衢州市衢江区2023年初中生学业水平第二次调研测试(含答案和听力音频)

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衢州市衢江区2023年初中生学业水平第二次调研测试(含答案和听力音频)

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2023年初中生学业水平第二次调研测试答案
一、听力。
1-5 BBCAA 6-10 BCBAC 11-15 CBCAA
二、完形填空。
16-20 ABDCA 21-25 CABCB 26-30 BACDD
三、阅读理解。
31-33 BDC 34-37 AACA 38-41 ADDB 42-45 BBCD
四、任务型阅读。
46. leaves 47. share 48. closes 49. three / many/ some
50. Possible answers: Plants are very important.
五、词汇运用。
51. fan 52. himself 53. thirty 54. traditional 55. July
56. online 57. certainly/sure/surely 58. sent 59. mixed 60. messages
六、语法填空。
61. runs 62. years 63. a 64. the wettest 65. are caused
66. easily 67. for 68. to make 69. If / When 70. them
七、书面表达。
One possible version:
Our English Club will have various activities next term. Would you like to know some of them
First,we’ll interview our favourite teacher and write a story. In this way, we can know better about our teacher and have a chance to communicate with them in person. Also, we plan to watch an English movie and write a film review. I like English films because I can not only enjoy the story, but also improve my skills. What’s more, we intend to read an English book and write a book review. That may be the best part.
Sounds great, right I can’t wait to take part in the activities. (107词)2023 年初中生学业水平第二次调研测试答案
一、听力。
1-5 BBCAA 6-10 BCBAC 11-15 CBCAA
二、完形填空。
16-20 ABDCA 21-25 CABCB 26-30 BACDD
三、阅读理解。
31-33 BDC 34-37 AACA 38-41 ADDB 42-45 BBCD
四、任务型阅读。
46. leaves 47. share 48. closes 49. three / many/ some
50. Possible answers: Plants are very important.
五、词汇运用。
51. fan 52. himself 53. thirty 54. traditional 55. July
56. online 57. certainly/sure/surely 58. sent 59. mixed 60. messages
六、语法填空。
61. runs 62. years 63. a 64. the wettest 65. are caused
66. easily 67. for 68. to make 69. If / When 70. them
七、书面表达。
One possible version:
Our English Club will have various activities next term. Would you like to know some of
them
First,we’ll interview our favourite teacher and write a story. In this way, we can know better
about our teacher and have a chance to communicate with them in person. Also, we plan to watch
an English movie and write a film review. I like English films because I can not only enjoy the
story, but also improve my skills. What’s more, we intend to read an English book and write a
book review. That may be the best part.
Sounds great, right I can’t wait to take part in the activities. (107词)2023年初中生学业水平第二次调研测试
(
学 校
班 级
姓 名
)英语答题卷
考生须知
选择题用 2B 铅笔填涂,修改答案需用橡皮擦除干净;非选择题用 0.5 毫米的黑色签字笔书写。
务必按照题号在各道题目的指定答题区域内作答,写在 答题区域之外的答案无效。
请在各题目的答题区域内作答,超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效
缺 考 标 记
选择题部分(第 1-45 小题,共 70 分)
贴条形码处
(
六、语法填空
(共 10 小题,每小题 1 分,共 10 分)
61
62
63
64
65
66
67
68
69
70
)七、书面表达(共 1 小题,共 20 分)
71.
1 [A] [B] [C] [D] 6 [A] [B] [C] [D] 11 [A] [B] [C] [D] 16 [A] [B] [C] [D]
2 [A] [B] [C] [D] 7 [A] [B] [C] [D] 12 [A] [B] [C] [D] 17 [A] [B] [C] [D]
3 [A] [B] [C] [D] 8 [A] [B] [C] [D] 13 [A] [B] [C] [D] 18 [A] [B] [C] [D]
4 [A] [B] [C] [D] 9 [A] [B] [C] [D] 14 [A] [B] [C] [D] 19 [A] [B] [C] [D]
5 [A] [B] [C] [D] 10 [A] [B] [C] [D] 15 [A] [B] [C] [D] 20 [A] [B] [C] [D]
21 [A] [B] [C] [D] 26 [A] [B] [C] [D] 31 [A] [B] [C] [D] 36 [A] [B] [C] [D]
22 [A] [B] [C] [D] 27 [A] [B] [C] [D] 32 [A] [B] [C] [D] 37 [A] [B] [C] [D]
23 [A] [B] [C] [D] 28 [A] [B] [C] [D] 33 [A] [B] [C] [D] 38 [A] [B] [C] [D]
24 [A] [B] [C] [D] 29 [A] [B] [C] [D] 34 [A] [B] [C] [D] 39 [A] [B] [C] [D]
25 [A] [B] [C] [D] 30 [A] [B] [C] [D] 35 [A] [B] [C] [D] 40 [A] [B] [C] [D]
41 [A] [B] [C] [D]
42 [A] [B] [C] [D]
43 [A] [B] [C] [D]
44 [A] [B] [C] [D]
45 [A] [B] [C] [D]
非选择题部分(第 46-71 小题,共 50 分)
(
四、任务型阅读
(共 5 小题,每小题 2 分,共 10 分)
46
47
48
49
50
五、词汇运用
(共 10 小题,每小题 1 分,共 10 分)
51
52
53
54
55
56
57
58
59
60
)
请在各题目的答题区域内作答,超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效
请在各题目的答题区域内作答,超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效2023年初中生学业水平第二次调研测试
英语答题卷
请在各题目的答题区域内作答,超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效
考生须知
1. 选择题用 2B铅笔填涂,修改答案需用橡皮擦除干净;非 学 校
六、语法填空(共 10 小题,每小题 1 分,共 10 分)
选择题用 0.5毫米的黑色签字笔书写。 班 级
2. 务必按照题号在各道题目的指定答题区域内作答,写在 61 62 63 64 65
姓 名
答题区域之外的答案无效。
66 67 68 69 70
贴条形码处
七、书面表达(共 1 小题,共 20 分)
缺 考 标 记 71.
