资源简介

2022学年第二学期高三年级质量调研考试
英语试卷
考生注意：
1. 考试时间120分钟，试卷满分140分。
2. 本次考试设试卷和答题纸两部分。所有答题必须涂（选择题）或写（非选择题）在答题纸上，做在试卷上一律不得分。
3. 答题前，务必在答题纸规定的地方张贴条形码并填写考生号和姓名。
I. Listening Comprehension
Section A
Directions: In Section A, you will hear ten short conversations between two speakers. At the end of each conversation, a question will be asked about what was said. The conversations and the questions will be spoken only once. After you hear a conversation and the question about it, read the four possible answers on your paper, and decide which one is the best answer to the question you have heard.
1. A. She prefers to stay home. B. She accepts the man’s advice.
C. She wants to do something else. D. She doesn’t like a long walk.
2 . A. He needs a shower urgently. B. He doesn’t need anything.
C. He wants to drink something. D. He isn’t sweating at the moment.
3. A. She prefers to eat out. B. She is not hungry at all.
C. She has a lot to do in the kitchen. D. She wants to make their own food.
4. A. Skating is too hard to learn. B. The woman should quit skating.
C. Skating isn’t too hard for him. D. The woman should keep trying.
5. A. Give up the game. B. Make a new plan.
C. Have tough training. D. Avoid the opponent.
6. A. He doesn’t like the role. B. He lacks confidence.
C. He needs to know the role well. D. He should remember every word.
7. A. The food tastes differently. B. The man should see a different view.
C. The food is worth the price. D. The prices on the menu are ridiculous.
8. A. A past overseas experience. B. A computer game.
C. A coming vacation plan. D. An imaginary situation.
9. A. Practice the presentation. B. Simplify the presentation.
C. Leave out the middle part. D. Ask for more time for the presentation.
10. A. He will leave the bike outside. B. The bike needs to be repaired.
C. He doesn’t need the bike anymore. D. The bike is in good condition.
Section B
Directions: In Section B, you will hear two short passages and one longer conversation, and you will be asked several questions on each of the passages and the conversation. The passages and the conversation will be read twice, but the questions will be spoken only once. When you hear a question, read the four possible answers on your paper and decide which one would be the best answer to the question you have heard.
Questions 11 through 13 are based on the following speech.
11. A. Students of West Side School. B. The West Side School art teacher.
C. Authority of West Side School. D. The Californian government.
12. A. 1. B. 2. C. 3. D. 4.
13. A. The unexpected charm of art. B. A project beneficial to students.
C. Gratitude from the hotline callers. D. Messages from kids make differences.
Questions 14 through 16 are based on the following speech.
14. A. Birds’ physical characteristics. B. The migrating patterns of birds.
C. The size of bird population. D. The behavior of migrating birds.
15. A. They become tired of their partners. B. They can’t reach home at the same time.
C. They are likely to find new mates. D. They have conflicts during the flight.
16. A. They are able to keep pace with their partners.
B. They migrate shorter distances than other birds.
C. They do not have to migrate for food.
D. They have little chance to meet new mates.
Questions 17 through 20 are based on the following conversation.
17. A. The theme is too hard to understand. B. The sound is too frightening.
C. The opening images are too violent. D. The language is unacceptable.
18. A. The dialect. B. The conversation.
C. The background. D. The plot.
19. A. It makes the book unusual. B. It makes the characters vivid.
C. It makes the dialogues humorous. D. It makes the book easy to read.
20. A. The film is officially prohibited to children because of violence in it.
B. The woman finds that the film is more interesting than the book.
C. The man believes the film is fairly priced and recommends seeing it.
D. The man has negative comments both on the book and the film.
Ⅱ. Grammar and Vocabulary
Section A
Directions: After reading the passage below, fill in the blanks to make the passage coherent and grammatically correct. For the blanks with a given word, fill in each blank with the proper form of the given word; for the other blanks, use one word that best fits each blank.
