作任务。包含所有内容要点，结构完整，语句流畅，意思清楚、连贯。使用较为丰富的语法结构和词汇，语法和词汇错误极少（没有或仅有1处语法错误），格式正确，书写规范。
第四档 10～12分 较好地完成了规定的写作任务。基本上包含所有内容要点，结构较完整，语句完整，意思清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较少（有2～3处语法错误），格式基本正确，书写较为规范。
第三档 7～9分 基本上完成了规定的写作任务。包含主要内容要点，结构欠完整，少数语句不通顺，意思基本清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较多（有4～5处语法错误），格式基本正确，书写基本规范。
第二档 4～6分 未能按要求完成规定的写作任务。只包含少数内容要点，结构不完整，多数语句欠完整，意思不够清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较多（有6～7处语法错误），影响理解，格式不够正确，书写欠规范。
第一档 1～3分 未能按要求完成规定的写作任务。只写出个别要点，结构不完整，多数语句不完整或意思不明，语法和词汇错误很多，书写不规范。
0分 未能传达给读者任何信息。内容太少，无法评判；写的内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。
（二）具体评分建议（满分15分）
1.时态：一般现在时和一般将来时为主，通篇时态错误扣2分；
2.人称：第一人称为主，也可以第二人称为主。通篇人称错误扣1分；
3.⑴写邮件的原因（3分）；
⑵需要做的事情（8分）；
⑶你期待（3分）。
注：字数和书写共1分，如果书写影响评卷，或字数不到80词，则各扣1分；
要求：
每个部分的内容，可以分几个句子完成，也可以用一个句子包含所有要点。只要写出了要点，就能得分。
2. 用上恰当的过渡词，使得过渡自然。可以围绕中心进行适当拓展。
3. 全篇无语法和词汇错误，但是人称或时态错误出现超过两次，扣2分。
4. 覆盖所有内容要点（要点应有适当拓展），结构清晰，要点齐全。
2025年秋季期期中教学质量检测八年级英语听力录音材料
一、听力。
（一）听句子，选图片。你将听到五个句子，请选出与所听句子内容相符的图片，有一幅图是多余的。每个句子读两遍。
1. Look! There is a rainbow in the sky.
2. Tom, could you please pack up your things now
3. My dad gives me a lift on his way to work.
4. Ants can carry food much heavier than itself.
5. The mirror on the left is bigger than the one on the right.
（二）听短对话，选择最佳答案。你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，请根据对话内容，选出最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。
6. M: Lucy, what do you plan to do this Saturday Will you go hiking
W: No. I plan to visit my uncle’s farm with my parents.
7. W: Tom, what did you do in the school art show
M: I drew a picture of my cat. Many teachers liked it.
8. W: Where did you go on holiday, Sam
M: I didn’t go anywhere special, but I still had a relaxing and fun holiday.
9. M: Grandpa and Grandma are visiting us tomorrow! Let’s clean up the house.
W: OK, dad.
10. M: Emma, is that Lucy
W: No, she is Lily. Lucy has shorter hair than Lily.
（三）听长对话，选择最佳答案。你将听到三段对话，请根据对话内容，选出每个问题的最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。
请听第一段对话，回答第11至13小题。
M: What are you reading, Diana
W: The Prince and the Pauper.
M: What is it about
W: It tells a story about the prince Edward and the poor boy Tom exchanged their lives by accident.
M: Sounds interesting. What’s the ending
W: Oh, Jack, it’s a surprise! You should read it by yourself.
M: Good idea. Let’s share our opinions after I finish it.
请听第二段对话，回答第14至16小题。
M: Welcome to the Great Wall, I’m your tour guide. Feel free to ask me any questions you have.
W: Can you tell me why people built the wall
M: Long ago, emperors built parts of the wall to protect their people.
W: So, who first connected different parts of the wall into a big one
M: It was Qin Shihuang, the First Emperor of China.
W: Do you know how long its history is
M: Yes! It has a history of more than 2,000 years.