选择题部分(第 1-45小题,共 70分)
1 [A] [B] [C] [D] 6 [A] [B] [C] [D] 11 [A] [B] [C] [D] 16 [A] [B] [C] [D]
2 [A] [B] [C] [D] 7 [A] [B] [C] [D] 12 [A] [B] [C] [D] 17 [A] [B] [C] [D]
3 [A] [B] [C] [D] 8 [A] [B] [C] [D] 13 [A] [B] [C] [D] 18 [A] [B] [C] [D]
4 [A] [B] [C] [D] 9 [A] [B] [C] [D] 14 [A] [B] [C] [D] 19 [A] [B] [C] [D]
5 [A] [B] [C] [D] 10 [A] [B] [C] [D] 15 [A] [B] [C] [D] 20 [A] [B] [C] [D]
21 [A] [B] [C] [D] 26 [A] [B] [C] [D] 31 [A] [B] [C] [D] 36 [A] [B] [C] [D]
22 [A] [B] [C] [D] 27 [A] [B] [C] [D] 32 [A] [B] [C] [D] 37 [A] [B] [C] [D]
23 [A] [B] [C] [D] 28 [A] [B] [C] [D] 33 [A] [B] [C] [D] 38 [A] [B] [C] [D]
24 [A] [B] [C] [D] 29 [A] [B] [C] [D] 34 [A] [B] [C] [D] 39 [A] [B] [C] [D]
25 [A] [B] [C] [D] 30 [A] [B] [C] [D] 35 [A] [B] [C] [D] 40 [A] [B] [C] [D]
41 [A] [B] [C] [D]
42 [A] [B] [C] [D]
43 [A] [B] [C] [D]
44 [A] [B] [C] [D]
45 [A] [B] [C] [D]
非选择题部分(第 46-71小题,共 50分)
四、任务型阅读(共 5 小题,每小题 2 分,共 10 分)
46 47 48 49
50
五、词汇运用(共 10 小题,每小题 1 分,共 10 分)
51 52 53 54 55
56 57 58 59 60
请在各题目的答题区域内作答,超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效
请在各题目的答题区域内作答,超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效2023年初中生学业水平第二次调研测试
英 语 试 题 卷
考生须知:
1. 全卷共10页,七大题,71小题,满分为120分。考试时间为100分钟。
2. 全卷分为卷I(选择题)和卷II(非选择题)两部分,全部在“答题纸”上作答。卷I的答案必须用2B铅笔填涂;卷II的答案必须用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔写在“答题纸”相应位置上,写在试卷上无效。
3. 请用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔在“答题纸”上先填写姓名和准考证号。
卷Ⅰ
说明:本卷共三大题,45小题,共70分。请用2B铅笔在“答题纸”上将你认为正确的选项所对应的小方框涂黑、涂满。
一、听力(共15小题,第一节每小题1分,第二、三节每小题2分,共25分)
第一节:听小对话,从A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,回答问题。对话仅读一遍。
1.What is Lisa going to do tonight
A. Go to a party. B. Do her homework. C. Do some housework.
2. How often did Sally have swimming classes last term
A. Once a week. B. Twice a week. C. Three times a week.
3. When will the woman get to the theater
A. At 6:30. B. At 7:00. C. At 7:30.
4. What does the woman mean
A. She is tired. B. She likes walking. C. She is hungry.
5.Where does the conversation probably take place
A. At a shop. B. At a restaurant. C. At a library.
第二节:听长对话,从A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,回答问题。对话读两遍。
听下面一段对话,回答第6~7小题。
6.What will the boy buy for Thomas
A. A story book. B. A computer game. C. A toy car.
7. How many people will the boy buy presents for
A. Two. B. Three. C. Four.
听下面一段对话,回答第8~10小题。
8. How long will the speakers stay in the hotel
A. Two nights. B. Three nights. C. Five nights.
9. What does the man think of guesthouses
A. Small. B. Cheap. C. Comfortable.
10. How would the man like to go to the city center from the airport
A. By taxi. B. By train. C. By bus.
第三节:听独白,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,回答问题。独白读两遍。
11. What club is Mike going to join
A. The Music Club. B. The Helping Hand Club. C.The Bird Watching Club.
12. What are Mike’s favourite subjects
A. Maths and Chinese. B. Maths and English. C. Chinese and English.
13. What does Mike like doing with his friends
A. Playing basketball. B. Playing volleyball. C. Playing football.
14. What do Mike’s friends think of him
A. Helpful. B. Friendly. C. Humorous.
15. When can Mike take part in club activities
A. On Saturday morning. B. On Saturday afternoon. C. On Sunday morning.
二、完形填空 (共15小题,每小题1分,共15 分)
阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项,使文章完整、通顺。
Last week, I finally managed to ask my parents to buy me a new football shirt for the school match. I was very 16 and wore it to the training before the match, but I wished I hadn’t done that! My new 17 was torn (破损的) after the training and only a tailor (裁缝) could help!
As I walked home 18 , I saw a shop sign: All Kinds of Repairs and Services! I went inside at once. I looked around the shop and saw broken toys, broken chairs, 19 I wondered if I was in the wrong place. Just at that moment, a man with white hair 20 me and said cheerfully, “ Welcome! This is a 21 shop and I can repair everything!”
“But...what I 22 is a tailor to deal with my football shirt.”
“You’ve come to the 23 place. I’ve been waiting a long, long time to repair a football shirt.”
“Really ” I held the shirt in my hands.
To my 24 , he took the shirt from me, put on glasses and sat down on the sofa with my shirt in his hands. “I 25 you are a striker (前锋),” he smiled warmly. How could he know The man looked at me kindly and said calmly, “See that picture on the wall That was 26 twenty years ago.”
I couldn’t believe my eyes! He was Orhan, the famous 27 player who was on the city team years ago! I told him I was playing for the school team and I had loved him for years. I told him everything, my dream, my practice and even my dad’s words. “Dad thinks I should be an engineer or a doctor.” I said 28 and lowered my head.