Humans have been living and working on the space station for over 20 years. Their meals are packaged, though sometimes astronauts receive fresh treats (21) _______ resupply missions. The longer that packaged food is stored, the more (22) _______ may lose nutrients.
Astronauts have successfully grown 10 different crops on the space station since 2015 and had the chance (23) _______ (taste) each one. The International Space Station hosted a party for astronauts on Friday as they celebrated the harvest of the first chili peppers (24) _______ (raise) in space.
Plant Habitat-04 was one of the most complex plant experiments on the orbiting laboratory (25) _______ peppers took much longer to grow than the previous experiment plants there. After growing for four months, the peppers (26) _______ (harvest) on Friday. When the vegetables were ready to eat, the astronauts also completed a sensory assessment. They rated the flavor, color, appearance, and taste of the produce to see (27) _______ the labor over their greens proved fruitful as a supplement to prepackaged space food.
Fresh greens, like peppers, provide a great source of key nutrients, which are essential to human bodies. Fresh greens also have psychological benefits. They can help to keep morale (士气) and provide a sense of normalcy (正常) on missions (28) _______ all the conditions are distinctively different from the earth. Fresh greens make a long-duration mission (29) _______ (bearable) by providing a taste of home.
Looking to the future, the plant experiments have the potential to significantly impact the sustainability of space exploration. They (30) _______, one day, provide a food source for long-term habitation of Mars and other planets.
Section B
Directions: Complete the following passage by using the words in the box. Each word can only be used once. Note that there is one word more than you need.
A. content B. overextend C. develop D. innovate E. pursued
F. top G. surface H. addiction I. emerge J. cloud
K. licensed
On TikTok, “Self-care” has 28.2 billion views, while the hashtag (主题标签) can be found on over 66 million Instagram posts. Also, books about self-care often 31 many people’s shopping lists.
On the 32 , it makes complete sense. Who wouldn’t like the idea of making oneself feel better and taking care of their mind, body and soul Yet, we have to be careful not to view self-care as a cure-all solution to our problems. Self-care 33 without awareness of your specific needs and consistent (一致的) evaluation can cause emotional, financial, mental and physical consequences.
According to Zishan Khan, a psychologist with Mindpath Health, self-care can lead to a person becoming frustrated when met with a sea of suggestions, which 34 everywhere from podcasts to self-help books. “So, don’t allow what others suggest to 35 your internal voice,” says Khan. “Self-care can only benefit a person if it’s consistent with their goals and values.”
Khan further emphasizes the danger of uncontrolled physically-centered self-care advice, such as from influencers. “Their 36 often overly focuses on beauty and improving one’s looks. This can unintentionally lead to body image concern and thus actually worsen one’s mental health,” she says.
Another danger can come when self-care actions reach the level of 37 , says Melissa Boudin, a psychologist of Choosing Therapy. “When you spend a large amount of time thinking about or practicing a certain self-care behavior, this may be that self-care has gone from beneficial to harmful,” she says, using the example of self-care through healthy eating and then going so far as to 38 an eating disorder.
Lena Suarez-Angelino, a(n) 39 clinical social worker, has recommended creating a list of activities that make you feel better but don’t 40 you. Worthwhile and beneficial self-care may include anything from time with loved ones to walking. While self-care is important, it should not be overdone.
Ⅲ. Reading Comprehension
Section A
Directions: For each blank in the following passage there are four words or phrases marked A, B, C and D. Fill in each blank with the word or phrase that best fits the context.
What will you do when you are hungry Of course, anyone would go and grab something to eat. And then, what determines the 41 of food you take in You may not be right if your answer is the degree of hunger. The conventional concept that 42 is the key factor is open to challenge. In recent years, a growing body of research has shown that our appetite and food intake (摄入) are influenced by a large number of factors besides our 43 need for energy. Some of the factors include our eating 44 and our perception of the food in front of us.