请听第三段对话，回答第17至20小题。
M: Wow, look at those flowers! They are so beautiful. What are they
W: Those are peonies. They are one of the most popular flowers in Chinese culture.
M: I’ve never seen such big and colorful flowers. Their colours are so bright.
W: Yeah, peonies come in many colors like red, pink and white. They really catch people’s eyes.
M: They do! Are they easy to grow
W: They are not easy to grow. People need to take good care of them.
M: I see. Is there anything interesting about peonies
W: Well, in China, people call the peony “the king of flowers”. Besides this, peonies often appear in Chinese artworks like Chinese paintings and paper-cuts.
M: Oh, I want to buy a Chinese painting with peonies on it! My grandpa love Chinese painting very much.
W: Good idea. Let’s go now.
（四）听短文，选择最佳答案。（共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
你将听到一篇短文，请根据短文内容，选出每个问题的最佳答案。短文读两遍。
Boys and girls, there will be an art festival in our school next month. It’s a great chance for you to show your abilities and hobbies—and there are nice prizes!
If you are good at music, you can sing your favorite songs or play the guitar. The best music acts will get a colorful notebook. Do you like dancing You can join the dance show with your friends. Top dancers will win a pair of dancing shoes. For students who enjoy making small things by yourself, put your works in the hall. Great artworks will get an art tool set. Even if you like telling jokes, you can share funny stories with everyone. A storybook is for the best storyteller.
Don’t be shy! Come and join the art festival. We are all looking forward to your show!
（五）听短文，填信息。（共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
你将听到一篇短文，请根据短文内容，将所缺信息填入对应横线上，每空一词。短文读三遍。
Do you want to have a great time on the weekend Our trip to Lijiang is a good choice! We have it every weekend.
The trip is really interesting. You can walk on the old streets, enjoy the ancient buildings and taste delicious snacks. The best part There is a treasure hunt in the town square! It starts at 3:00 p.m. You can make a team with friends to look for “treasure” behind old doors or any place in the town. It’s so exciting!
Besides, our trip is full of fun activities! There are some wonderful shows. You can watch the actors do cool tricks like walking on a rope. It’s really amazing! And there’s a DIY activity. You can make your own small bamboo box or other interesting things. It’s a great way to take home a special gift of the town.2025年秋季期期中教学质量检测
八年级英语
(全卷满分120分，考试时间120分钟)
注意事项：
1. 答题前，考生务必将姓名、准考证号填写在试卷和答题卡上。
2. 考生作答时，请在答题卡上作答(答题注意事项见答题卡), 在本试卷、草稿纸上作答无效。
3. 考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
4. 先考听力，在听力开始前有两分钟听力试音时间。
一、听力（共30小题，每小题1分，共30分）
（一）听句子，选图片。
你将听到五个句子，请选出与所听句子内容相符的图片,有一幅图是多余的。每个句子读两遍。
A B C D E F
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
（二）听短对话，选择最佳答案。
你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，请根据对话内容，选出最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。