“Follow your 29 , choose a job you love and carry on.” The man smiled at me with his blue eyes. He 30 me on the shoulder and put the shirt he had repaired in my bag.
Today I have become a footballer and I still keep that shirt in my closet.
16. A. excited B. bored C. relaxed D. tired
17. A. cap B. shirt C. coat D. sweater
18. A. happily B. calmly C. proudly D. worriedly
19. A. but B. although C. so D. because
20. A. came to B. looked into C. took care of D. ran away from
21. A. toy B. chair C. repair D. clothes
22. A. need B. take C. see D. buy
23. A. old B. right C. strange D. famous
24. A. regret B. shame C. surprise D. advantage
25. A. hear B. guess C.decide D. remember
26. A. him B. me C. her D. you
27. A. football B. basketball C. baseball D. volleyball
28. A. confidently B. bravely C. disappointedly D. tiredly
29. A. time B. rule C. smile D. dream
30. A. bit B. shook C. pushed D. touched
三、阅读理解 (共15小题,每小题2分,共30分)
阅读下面材料,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
The idea of family is important all over the world. Many countries, such as Germany, India, Japan and the Netherlands, have special events to celebrate it. Here’s a few...
According to the text, why do children feed animals on Thai Pongal
To share their traditions.
To learn to be responsible.
To connect all living things.
To show their love for family.
In which country can people get a poem with their names from their family
Japan. B. India.
C. Germany. D. The Netherlands.
33. What are the three events in common
A. About the importance of reading poems.
B. About the gifts for the first day at school.
C. About the traditions to celebrate in family.
D. About the ways to feed birds in the family.
B
From the balcony (阳台) of our tenth-floor house, I search the sky hoping to see a shooting star.
“Stars are afraid of city lights, but a little song is always good for something.” grandma puts her arms around me and sings softly. The ordinary stars are for little wishes-everyday wishes-like getting more cream on your cupcake. But shooting star was different.
“Shooting stars are lucky,” grandma says. So I keep a special wish ready-ready for a shooting star to catch my wish in its tail and dance across the sky.
I rest deeper in her arms hoping for a few more minutes of her warmth as much as I hope to see a shooting star.
“Tomorrow can’t come if you don’t dream tonight.” She kisses my hair. I don’t remember my dreams when I wake up, but sure enough it’s a new day. Grandma is singing softly in the kitchen. A little song is always good for something. I smell buttermilk biscuits! Buttermilk biscuits are Saturday biscuits, but today is Wednesday. She gives me two. Then it’s time for school.
Before the third floor, the lift suddenly stops and goes dark. My heart beats so hard that I feel the beating in my ears. Grandma rings the bell.
“Power is down,” calls Mr. Simon from above us.
Grandma takes my hands, and we sing together in the dark lift.
Before long, Mr. Simon helps us out. Grandma takes my hand, and we walk down the stairs to the street as if nothing happened.
The power is still off when I come home. After dinner and homework, we take biscuits and jam to the balcony and watch day turn to evening. Lights come on far away, but it’s dark here.
Flash! A light shoots across the sky-so sudden seems real. Like magic, I feel my wish holding tight to the tail of that shooting star, dancing across the sky to our songs.
34. What part of the story is Paragraph 1
A. The background. B. The development.
C. The climax (most exciting part). D. The ending.
35. What does the underlined sentence mean in Paragraph 5
A. It’s the very time to go to bed.
B. Dreams are important at night.
C. There’ll be shooting stars tomorrow.
D. Remember the dream till tomorrow.
36. What is grandma like according to the text
A. Strict and honest. B. Wise and proud.
C. Kind and smart. D. Careful and funny.
37. What can we learn from the text
A. We should enjoy everything we meet.
B. We can do nothing if we don’t have power.
C. We can call shooting stars by singing songs.
D. We need to have hope even if it’s impossible.
C
Imagine you feel strongly about something and you want to talk about it. You might think that no one will want to hear what you have to say. Well, here’s an example of a young person who has made a lot of people pay attention.
Greta Thunberg is a teenager from Sweden. She was eight years old when she first heard about global warming at school. She was very worried about what she heard, but what shocked her most was that adults didn’t seem to think it was serious. They weren’t doing anything about it. From then on, she couldn’t stop thinking about the danger of climate change. She persuaded (说服) her parents to change their lifestyle: the family started to eat more vegetables instead of meat and started growing their own vegetables. They travelled by train instead of plane and changed to solar energy in their home.
The summer of 2018 was very hot in Europe with more bad weather than usual. Greta knew . She handed out posters in the streets and made speeches in the community. She wanted everyone to understand two things: climate change was real and it was serious.
Greta, now known internationally, began travelling around Europe to speak at important meetings. Her idea is always very clear: unless you do something now, you will destroy our future. At a United Nations climate change meeting in Poland, she said, “The year 2078, I will celebrate my 75th birthday. If I have children, maybe they will spend that day with me. Maybe they will ask why you didn’t do anything while there still was time to act.”
Greta’s actions have made adults and young people take action around the world. She has shown that young people can make a difference if they’re brave enough to talk about the things they believe in.
What does the underlined word “it” in Paragraph 2 refer to
Global warming. B. Their lifestyle. C. Her school. D. Bad weather
Which sentence can be put in the in Paragraph 3
she had to refuse to work B. it was time to forget
C. she did something wrong D. it was time for actions
40. What can we learn about Greta Thunberg from the text
She never travelled by train before she was eight.
She first heard about global warming in a meeting.
She has done actions to change the weather in Sweden.
She made speeches about global warming around Europe.
41. What’s the best title of the text
A. Ways to speak in public B. Kids can make a difference
C. Global warming is serious D. Think carefully and speak bravely
D
Few countries in the world have calligraphy as a form of art. In China, calligraphy has a long history, and is popular among its people, and has kept a close relationship with Chinese cultural development.