Studies have shown that 45 eating, for instance, eating while watching TV, or a similar distraction, can increase both hunger and food consumption. Even simple 46 clues, like plate size and lighting, have been shown to affect consumption.
A new study suggested that our short-term 47 also may play a role in appetite. Several hours after a meal, people’s hunger levels were predicted not by how much they’d eaten but rather by how much food they’d seen in front of them — 48 , how much they remembered eating.
This difference suggests that the recall of our previous meal may have a bigger influence on our 49 than the actual size of the meal, says Jeffrey M. Brunstrom, a professor of experimental psychology at the University of Bristol.
These findings agree with the earlier research that suggests our perception of food can sometimes 50 our body’s response to the food itself. In a 2011 study, for instance, people who drank the same 380-calorie milkshake on two 51 occasions produced different levels of hunger-related hormones (荷尔蒙), depending on whether the shake’s 52 said it contained 620 or 140 calories. Moreover, the participants reported feeling 53 when they thought they’d consumed a higher-calories shake.
What does this mean to our eating habits Although it hardly seems practical to cheat ourselves into eating less, the new findings do highlight the benifit of focusing on our food, avoiding TV and multitasking while eating. The so-called mindful-eating strategies can fight against 54 while we are eating. By 55 mindful eating techniques, you have the opportunity to change your current eating habits by becoming more self-aware and in tune to your body’s hunger cues.
41. A. quality B. amount C. nutrient D. variety
42. A. deliciousness B. hunger C. nutrition D. flavor
43. A. occasional B. potential C. external D. biological
44. A. environment B. content C. time D. ability
45. A. habitual B. purposeful C. unfocused D. absorbed
46. A. optional B. visual C. hidden D. flexible
47. A. vacancy B. hunger C. supply D. memory
48. A. in other words B. as a whole C. by all means D. all in all
49. A. motive B. growth C. appetite D. health
50. A. advocate B. trick C. justify D. enhance
51. A. identical B. alternative C. dependent D. separate
52. A. label B. function C. usage D. material
53. A. wiser B. healthier C. happier D. fuller
54. A. distress B . waste C. distraction D. fullness
55. A. employing B. perceiving C. clarifying D. assuming
Section B
Directions: Read the following three passages. Each passage is followed by several questions or unfinished statements. For each of them there are four choices marked A, B, C and D. Choose the one that fits best according to the information given in the passage you have read.
(A)
When I step out onto the deck, I definitely feel the Arctic chill. That’s not surprising. I’m a good hundred miles inside the Arctic Circle; in fact, you can’t get much farther north and still be in Sweden. This is Abisko Mountain Station, perhaps the crown jewel of the Swedish mountain lodges (小屋). I’m back for a second time to this remote, scenic spot.
Last Autumn, a heavy snowstorm trapped me in my tent for days and eventually forced me to go to the station, a comfortable place. I discovered a different side to Abisko. People come here for many reasons – some to hike, some to climb, some to cross-country ski. But there’s yet another entirely different attraction here. Looking out from the deck of the train station, above a huge lake, in the upper sky of the North Pole, the Aurora, as we often refer to the northern light, mixed with green and red, was giving off ghostly light, rolling across the dark night sky.
The Aurora may be old hat to those who live this far north, but for the rest of us it is an unforgettable experience. The lights here were so appealing to us we quickly forgot the discomfort of the cold.
One of the attractions in Abisko is the Tornetrask. It’s a huge lake, which extends more than 70 kilometres long just north of the station, creates an unusual weather phenomenon that keeps the skies above the station clear even when fog or clouds blanket most of northern Sweden. The sky in this area is mostly clear all year around.
Abisko has a lot to offer to make it an ideal place to view the Aurora. It is far from any city lights. The station operates a ski lift to the top of Nuolja Peak, more than 3,000 feet high. For the first time this year, a cafe at the top of the mountain has been turned into a viewing platform for the Northern Lights, called the Aurora Sky Station. Also, the station posts forecasts each night of expected Aurora activity, collected from scientific observations arriving via computer, so visitors may choose the best viewing time.