6. What will Lucy do this Saturday
A. Visit her uncle’s farm. B. Go to the zoo. C. Go hiking.
7. What did Tom do in the school art show
A. He played the piano. B. He sang a song. C. He drew a picture.
8. What does Sam think of his holiday
A. Boring and tired. B. Relaxing and fun. C. Meaningful and interesting.
9. Why do they clean up the house
A. Because their house is dirty.
B. Because Grandpa and Grandma don’t like their house.
C. Because Grandpa and Grandma are visiting them tomorrow.
10. Whose hair is shorter
A. Lucy’s. B. Lily’s. C. Emma’s.
（三）听长对话，选择最佳答案。
你将听到三段对话，请根据对话内容，选出每个问题的最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。
请听第一段对话，回答第11至13小题。
11. What is Diana reading
A. The Ugly Duckling.
B. The Prince and the Pauper.
C. The Emperor’s New Clothes.
12. What does the boy think of the book
A. Interesting. B. Meaningful. C. Boring.
13. Why does Diana not want to tell Jack the ending
A. Because she doesn’t know the ending.
B. Because she wants him to read the book by himself.
C. Because she doesn’t want to share opinions with him.
请听第二段对话，回答第14至16小题。
14. What’s the relationship (关系) between the man and the woman
A. The tour guide and the tourist. B. Friends. C. Classmates.
15. Who first connected different parts of the wall into a big one
A. The Third Emperor of China.
B. The Second Emperor of China.
C. The First Emperor of China.
16. How long is the history of the Great Wall
A. More than 3,000 years. B. More than 2,500 years. C. More than 2,000 years.
请听第三段对话，回答第17至20小题。
17. What does the man think of the flowers
A. Ugly. B. Beautiful. C. Popular.
18. How many colours are mentioned in the conversation
A. 2. B. 3. C. 4.
19. What do people in China call the peony
A. The king of flowers. B. The treasure of plants. C. The symbol of good luck.
20. What will the man do next according to the conversation
A. He will grow a peony.
B. He will paint a peony.
C. He will buy a painting with peonies on it.
（四）听短文，选择最佳答案。
你将听到一篇短文，请根据短文内容，选出每个问题的最佳答案。短文读两遍。
21. When is the art festival
A. This month. B. Next month. C. Next week.
22. Who will get a pair of dancing shoes
A. Top dancers.
B. The one who sings best.
C. Students who enjoy making smalls things.
23. What will you get if your artwork win
A. A colorful notebook. B. A storybook. C. An art tool set.
24. What can you do in the festival if you like telling jokes
A. Share funny stories. B. Play jokes on others. C. Make others laugh.
25. What does the speaker actually want students to do according to the passage
A. To have fun. B. To join the festival. C. To win prizes.
（五）听短文，填信息。
你将听到一篇短文，请根据短文内容，将所缺信息填入答题卡对应的横线上，每空一词。短文读三遍。
A trip to Lijiang
Time Every 26
What to do Walk on the old streets, enjoy the ancient buildings and 27 delicious snacks
A treasure hunt: in the town 28 at 3:00pm; make a team with friends to look for “treasure”
Wonderful shows: watch the actors do 29 tricks like walking on a rope
A DIY activity: make your own small 30 box or other interesting things.
二、补全对话（本大题共5小题，每小题2分，共10分）
根据对话内容，从下面方框中选出恰当的句子补全对话，有一个选项是多余的。
A: Hi, Tom. How are you
B: Hi, Adam. 31 The holiday was really wonderful—still feeling happy about it.
A: Oh, that’s cool! 32
B: Yes! I went to Moscow with my parents.
A: That’s amazing! Did you visit any famous places there
B: 33
A: You visited the Moscow Metro Why
B: 34
A: Really 35
A. The stations looked like palaces! B. I’m great, thanks! C. Did you take any photos there D. What did you do there E. Did you go anywhere special during the holiday F. Sure! We went to Red Square and we also visited the Moscow Metro.
B: A lot of them! The pictures in Moscow Metro are so great, I couldn’t stop taking photos. I’ll show you after school.
三、完形填空（本大题共10小题，每小题1.5分，共15分）
阅读下面语篇，从各小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出最佳选项。
Last summer, during my 36 , I joined a whale-watching trip and learned a lot about whales.
Before the trip, the guide 37 us that we shouldn’t make loud noises, because whales used sound to 38 with each other. First, we saw a blue whale. Our tour guide said it was 39 bigger than any other animal in the world—its body was 40 three buses! A few minutes later, we saw a right whale (露脊鲸). It was so 41 and hard to see that we almost missed it. Then we heard a low song. The guide told us it was a humpback whale—many people think its song was one of the most beautiful 42 in the ocean.
43 the trip, I watched the whales swim away and said goodbye to them in a low voice.
44 we want to keep seeing these beautiful creatures (生物), we must act now. To our planet, whales are not just big animals—they’re the 45 parts of the ocean’s ecosystem, and we must protect them.