It seems as if anyone that can write Chinese characters on Xuanzhi with a writing brush can became a calligrapher. But that is not true. Calligraphy is a form of art that needs a great deal of theory (理论) and requires many skills; so there are few calligraphers that have reached the highest place of calligraphy. Among the most famous calligraphers in ancient China were Wang Xizhi, Ouyang Xun, Yan Zhenqing, and Liu Gongquan, who are known for pioneering their own styles.
Calligraphy is constructive art. The calligrapher creates his work with his handling of the ink and the writing brush. The black lines and white space on the paper create a sense of beauty.
Calligraphy is an expressive art. In a work of calligraphy, we can see the character, education level and experience of the calligrapher.
Calligraphy is a practical art form. It can be used to write on paper or wood or stone. Its feature show us that calligraphy is a full art, expressing the feeling of the writers.
Calligraphy shows the basic characteristics of all Chinese arts. In China, calligraphy and painting are leaders of the other art forms. When calligraphy and painting are mentioned together, calligraphy always comes before painting. The theories about handling brush and they are similar in calligraphy writing and Chinese picture drawing. The development of Chinese folk arts, too, has been influenced by calligraphy to some degree. So we can see that calligraphy is the center of Chinese fine arts.
What are needed to be a good calligrapher
many skills b. Xuanzhi c. a lot of theories d. writing brushes
a, b B. a, c C. b, d D. a, d
What can we infer (推断) from Paragraph 4
Education level is important to create the works of calligraphy.
Different calligraphers may write the calligraphy in different ways.
We can know personal information of calligraphers from their works.
Before enjoying the calligraphy, we need to know about calligraphers.
What is Paragraph 6 mainly about
The leading forms of art in China.
The basic development of calligraphy.
The importance of calligraphy in China.
The same part of calligraphy and painting.
What’s the structure of the text
卷 Ⅱ
说明:本卷共四大题,26小题,共50分。请用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔将答案写在“答题纸”的相应位置上。
四、任务型阅读(共5小题,每小题2分,共10分)
阅读科普宣传单,根据文中信息完成以下任务。
任务A: 补全46 49题所在的读书笔记。每空限填一词。
任务B: 完成50题。不超过15个词。
From grasses to trees, plants come in all colors, shapes and sizes. There are about 350,000 types of plants in the world. Let’s enter the world of plants and learn more about them.
How do plants make food
Like all living things, plants need food to live. They make food for themselves by photosynthesis. This happens in leaves. To make food, plants need sunlight, CO2 and H2O. They use the energy from the sun to turn all of those things into O2 and sugars.
What don’t we really know about plants
● Helping each other
Plants also help each other and even communicate. In deserts, the roots of Euphrates poplar (胡杨) are connected. If a tree finds water, it will share it with others through the roots.
● Ways of protecting
Each kind of plant has its own ways to protect itself. Some flowers give off a bad smell. Some even have teeth.
Why are plants important to us
● Air
Plants can provide us with clean air. They take in CO2 and make O2 that humans and animals need. They make 98% of O2 we breathe.
● Water
Plants help clean water and reduce floods. A green tree can hold more than 15,000 liters of water per year, reducing the risk of flooding.
● Food
About 150 plant species (物种) provide the world’s food. Just 12 plant species provide 75% of the world’s food.
What can we learn from the numbers in the last part
词汇运用(共10小题,每小题1分,共10分)
根据短文内容和所给中文提示,写出空白处各单词的正确形式。每空限填一词。
A man in black clothes jumps high into the air. Before he lands, he strikes a pose. Sometimes, he carries a red 51 (扇子). With long white sleeves, he spread his arms like wings. His dance is eye-catching, often being watched by crowds.
He is Chinese dancer Ma Jiaolong. Since 2020, he’s made short videos of 52 (他自己) dancing in London. He has performed at city’s parks and landmarks like Tower Bridge. He is over 53 (三十) years old and has nearly five million followers on Douyin, where he shares his videos.
Classical Chinese dance puts the 54 (传统) Chinese opera into martial arts movements. He started to learn it at 12. “ I was interested in the dancers who play ancient heroes through the movements of classical Chinese dance,” said Ma.
Later, Ma studied at Beijing Dance Academy. Since 55 (七月) 2019, he has been teaching classical Chinese dance at Goldsmiths, University of London. Four years ago, Ma had to give 56 (在线) classes because of the awful disease. In his small home, 57 (当然), he could only make small moves. One day, he took his wife’s advice and danced at Greenwich Park, a popular tourist spot. She recorded Mar’s dance. He then 58 (发送) the video to friends. “Surprisingly, they loved it, which encouraged me to share it on the Internet,” said Ma.
Later, Ma made more short videos. He 59 (混合) his dance moves with dazzling action. People were often curious about his performances. As his videos went popular, he received many text 60 (信息) from people around the world.
“Now, making and sharing short videos has become a part of my life and most importantly, a great way to introduce classical Chinese dance to more people, especially overseas viewers,” said Ma.
六、语法填空(共10小题,每小题1分,共10分)
阅读下面短文,按照句子结构的语法情况和上下文连贯的要求,在空格处填入一个适当的词或者用括号中词语的正确形式填空。每空不超过两词。
The Amazon rainforest is in South America. It covers 5.5 million square kilometres. That’s about half the size of China. The Amazon River 61 (run) through the rainforest. According to a new study, it may become grassland in a few 62 (year). The Amazon is the world’s biggest rainforest. However, climate change and human activities make it “sick”. Usually, the rainforest can fix itself. But now, it feels too tired to get better. The trees may die and the rainforest could turn into 63 hot and dry area.
Why is the Amazon “sick”
The Amazon is one of 64 (wet) places. Every year, droughts hit the rainforest and harm it a lot. They 65 (cause) by climate change. The trees don’t have enough water to grow. What’s worse, as they become dry, they can catch fire 66 (easy).