56. What was the reason for the author’s first visit to the lodge
A. He went there in search of the Aurora. B. He needed equipment to keep him warm.
C. He was forced there by the weather. D. He had to make his food supply there.
57. The phrase “old hat” in 3rd paragraph probably mean “________”.
A. severe and struggling B. familiar and unexciting
C. strange and shocking D. mysterious and adventurous
58. According to the last paragraph, which of the following is NOT a factor that makes Abisko an
ideal place to view the Aurora
A. There is a mountain viewing platform. B. Weather forecasts are available.
C. There are no city lights nearby. D. There is a café shop there.
59. The author’s overall opinion of Abisko is that ________.
A. despite the severe weather, it’s an impressive place
B. people have overestimated its popularity
C. it’s not as popular as it deserves to be
D. the cold weather worsens the Aurora viewing experience there
(B)
(You may read the questions first.)
Four types of learners Type A Learner People in this group adapt observations into complex but logical theories. They think problems through in a logical way. They tend to be perfectionists who won’t rest easy until everything is reasonable. They like to analyze and are keen on basic principles and theories. They pay great attention to logic, so questions they frequently ask are: “ ________________ ”, and “How does this go with that ”. They tend to be objective, approaching problems in a consistently logical manner. This is their “mental set” and they reject anything that conflicts with it. They prefer to maximize certainty and feel uncomfortable with subjective judgements. Type B Learner These people are keen on trying out ideas, theories and techniques to see if they work in practice. They positively search out new ideas and take the first opportunity to experiment with applications. They want to try out the new ideas in the courses in practice. They also tend to be impatient with random discussions, and their attention soon begins to wander if they feel they are going round in circles. They are practical, down to earth and like making practical decisions and solving problems. They see problems and opportunities as a challenge, and their philosophy is: “There is always a better way” and “If it works, it’s good”. Type C Learner People in this group involve themselves fully in new experiences. They are open-minded, and this tends to make them enthusiastic about anything new. Their philosophy is: “I’ll try anything once”, so they tend to act first and consider the consequences afterwards. Their days are filled with activities. As soon as the excitement from one activity has died down they are busy looking for the next, as they are only interested in gaining new experiences but are bored with carrying out their plans and they lack perseverance. They constantly involve themselves with others but, in doing so, they seek to center all activities around themselves. Type D Learner They collect data, both first-hand and from others, and prefer to think about it thoroughly before coming to a conclusion. The thorough collection and analysis of data about experiences and events is what counts so they tend to postpone making definitive judgments for as long as possible. Their philosophy is to be cautious. They like to consider all possible angles before making a move, and will be reluctant to become involved in activities that others put forward without having carefully considered the likely outcome.
60. Which of the following can be put into the blank in the first paragraph
A. Do we need more experiments B. Do you understand me
C. Do you believe the theory D. Does it make sense
61. Suppose John is a person with fresh ideas and willing to check everything out to see what happens. Which type of learner is John
A. Type A Learner B. Type B Learner C. Type C Learner D. Type D Learner
62. Which of the following is NOT true about Type D learner
A. They are keen on making immediate conclusion.
B. Their conclusion comes after data analysis.
C. They outline a possible outcome before taking an activity.
D. They prefer not to give out their viewpoints randomly.
(C)
In recent years, a lot of “business thinking” books have been published, all of which search for new answers on how to run organizations effectively. Obliquity tells us that the most profitable companies are not the most aggressive in chasing profits. Wikinomics demonstrates new models of production based on community and collaboration. Peter Miller’s new book, Smart Swarm, however, challenge leaders to think differently. He studied creatures, like bees and ants and he found their habits, actions and instincts can be applied to business. Miller believes his book is the first time anyone has explained the science behind management theory. “The examples of how ant colonies (蚁群) or beehives (蜂窝) work are appealing models for organizations and systems that can be applied in a business context,” he says.