36. A. vacation B. countryside C. town
37. A. reminded B. respected C. noticed
38. A. protect B. communicate C. share
39. A. many B. much C. few
40. A. tallest of B. shorter than C. as long as
41. A. huge B. big C. small
42. A. animals B. sounds C. colour
43. A. At the beginning of B. In the middle of C. At the end of
44. A. If B. When C. So
45. A. most wonderful B. more boring C. less important
四、阅读理解 (本大题共20小题，每小题2分，共40分)
A
Hi，I’m Chen Jing. I’m a little quiet and I like reading books. Should friends be similar or different Here is some information about my three good friends, you will find my answer after reading it.
Name Appearance Personality Hobbies and interests Strength
Liu Yong Tall (172cm); heavy； wears glasses serious; hard-working enjoys reading books, especially famous novels good at all subjects;
Zhang Tao Tall (178cm)； strong; long face outgoing; funny likes playing sports plays basketball better than anyone else in his class
Sally slim; big eyes; long hair quiet; kind of shy interested in music dances well;
根据语篇内容，选择最佳选项。
46. What is Chen Jing like
A. She is kind of shy. B. She is a little quiet. C. She is quite outgoing.
47. Who is probably Zhang Tao
A. B. C.
48. Who likes reading
A. Liu Yong and Sally. B. Liu Yong and Chen Jing. C. Zhang Tao and Sally.
49. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage
A. Sally can’t dance well.
B. Liu Yong is as tall as Zhang Tao.
C. Zhang Tao plays basketball best in his class.
50. What can you infer (推断) from the passage
A. Chen Jing thinks friends should be alike.
B. Chen Jing thinks friends should be different.
C. Chen Jing doesn’t care if her friends are similar to or different from her.
B
①A sweet home is not about big houses or expensive (贵的) things. It comes from small, warm actions we all can take every day.
②First, talk with each other more. When we feel happy or sad, share it with family members. For example, tell your parents about an interesting class at school, or ask your brother how his football game went. Listening carefully is also important—put down your phone and look at them when they talk. This makes everyone feel loved and heard.
③Second, help with housework. You don’t need to do hard jobs, easy things like making your bed, washing dishes after dinner, or taking out the rubbish work. Parents are busy, so your small help can make them feel relaxed. Working together also lets you talk and laugh more.
④Third, be kind and calm. Sometimes family members may fight with each other, like when you and your sister both want to use the computer. Don’t shout or cry! Take a breath first, then find a good way to solve the problem. Remember to say “sorry” when you’re wrong, and “thank you” for their help. A smile or a hug can also make the home full of love.
⑤Small steps like these will turn our home into a sweet place where everyone feels warm and loved.
根据语篇内容，选择最佳选项。
51. According to the passage, what kind of housework can you do to make a sweet home
A. Hard jobs. B. Dirty work. C. Easy things.
52. How many ways are mentioned (提及) in this passage to make a sweet home
A. 3. B. 4. C. 5.
53. What does the underlined word “calm” in Paragraph ④ mean in Chinese
A. 生气的. B. 平静的. C. 挑剔的.
54. According to the passage, what can make family members feel the home is full of love
A. Expensive things. B. Talking with them on the phone. C. A smile or a hug.
55. What is the structure (结构) of the passage
① ① ①②③④
A.②③④ B. ②③④⑤ C. ⑤
⑤
C
①Many people think plants are quiet. They believe plants can’t talk, walk, or feel like us. But they are wrong. A new TV show gives us a new look at plants. It shows the lives of plants and how plants live.
②Plants compete (竞争) against each other to live. For example, in the rainforest, different kinds of plants are in a race. What are they racing for It’s sunlight. Only 2% of sunlight can reach the forest floor. Some plants spread (展开) their leaves to catch more light. Some trees may give out something to protect themselves.
③However, plants don’t just compete—they also help each other. Water is very important in deserts (沙漠). If a tree finds water in deserts, it doesn’t keep it all to itself. Instead, it will share it with other plants. If a tomato plant gets sick, it can tell other plants around it to be careful because it wants the other plants to be safe.