On top of this, people cut down a lot of trees 67 wood to make money. They clear trees to find something useful. They burn the forest 68 (make) farmland. All these have made about 17% of the rainforest disappear.
What will happen if we lose it
The Amazon is like the lungs of our planet. The plants there take carbon dioxide (CO2) out of the air and make oxygen (O2). They make more than 20% of the planet’s oxygen. 69 the Amazon “dies”, there will be more CO2 and our earth will become even hotter.
The Amazon is also the home to over 3 million animals and plants. Many of 70 (they) can’t live anywhere else. They would be very likely to disappear.
七、书面表达(共1小题,共20分)
71. 假设你是李华,你的外教Laura在学校成立了英语写作俱乐部。她为社团成员安排了下学期的活动。请根据下表,描述活动安排,补充一项活动并谈谈你对这些活动的看法。
注意:
1. 文中不得出现真实的人名、校名等信息;
2. 词数:90 110;
3. 可适当发挥,使内容充实、行文连贯。
22023 年初中生学业水平第二次调研测试
英 语 试 题 卷
考生须知:
1. 全卷共 10 页,七大题,71 小题,满分为 120 分。考试时间为 100 分钟。
2. 全卷分为卷 I(选择题)和卷 II(非选择题)两部分,全部在“答题纸”上作答。卷 I 的答案
必须用 2B铅笔填涂;卷 II 的答案必须用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔写在“答题纸”相应位置上,
写在试卷上无效。
3. 请用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔在“答题纸”上先填写姓名和准考证号。
卷Ⅰ
说明:本卷共三大题,45 小题,共 70 分。请用 2B铅笔在“答题纸”上将你认为正确的选项
所对应的小方框涂黑、涂满。
一、听力(共 15小题,第一节每小题 1分,第二、三节每小题 2分,共 25分)
第一节:听小对话,从 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,回答问题。对话仅读一遍。
1.What is Lisa going to do tonight
A. Go to a party. B. Do her homework. C. Do some housework.
2. How often did Sally have swimming classes last term
A. Once a week. B. Twice a week. C. Three times a week.
3. When will the woman get to the theater
A. At 6:30. B. At 7:00. C. At 7:30.
4. What does the woman mean
A. She is tired. B. She likes walking. C. She is hungry.
5.Where does the conversation probably take place
A. At a shop. B. At a restaurant. C. At a library.
第二节:听长对话,从 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,回答问题。对话读两遍。
听下面一段对话,回答第 6~7小题。
6.What will the boy buy for Thomas
A. A story book. B. A computer game. C. A toy car.
7. How many people will the boy buy presents for
A. Two. B. Three. C. Four.
听下面一段对话,回答第 8~10小题。
1
8. How long will the speakers stay in the hotel
A. Two nights. B. Three nights. C. Five nights.
9. What does the man think of guesthouses
A. Small. B. Cheap. C. Comfortable.
10. How would the man like to go to the city center from the airport
A. By taxi. B. By train. C. By bus.
第三节:听独白,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,回答问题。独白读两遍。
11. What club is Mike going to join
A. The Music Club. B. The Helping Hand Club. C.The Bird Watching Club.
12. What are Mike’s favourite subjects
A. Maths and Chinese. B. Maths and English. C. Chinese and English.
13. What does Mike like doing with his friends
A. Playing basketball. B. Playing volleyball. C. Playing football.
14. What do Mike’s friends think of him
A. Helpful. B. Friendly. C. Humorous.
15. When can Mike take part in club activities
A. On Saturday morning. B. On Saturday afternoon. C. On Sunday morning.
二、完形填空 (共 15小题,每小题 1分,共 15 分)
阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后从每题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项,使
文章完整、通顺。
Last week, I finally managed to ask my parents to buy me a new football shirt for the school match.
I was very 16 and wore it to the training before the match, but I wished I hadn’t done that! My
new 17 was torn (破损的) after the training and only a tailor (裁缝) could help!
As I walked home 18 , I saw a shop sign: All Kinds of Repairs and Services! I went inside
at once. I looked around the shop and saw broken toys, broken chairs, 19 I wondered if I was in
the wrong place. Just at that moment, a man with white hair 20 me and said cheerfully,
“ Welcome! This is a 21 shop and I can repair everything!”
“But...what I 22 is a tailor to deal with my football shirt.”
“You’ve come to the 23 place. I’ve been waiting a long, long time to repair a football
shirt.”
“Really ” I held the shirt in my hands.
To my 24 , he took the shirt from me, put on glasses and sat down on the sofa with my shirt
in his hands. “I 25 you are a striker (前锋),” he smiled warmly. How could he know The man
looked at me kindly and said calmly, “See that picture on the wall That was 26 twenty years
ago.”
I couldn’t believe my eyes! He was Orhan, the famous 27 player who was on the city team
years ago! I told him I was playing for the school team and I had loved him for years. I told him
2
everything, my dream, my practice and even my dad’s words. “Dad thinks I should be an engineer or a
doctor.” I said 28 and lowered my head.
“Follow your 29 , choose a job you love and carry on.” The man smiled at me with his blue
eyes. He 30 me on the shoulder and put the shirt he had repaired in my bag.
Today I have become a footballer and I still keep that shirt in my closet.
16. A. excited B. bored C. relaxed D. tired
17. A. cap B. shirt C. coat D. sweater
18. A. happily B. calmly C. proudly D. worriedly
19. A. but B. although C. so D. because
20. A. came to B. looked into C. took care of D. ran away from
21. A. toy B. chair C. repair D. clothes
22. A. need B. take C. see D. buy
23. A. old B. right C. strange D. famous
24. A. regret B. shame C. surprise D. advantage
25. A. hear B. guess C.decide D. remember
26. A. him B. me C. her D. you
27. A. football B. basketball C. baseball D. volleyball
28. A. confidently B. bravely C. disappointedly D. tiredly
29. A. time B. rule C. smile D. dream
30. A. bit B. shook C. pushed D. touched
三、阅读理解 (共 15小题,每小题 2分,共 30分)
阅读下面材料,从每题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
The idea of family is important all over the world. Many countries, such as Germany, India,
Japan and the Netherlands, have special events to celebrate it. Here’s a few...