So how exactly can bees help run organizations “By the way they work independently before they work together,” Miller says. “Picture a huge beehive hanging on a tree, with about 5,000 bees competing for space. They know their population is getting too big, leaving them unsafe. They must all agree to find a new home. In today’s business environment, managers need to be able to make the right decisions under intense pressure. Yet, it is clear that some of the best-paid leaders in some of the biggest organizations can get it dramatically wrong. How is it that they can fail to make efficient business decisions when a large group of bees can make a critical decision about their hive in just a few seconds ”
According to Miller, “swarm theory” can help managers in three simple steps: discover, test and evaluate. The bees first realize they have a problem. They then fly into the neighborhood to find potential new sites. They come back and perform a “dance” to get other bees to follow them. Eventually, the bees with the best dance attract the most votes – and a decision is made. Miller says. “The bee example tells you that you need to seek out diversity in your team. You need to have a way of gathering up quite different ideas so you can make sure you pick the right one.”
Ants, in addition, can help businesses organize workflow and people. In an ant colony, there is no leader. Ants are self-organized, and respond to their environment and each other. One ant on its own could not raid (袭击) a kitchen cupboard, but one ant telling the next one that it’s worth following him to find food ends up creating a food chain. “In an ant colony, you get the right number going in and out searching for food, you get the right number taking care of the babies,” Miller says. “As a manager, this can tell you that your hierarchy (等级制度) is getting in the way of getting the work done.”
63. Miller believes his book differs from other “business thinking” books because ________.
A. it focuses on maximizing profits B. it supports the theory with evidence
C. it corrects faults in similar books D. it justifies the previous theory
64. In the second paragraph, the author indicates that the behavior of bees can show managers
how to ________.
A. make up for wrongly made decisions B. justify exactly what the real problem is
C. draw the correct conclusions quickly D. keep the team safe under great pressure
65. According to the “swarm theory”, managers need to ________.
A. regard decision-making as a cooperative process
B. persuade others to follow your ways of thinking
C. accept different ideas and keep them balanced
D. pick out a right person to make the final decision
66. Which of the following can be inferred from the last paragraph
A. Leadership skills can be developed through practical work.
B. Employees work more efficiently when organized by leaders.
C. Strengthened hierarchy is the guarantee of work efficiency.
D. Employees should be allowed to make their own decisions.
Section C
Directions: Read the following passage. Fill in each blank with a proper sentence given in the box. Each sentence can be used only once. Note that there are two more sentences than you need.
A. Science has never had much influence on these decisions. B. There is no single age at which the teenage brain becomes an adult brain. C. However, neuroscience findings prove to be helpful in making a new boundary. D. Child growth pattens differ and how cultures understand child growth is so different. E. Some people think this knowledge can help us rethink where we draw legal boundaries between kids and adults. F. This discovery may well indicate that neuroscience can help us better understand the interrelationship among different ages.
Neuroscientists (神经科学家) now know that brain maturation (成熟) occurs far later than previously thought. Great changes in brain are still taking place during young adulthood, especially in the regions of decision making, reasoning, comparing risk and reward, etc. Indeed, some brain regions do not reach full maturity until the early 20s. 67 .
Maybe. But it’s not as simple as it seems for two reasons.
1. Different brain regions mature along with different timetables. 68 The part of the brain that handles logical thinking is usually fully developed by 16, but those involved in self-discipline are still developing in young adulthood. This means they may not have the same level of emotional control, which can make them less responsible for their actions.
2. 69 If it did, we wouldn’t have lived in a society that allows teenagers to drive before they can buy beer. Age boundaries are drawn mainly for political reasons, not scientific ones. It’s a pity that neuroscience won’t have much of an impact on politics although it is always correct.