④The TV show not only makes us surprised at the plant world but also tells us that plants are important. Plants meet the needs of all lives. They give food to animals and humans. People and nature are connected, it’s time for us to take good care of plants.
根据语篇内容，选择最佳选项。
56. What does the new TV show give us
A. A new look at plants. B. A different kind of plant. C. A new kind of plant.
57. Why are the plants in the rainforest in a race
A. To find more food.
B. To catch more sunlight.
C. To tell other plants around it to be careful.
58. What does the underline word “it” in Paragraph③refer (指) to
A. The desert. B. Water. C. The tree.
59. What can we learn from the passage
A. Plants can’t talk, walk, or feel like us.
B. Plants have to compete all the time to live.
C. Although plants compete against each other to live, sometimes they help each other.
60. What’s the best title of the passage
A. Plants: More Than We Think.
B. Plants Compete for Sunlight.
C. How Plants Help Each Other.
D
Camping was the most popular way to travel during the 2025 National Day, especially among young people.
Many people searched for camping online. The number of searches grew most in Sichuan and Chongqing, and many people looked for camping road trips and beautiful landscape there. The people there liked short trips most. While those in Guangdong Province liked to go for a picnic at campsites (营地), mountain scenery was the most interesting to tourists in Guizhou Province. Both young people and those traveling with children thought that camping was a way to feel nature and enjoy outdoor activities such as riding and boating, and they liked to visit the grassland (草原) and the sea better.
For the people who traveled with their pets, they also liked camping. They thought pets were their family members, too. However, many hotels and restaurants didn’t let pets in. So camping was a good way to solve this problem.
“Camping while traveling has many benefits (好处).” A tourist said. “You can get close to nature and enjoy the beautiful sights when you open your eyes the next morning. The most important thing is that you can spend less money camping than staying in hotels!”
根据语篇内容，简要回答下列问题。
61. What was the most popular way to travel during the 2025 National Day
62. Who thought mountain scenery were the most interesting
63. Why did the people who traveled with their pets also like camping
64. What do you think of camping
65. Write an ending sentence for the passage. (不超过20词)
五、选词填空（本大题共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
根据语篇内容，从方框中选择恰当的单词，并用其正确形式填空。将单词填写在答题卡对应的横线上。每个单词只能用一次。
ideas humour great as die novel role lively disappoint real
Do you know Mark Twain He is one of the 66 American writers. His 67 name was Samuel Langhorne Clemens, and “Mark Twain” was his pen name. This name came from a river term, meaning “safe water depth (深度)” for ships.
Mark Twain grew up in a small town near the Mississippi River. The river gave him many 68 for his stories. He once worked 69 a sailor (水手) on a ship, and these life experiences made his writing very good.
His most popular books is The Adventures of Tom Sawyer. It is a 70 . It tells interesting stories about a boy named Tom. His books are full of 71 , so people of all ages love reading them. He used simple (简单的) and 72 language to make his stories easy to understand. You will never feel 73 after reading.
Mark Twain 74 in 1910, but people still love his books today. He plays an important 75 in literature (文学). Many people call him “the father of American literature”.
六、书面表达（15分）
假如你是Chen Jie,这个周六晚上你们班要举行一场晚会，而你是这次晚会的负责人。请你写一封电子邮件给Peter，请他星期六下午来帮忙一起装饰教室。
写作提示：1.写邮件的原因
2.需要做的事情（如：打扫教室，挂彩灯，张贴海报,吹气球等）
3.你的期待
参考词汇：decorate (装饰) colourful light (彩灯) poster (海报) balloon (气球)
写作要求：1.内容必须包括上面所有信息；
2.可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯；
3.文中不得透露个人信息；
4.词数80左右（开头结尾已给出，不计入总词数）。
Dear Peter,
How are you Our class will have a party this Saturday evening.
Best
Chen Jie

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