FIRST DAY AT SCHOOL - GERMANY
In Germany, the first day at school is a very important time for all children. There is a
special event called an Einschulung. Everyone in the family meets to give the child presents,
like pens and books, for their new school life. For the first day of school, parents give their
children a large paper cone called Schultüte. Inside there are things for school and sweets.
3
LOOKING AFTER ANIMALS - INDIA
Pets are popular in many cultures around the world. Looking after an animal helps a
child learn how to be responsible (有责任心的). Every year in India there is a Hindu festival
called Thai Pongal. During the festival families feed cows and birds to give thanks for these
animals. Children also learn that all living things are connected and must share the world
together.
WRITING POEMS - THE NETHERLANDS
In the Netherlands, people celebrate the winter holiday on the 5th December. This
holiday is called Sinterklaas. People give each other presents, but they also have a special
tradition. Each member of the family writes their name on a piece of paper and puts it in a
hat. Everyone then takes a name from the hat and writes a poem about this person. Everyone
sits in a circle and reads out their poems.
31. According to the text, why do children feed animals on Thai Pongal
A. To share their traditions.
B. To learn to be responsible.
C. To connect all living things.
D. To show their love for family.
32. In which country can people get a poem with their names from their family
A. Japan. B. India.
C. Germany. D. The Netherlands.
33. What are the three events in common
A. About the importance of reading poems.
B. About the gifts for the first day at school.
C. About the traditions to celebrate in family.
D. About the ways to feed birds in the family.
B
From the balcony (阳台) of our tenth-floor house, I search the sky
hoping to see a shooting star.
“Stars are afraid of city lights, but a little song is always good for
something.” grandma puts her arms around me and sings softly. The
ordinary stars are for little wishes- everyday wishes- like getting more
cream on your cupcake. But shooting star was different.
“Shooting stars are lucky,” grandma says. So I keep a special wish ready-ready for a shooting star
to catch my wish in its tail and dance across the sky.
I rest deeper in her arms hoping for a few more minutes of her warmth as much as I hope to see a
shooting star.
“Tomorrow can’t come if you don’t dream tonight.” She kisses my hair. I don’t remember my
dreams when I wake up, but sure enough it’s a new day. Grandma is singing softly in the kitchen. A little
4
song is always good for something. I smell buttermilk biscuits! Buttermilk biscuits are Saturday biscuits,
but today is Wednesday. She gives me two. Then it’s time for school.
Before the third floor, the lift suddenly stops and goes dark. My heart beats so hard that I feel the
beating in my ears. Grandma rings the bell.
“Power is down,” calls Mr. Simon from above us.
Grandma takes my hands, and we sing together in the dark lift.
Before long, Mr. Simon helps us out. Grandma takes my hand, and we walk down the stairs to the
street as if nothing happened.
The power is still off when I come home. After dinner and homework, we take biscuits and jam to
the balcony and watch day turn to evening. Lights come on far away, but it’s dark here.
Flash! A light shoots across the sky-so sudden seems real. Like magic, I feel my wish holding
tight to the tail of that shooting star, dancing across the sky to our songs.
34. What part of the story is Paragraph 1
A. The background. B. The development.
C. The climax (most exciting part). D. The ending.
35. What does the underlined sentence mean in Paragraph 5
A. It’s the very time to go to bed.
B. Dreams are important at night.
C. There’ll be shooting stars tomorrow.
D. Remember the dream till tomorrow.
36. What is grandma like according to the text
A. Strict and honest. B. Wise and proud.
C. Kind and smart. D. Careful and funny.
37. What can we learn from the text
A. We should enjoy everything we meet.
B. We can do nothing if we don’t have power.
C. We can call shooting stars by singing songs.
D. We need to have hope even if it’s impossible.
C
Imagine you feel strongly about something and you want to talk about it. You might think that no
one will want to hear what you have to say. Well, here’s an example of a young person who has made a
lot of people pay attention.
Greta Thunberg is a teenager from Sweden. She was eight years old when she first heard about
global warming at school. She was very worried about what she heard, but what shocked her most was
that adults didn’t seem to think it was serious. They weren’t doing anything about it. From then on, she
couldn’t stop thinking about the danger of climate change. She persuaded (说服) her parents to change
their lifestyle: the family started to eat more vegetables instead of meat and started growing their own
vegetables. They travelled by train instead of plane and changed to solar energy in their home.
5
The summer of 2018 was very hot in Europe with more bad weather than usual. Greta
knew . She handed out posters in the streets and made speeches in the community. She wanted
everyone to understand two things: climate change was real and it was serious.
Greta, now known internationally, began travelling around Europe to speak at important
meetings. Her idea is always very clear: unless you do something now, you will destroy our future. At a
United Nations climate change meeting in Poland, she said, “The year 2078, I will celebrate my 75th
birthday. If I have children, maybe they will spend that day with me. Maybe they will ask why you
didn’t do anything while there still was time to act.”
Greta’s actions have made adults and young people take action around the world. She has shown
that young people can make a difference if they’re brave enough to talk about the things they believe in.
38. What does the underlined word “it” in Paragraph 2 refer to
A. Global warming. B. Their lifestyle. C. Her school. D. Bad weather
39. Which sentence can be put in the in Paragraph 3
A. she had to refuse to work B. it was time to forget
C. she did something wrong D. it was time for actions
40. What can we learn about Greta Thunberg from the text
A. She never travelled by train before she was eight.
B. She first heard about global warming in a meeting.
C. She has done actions to change the weather in Sweden.
D. She made speeches about global warming around Europe.
41. What’s the best title of the text
A. Ways to speak in public B. Kids can make a difference
C. Global warming is serious D. Think carefully and speak bravely
D
Few countries in the world have calligraphy as a form of art. In China,
calligraphy has a long history, and is popular among its people, and has kept
a close relationship with Chinese cultural development.