70 It is pointless to try to determine the “right” age of maturation. The Dutch, for example, allow children to drink alcohol at the age of 16 but not to drive until they are 19. Even if I firmly believe legal decisions should refer to neuroscience seriously and it’s a good idea to lower the drinking age and raise the driving age, I recognize that the government might never accept it.
Ⅳ. Summary Writing (71)
Directions: Read the following passage. Summarize the main idea and the main point (s) of the passage in no more than 60 words. Use your own words as far as possible.
With the rise of urbanism (城市化), and the attraction of video games and social media, contact with nature is much rarer than in the past. For many, there is simply no opportunity to get muddy. Today, many parents may secretly wish their children had the chance to pick up a bit of dirt.
Many of the psychological benefits of outdoor play are already well established. Our brains evolved in natural landscapes. This means that natural scenes provide the perfect level of stimulation, which is thought to help recharge the brain when it is tired and easily unfocused. Supporting this theory, one study from 2009 found that children with attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) (注意力缺陷多动症) were better able to concentrate following a 20-minute walk in the park, compared to a 20-minute walk on the streets of a well-kept urban area. Being close to grass and trees seemed to have had a beneficial effect on their minds. The authors recommended using such “doses of nature” as a safe and accessible way of supporting children with ADHD, alongside other tools.
Outdoor play can also offer valuable learning experiences. For example, the act of shaping and stretching materials like mud or sand can help children develop the way their senses and movement interact, known as sensorimotor (感觉运动) development, according to the scientists at the University of Palermo, Italy. This allows the child to gradually understand his or her bodily signals.
Given the known psychological benefits, many day-care centers and schools are already encouraging greater contact with nature: outdoor lessons, regular nature walks and the construction of mud kitchens that encourage children to play in the dirt.
V. Translation
Directions: Translate the following sentences into English, using the words given in the brackets.
72. 考虑到学生的实际需求，学校餐厅周末向学生开放。(open)
73. 教练和运动员为决赛做了详细的训练计划，对冠军志在必得。(determine)
74. 这家饭店对所有客人热情相迎，消费再低也不会被另眼相待。(no matter)
75. 这个街区缺乏健身设施的问题引起了当地政府高度关注，已筹措资金将一幢废弃的厂
房改建成一座老少咸宜的运动中心。(attention)
Ⅵ. Guided Writing
Directions: Write an English composition in 120 - 150 words according to the instructions given below in Chinese.
假设你是明启中学的学生李华，你们学校将组织一次高三学生参观大学的活动，学生可以从“专业及课程介绍 (Major and Course Descriptions)”； “参观图书馆、实验室 (Library & Laboratory Visiting)”； “随班学习体验 (On Spot Studying)” 和 “与教授面对面 (Dialogue with Professors)” 四个活动中选取两个作为主要活动，特此向高三学生征求意见。请你写一封邮件给活动组织者，内容须包括：
1.你最感兴趣的两个活动；
2.你对这两个活动感兴趣的理由。参考答案及评分标准
I. Listening Comprehension
1. B 2. C 3. A 4. D 5. B 6. B 7. C 8. D 9. B 10. A
11. A 12. C 13. D 14. D 15. B 16. A 17. B 18. D 19. A 20. C
评分标准：第1—10 每小题1分；第11—20 每小题1.5分。
II. Grammar and Vocabulary
Section A
21. from/ through 22. it 23. to taste 24. raised
25. because 26. were harvested 27. whether / if 28. where
29. more bearable 30. can/may/ could / might
评分标准：每小题1分。
Section B
31. F 32. G 33. E 34. I 35. J 36. A 37. H 38. C 39. K 40. B
评分标准：每小题1分。
III. Reading Comprehension
Section A
41. B 42. B 43. D 44. A 45. C 46. B 47. D 48. A 49. C 50. B 51. D 52. A 53. D
54. C 55. A
评分标准：每小题1分。
Section B
56. C 57. B 58. D 59. A 60. D 61. B 62. A 63. B 64. C 65. A 66. D
评分标准：每小题2分。
Section C
67. E 68. B 69. A 70. D
评分标准：每小题2分。
IV. Summary Writing
(For reference only)
A possible version:
Urbanization and technology have made it difficult for children to be close to nature. Actually, outdoor play has many psychological benefits, such as recharging the brain and improving concentration, which is particularly beneficial for children with ADHD. Meanwhile, outdoor play can help children develop their sensorimotor skill through learning experience. Realizing these benefits, many organizations are offering outdoor activities.
采分点及分值
1、城市化和技术发展使孩子缺少与自然接触 （1）
2、户外活动（接触自然）对大脑的好处，给大脑充电，对ADHD患者的特别益处 （2）
3、户外活动增进技能发展 ，促进感觉运动发展 （1）
4、学校等机构提供孩子们户外活动 （1）
评分标准：本答题满分10分。
V. Translation
(For reference only)
72. Considering the actual needs of the students (1.5), the school canteen is open to students on weekends (1.5).
73. The coach and players made a detailed training plan for the final (1.5) and they are determined to win the championship (1.5).
74. This restaurant warmly welcomes all the guests (1), and no matter how little people spend there (1.5), they won’t be treated differently(1.5).
75. The lack of fitness facilities in this community (1) has aroused high attention of the local government (1), and funds have been raised to transform an abandoned factory building into a sports center (2) suitable for all ages (1).
评分标准：
1、第72—73 每题3分；第74题4分；第75题5分。
2、学生的表达虽与参考答案不一致，但能表达中文语义且无语法错误可得分。
3、学生未使用提示词扣1分。
VI. Guided Writing
评分标准：本答题满分25分。
答案略听力录音文字
Listening Comprehension
Section A
Directions: In Section A, you will hear ten short conversations between two speakers. At the end of each conversation, a question will be asked about what was said. The conversations and the questions will be spoken only once. After you hear a conversation and the question about it, read the four possible answers on your paper, and decide which one is the best answer to the question you have heard.
1. M: Nice weather, isn’t it How about taking a short walk in the park
W: Why not I’ve been home the whole morning. And it’s long since we last walked there.
Q: What does the woman mean
2. W: You’re sweating a lot. Maybe you need to take a shower.
M: Nothing is more urgent than a glass of iced tea at the moment.
Q: What does the man mean
3. M: Shall we make our own dinner or try the new Italian restaurant, dear
W: I’m not in the mood to do anything in the kitchen tonight.
Q: What does the woman imply
4. W: Skating is really hard for me. I think I’ll quit.
M: I know it’s not easy. But if you keep going, you’ll finally make it.
Q: What does the man mean
5. M: We have a tough opponent. If we’re going to win the game, we need to make a better plan.
W: I almost feel like giving up, but you are right.
Q: What are the speakers probably do next
6. M: I’m not suitable for the role. I just can’t remember all the lines.
W: We have plenty of time before the show. You’re not supposed to remember every word. Try your best.
Q: What do we know about the man
7. M: Look at the prices on the menu! Aren’t they ridiculously too high
W: You’ll definitely have a different view after you try the delicious food.
Q: What does the woman mean
8. M: Jane, suppose you lost all your money while taking a vacation overseas, what would you do
W: Well, I guess I’d sell my watch or computer or do some jobs until I could afford a return ticket.
Q: What are the speakers talking about
9. M: I’m afraid I won’t be able to finish the presentation within the given time.
W: I don’t think you need to mention too many details in the middle part of your presentation.
Q: What does the woman suggest the man do
10. W: It’s going to rain pretty soon. You’d better put your bike in the garage.
M: Why bother It has been through much worse situations.
Q: What does the man imply
Section B
Directions: In Section B, you will hear two short passages and one longer conversation, and you will be asked several questions on each of the passages and the conversation. The passages and the conversation will be read twice, but the questions will be spoken only once. When you hear a question, read the four possible answers on your paper and decide which one would be the best answer to the question you have heard.