It seems as if anyone that can write Chinese characters on Xuanzhi with
a writing brush can became a calligrapher. But that is not true. Calligraphy is
a form of art that needs a great deal of theory (理论) and requires many skills;
so there are few calligraphers that have reached the highest place of
calligraphy. Among the most famous calligraphers in ancient China were
Wang Xizhi, Ouyang Xun, Yan Zhenqing, and Liu Gongquan, who are known for calligraphy
pioneering their own styles.
Calligraphy is constructive art. The calligrapher creates his work with his handling of the ink and
the writing brush. The black lines and white space on the paper create a sense of beauty.
6
Calligraphy is an expressive art. In a work of calligraphy, we can see the character, education level
and experience of the calligrapher.
Calligraphy is a practical art form. It can be used to write on paper or wood or stone. Its feature
show us that calligraphy is a full art, expressing the feeling of the writers.
Calligraphy shows the basic characteristics of all Chinese arts. In China, calligraphy and painting
are leaders of the other art forms. When calligraphy and painting are mentioned together, calligraphy
always comes before painting. The theories about handling brush and they are similar in calligraphy
writing and Chinese picture drawing. The development of Chinese folk arts, too, has been influenced by
calligraphy to some degree. So we can see that calligraphy is the center of Chinese fine arts.
42. What are needed to be a good calligrapher
a. many skills b. Xuanzhi c. a lot of theories d. writing brushes
A. a, b B. a, c C. b, d D. a, d
43. What can we infer (推断) from Paragraph 4
A. Education level is important to create the works of calligraphy.
B. Different calligraphers may write the calligraphy in different ways.
C. We can know personal information of calligraphers from their works.
D. Before enjoying the calligraphy, we need to know about calligraphers.
44. What is Paragraph 6 mainly about
A. The leading forms of art in China.
B. The basic development of calligraphy.
C. The importance of calligraphy in China.
D. The same part of calligraphy and painting.
45. What’s the structure of the text
卷 Ⅱ
说明:本卷共四大题,26 小题,共 50 分。请用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔将答案写在“答题纸”
的相应位置上。
四、任务型阅读(共 5小题,每小题 2分,共 10分)
阅读科普宣传单,根据文中信息完成以下任务。
任务 A: 补全 46 49 题所在的读书笔记。每.空.限.填.一.词.。
任务 B: 完成 50 题。不.超.过.1.5.个.词.。
From grasses to trees, plants come in all colors, shapes and sizes. There are about 350,000 types of
plants in the world. Let’s enter the world of plants and learn more about them.
How do plants make food
7
Like all living things, plants need food to live. They make food for
themselves by photosynthesis. This happens in leaves. To make food, plants need
sunlight, CO2 and H2O. They use the energy from the sun to turn all of those
things into O2 and sugars.
What don’t we really know about plants
● Helping each other
Plants also help each other and even communicate. In deserts, the roots of Euphrates poplar (胡
杨) are connected. If a tree finds water, it will share it with others through the roots.
● Ways of protecting
Each kind of plant has its own ways to Mimosa (含羞草)When you touch it, it closes its leaves.
protect itself. Some flowers give off a bad smell. Scientists believe this helps the plant fight
Some even have teeth. enemies. The sudden movement of its leavescan scare enemies away.
Why are plants important to us
●Air
Plants can provide us with clean air. They take in CO2 and make O2 that humans and animals
need. They make 98% of O2 we breathe.
● Water
Plants help clean water and reduce floods. A green tree can hold more than 15,000 liters of
water per year, reducing the risk of flooding.
● Food
About 150 plant species (物种) provide the world’s food. Just 12 plant species provide 75% of
the world’s food.
Notes
There are about 350,000 types of
plants in the world.
Photosynthesis happens in
46 and it is important for plants.
Plants help each other. If a tree
finds water, it will 47 it with
others.
Each plant has its own ways to
protect itself. For example, Mimosa
48 its leaves.
Plants can help us in 49
ways. They give us clean air and food,
they also help clean the water.
8
50. What can we learn from the numbers in the last part
五、词汇运用(共 10 小题,每小题 1 分,共 10 分)
根据短文内容和所给中文提示,写出空白处各单词的正确形式。每.空.限.填.一.词.。
A man in black clothes jumps high into the air. Before he lands, he strikes a pose. Sometimes, he
carries a red 51 (扇子). With long white sleeves, he spread his arms like wings. His dance is
eye-catching, often being watched by crowds.
He is Chinese dancer Ma Jiaolong. Since 2020, he’s made short videos of 52 (他自己 )
dancing in London. He has performed at city’s parks and landmarks like Tower Bridge. He is over 53
(三十) years old and has nearly five million followers on Douyin, where he shares his videos.
Classical Chinese dance puts the 54 (传统) Chinese opera into martial arts movements. He
started to learn it at 12. “ I was interested in the dancers who play ancient heroes through the
movements of classical Chinese dance,” said Ma.
Later, Ma studied at Beijing Dance Academy. Since 55 (七月) 2019, he has been teaching
classical Chinese dance at Goldsmiths, University of London. Four years ago, Ma had to give 56
(在线) classes because of the awful disease. In his small home, 57 (当然), he could only make
small moves. One day, he took his wife’s advice and danced at Greenwich Park, a popular tourist spot.
She recorded Mar’s dance. He then 58 (发送) the video to friends. “Surprisingly, they loved it,
which encouraged me to share it on the Internet,” said Ma.
Later, Ma made more short videos. He 59 (混合) his dance moves with dazzling action.
People were often curious about his performances. As his videos went popular, he received many text
60 (信息) from people around the world.
“Now, making and sharing short videos has become a part of my life and most importantly, a great
way to introduce classical Chinese dance to more people, especially overseas viewers,” said Ma.
六、语法填空(共 10 小题,每小题 1分,共 10 分)
阅读下面短文,按照句子结构的语法情况和上下文连贯的要求,在空格处填入一个适当的词
或者用括号中词语的正确形式填空。每.空.不.超.过.两.词.。
The Amazon rainforest is in South America. It covers 5.5 million square kilometres. That’s about
half the size of China. The Amazon River 61 (run) through the rainforest. According to a new
study, it may become grassland in a few 62 (year). The Amazon is the world’s biggest
rainforest. However, climate change and human activities make it “sick”. Usually, the rainforest can fix
itself. But now, it feels too tired to get better. The trees may die and the rainforest could turn into 63
hot and dry area.
Why is the Amazon “sick”
The Amazon is one of 64 (wet) places. Every year, droughts hit the rainforest and harm it
a lot. They 65 (cause) by climate change. The trees don’t have enough water to grow. What’s
worse, as they become dry, they can catch fire 66 (easy).
On top of this, people cut down a lot of trees 67 wood to make money. They clear trees to
find something useful. They burn the forest 68 (make) farmland. All these have made about 17%
9
of the rainforest disappear.
What will happen if we lose it
The Amazon is like the lungs of our planet. The plants there take carbon dioxide (CO2) out of the
air and make oxygen (O2). They make more than 20% of the planet’s oxygen. 69 the Amazon
“dies”, there will be more CO2 and our earth will become even hotter.
The Amazon is also the home to over 3 million animals and plants. Many of 70 (they) can’t
live anywhere else. They would be very likely to disappear.
七、书面表达(共 1 小题,共 20 分)
71. 假设你是李华,你的外教 Laura 在学校成立了英语写作俱乐部。她为社团成员安排了下
学期的活动。请根据下表,描.述.活.动.安.排.,补.充.一.项.活.动.并谈.谈.你.对.这.些.活.动.的.看.法.。
注意:
1. 文中不得出现真实的人名、校名等信息;
2. 词数:90 110;
3. 可适当发挥,使内容充实、行文连贯。
102023年初中生学业水平第二次调研测试
听力材料
这是衢江区2023年初中生学业水平第二次调研测试英语听力部分。该部分共分三节。
注意:做题时,请先将答案划在试题卷上。该部分录音内容结束后,你将有1分钟的时间将答案转涂到答题卡上。(停顿00'02'')
请看听力部分第一节。
第一节:听下面五段小对话。每段对话后有一个小题。从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选择最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答这一小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。(停顿00'02'')
现在,你有5秒钟的时间来阅读第1小题的有关内容。(停顿00'05'')
1. M: Hi, Lisa. Are you going to the party tonight
W: I’d like to, but I have to do my homework.
(停顿00'10'')
2. M: Sally, did you have swimming classes last term
W: Yes. We had swimming classes on Tuesdays and Thursdays.
(停顿00'10'')
3. W: Hello, Tom. Are you going to the theater tonight
M: Yes. We’re meeting in front of the theater at seven, right
W: Yeah, but I will be half an hour late. I have to prepare supper for my little sister.
(停顿00'10'')
4. W: Can we stop and have a rest for a minute, Charlie We haven’t stopped since we got here.
M: Sure. We’ve walked around since nine. Let’s get some coffee.
(停顿00'10'')
5.W: Tim, what do you think of these shoes
M: To be honest, I prefer the ones you tried on first.
W: OK. I’ll take the first pair.
(停顿00'05'')
第一节到此结束。
第二节:听下面两段较长对话。每段对话后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选择最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。每段对话读两遍。(停顿00'02'')
听下面一段对话,回答第6至7小题。现在,你有10秒钟的时间来阅读这两个小题。
(停顿00'10'')
W: Hey, Jack. What are you doing
M: Oh, I am making a presents list for New Year’s Day.
W: What are you going to buy for Thomas
M: I was thinking of buying him a story book, but I think he would like a game for his computer.
W: That’s nice. He will like a game. What are you going to buy for your friends
M: Well, for Sally I might get her some chocolates and for Jimmy a toy car.
W: What are you going to buy for Mark
M: Oh, I forgot about Mark. I think I will buy him a sweater.
(停顿00'02'')(重复)(停顿00'10'')
听下面一段对话,回答第8至10小题。现在,你有15秒钟的时间来阅读这三个小题。
(停顿00'15'')
M: Let’s look for a hotel now. Is it for two nights or three
W: Three nights--Friday, Saturday and Sunday. Are there any hotels near the airport
M: Yes, there are. Just a minute...no, there aren’t any cheap hotels near the airport. They’re all expensive.
W: Wow! Well, is there a guesthouse near the airport
M: I don’t like guesthouses. They are usually small and not very comfortable.
W: OK. Let’s look in the city center. Are there any cheap hotels there
M: Yes,of course, there are.
W: And is there a bus to the city center
M: Yes, there is a bus every twenty minutes from the airport to the city center. There isn’t a train, but that’s OK.
W: And there are taxis too.
M: I think the bus is fine. OK, so let’s look at these hotels.
(停顿00'02'')(重复)(停顿00'15'')
第二节到此结束。
第三节:听下面一段独白,独白后有5个小题。从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选择最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。独白读两遍。(停顿00'02'')
现在,你有25秒钟的时间来阅读这5个小题。(停顿00'25'')
Dear sir,
I listened to your speech on TV last Friday. And I would like to be a member of Bird Watching Club. My name is Mike. I am a student in Grade 9. My favorite subjects are maths and English. My maths teacher is so humorous that we all love him. I have many friends at school, they are friendly and I like playing football with them after school. I also like music. I can sing some pop songs well. I would like to be a member of your club because I like to do something for birds. My friends always say that I am very helpful. I can come to the club to take part in activities on Saturday morning and Sunday afternoon. I will be happy if I can become a member of your club. You can call me at 44923685.
Mike
(停顿00'02'')(重复)(停顿00'25'')
第三节到此结束。
现在,请将试卷上的答案转涂到答题纸上。
(停顿1'00")
听力测试到此结束。

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