Questions 11 through 13 are based on the following speech.
Some elementary students at West Side School in California created a telephone hotline. People can call to get cheerful advice from kids during difficult times. The students get help from their art teacher. The teacher worked with students from kindergarten to sixth grade. He asked the same question to all the students. The question is: “What could you say to help or encourage someone else ” The teacher collected all the answers and sorted out them into different parts of the telephone hotline.
Pressing 1 brings up ideas for people who are “feeling mad, frustrated or nervous”. Helpful suggestions include “hit your pillow” or “go get a cookie”. Pressing 2 results in “Life advice”. By pressing 3, you can hear a group of kids saying together: “You’re super! You can do it! Keep trying, don’t give up!” Pressing 4 starts the sounds of children’s laughing, which certainly can bring a smile to anyone’s face.
The hotline was soon getting hundreds of calls a day. Words of the hotline spread quickly on social media. The hotline has become incredibly popular with stressed adult patients in hospitals, older people in homes, and others who just want to hear the happy voices of children.
(Listen again, please.)
Question 11. Who came up with the idea of the project
Question 12. Which number should callers press if they need encouragement
Question 13. What is the passage mainly about
Questions 14 through 16 are based on the following speech.
Birds that migrate long distances tend to be more likely than others to break up with their partners. To identify reasons that lead to bird break ups, bird scientists studied birds’ behaviors in the long distance migration. They found that species that migrate particularly long distances to obtain food typically have higher rates of breaking up.
Great blue herons, for example, migrate more than 3000 kilometres and have a divorce rate of 100 per cent. This may be because travelling further makes it harder for a pair to return home at the same time. If one gets back first, it’s risky waiting for the partner because it’s hard to tell whether the partner will show up — it may have died or been blown off course. Finding a new partner may seem a safer bet even if it requires energy to please a new mate。
This makes sense for birds with long migrations to have higher divorce rates, but there are exceptions.
Black-tailed godwits, for example, migrate more than 1000 kilometres from Iceland to the UK or southwest Europe each year but have relatively low divorce rates. This seems to be due to a super ability to keep pace with their partners. Although members of a pair will follow separate migration paths and typically end up more than 900 kilometres away from each other, they are somehow able to return to Iceland at almost the same time, which reduces the risk of break-ups.
(Listen again, please.)
Question 14. What did bird scientists study to identify reasons for bird break-ups
Question 15. Why do some birds tend to have higher rates of breaking up after long migration
Question 16. Why do black-tailed godwits have relatively low divorce rates
Questions 17 through 20 are based on the following conversation.
M: Have you seen Joe Schultz’s new film The Man in the Forest
W: Not yet. But I have read the novel under the same title. Is the film based on the novel
M: That’s true. Some of the critics say the film isn’t suitable for youngsters to see.
W: Really Is it because of the bloody scenes or unacceptable language
M: That didn’t seem to worry the film critics. They couldn’t tolerate the music, which makes viewers’ hair stand on end.
W: That sounds interesting to me. I can’t help wondering how the music could be so scaring.
M: By the way, since you have already read the book, what do you think of it
W: Definitely, it’s great. I just couldn’t stop it. I had no idea what the final ending would be until I finished the last page. I had to follow the sequence of events and actions very carefully. That’s what it fascinates me most.
M: Same here. And I also love the way the author uses dialect all through the book. It takes a little time getting used to, but it decidedly makes the book stand out.
W: I was thinking of seeing the film this Friday evening. Do you recommend it
M: Personally, I would prefer to read the book again. However, the price of the film ticket is a real bargain. It’s good value for money, worth every penny, I should say.
(Listen again, please.)
Question 17. Why do some critics think the film is unsuitable for children
Question 18. What makes the woman interested in the book
Question 19. What does the man say about the dialect used in the book
Question 20. According to the conversation, which of the following statements is true
(听力测试结束，请考生继续答题。)

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