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2023年新高二开学摸底考试卷（全国通用）03
英语·答案及评分标准
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
1—5BABCA 6—10CAABC 11—15BCCBC 16—20ACBAA
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
21—25CDAAC 26—30BAACB 31—35DDABB
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
36—40FACDG
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
41—45ACBDA 46—50BCADB 51—55CDACB
第二节 （共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
56.connected 57.incredibly 58.different 59.to entertain 60.boring
61.on 62.needs 63.it 64.changing 65.what
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
【参考范文】
Dear Sir or Madam,
I am writing to apply for the position of volunteer in your animal protection association. I learned from the internet that you are recruiting volunteers and I am very interested in this opportunity.
I’m a huge animal lover with lots of enthusiasm and commitment to doing volunteer work. I have done some related work before and I’m eager to learn more about protecting animals and helping them out. My ability to quickly learn a task and work with others makes me an ideal fit for the role. I’m available to do a variety of tasks from rescuing animals to helping out at events, such as fundraisers or awareness-raising campaigns.
I hope to become a member of your association and work together to protect animals. Thank you for considering my application.
Yours,
Li Hua
应用文写作评分标准
一、评分原则
1. 本题总分为15分，按5个档次给分。
2. 评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
3. 词数少于60和多于100的，从总分中减去2分。
4. 评分时，应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的丰富性和准确性及上下文的连贯性。
5. 拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
6. 如书写较差，以致影响交际，可将分数降低一个档次。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求
档次 描述
第五档 (13～15分) 完全完成了试题规定的任务。 - 覆盖所有内容要点。 - 应用了较多的语法结构和词汇。 - 语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误，但因尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致；具备较强的语言运用能力。 - 有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。 完全达到了预期的写作目的。
第四档 (10～12分) 完全完成了试题规定的任务。 - 虽漏掉1、2个次重点，但覆盖所有主要内容。 - 应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。 - 语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致。 - 应用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。 达到了预期的写作目的。
第三档 (7～9分) 基本完成了试题规定的任务。 - 虽漏掉一些内容，但覆盖所有主要内容。 - 应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。 - 有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解。 - 应用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文内容连贯。 整体而言，基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档 (4～6分) 未适当完成试题规定的任务。 - 漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容。 - 语法结构单调、词汇项目有限。 - 有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响了对写作内容的理解。 - 较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺少连贯性。 信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
第一档 (1～3分) 未完成试题规定的任务。 - 明显遗漏主要内容，写了一些无关内容，原因可能是未理解试题要求。 - 语法结构单调、词汇项目有限。 - 较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响对写作内容的理解。 - 缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯。 信息未能传达给读者。
0分 未能传达给读者任何信息：内容太少，无法评判；写的内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。
第二节（满分25分）
【参考范文】
Pooh turned the key and tried to start the car, but it wouldn’t move. They realized in a moment that the car was running out of oil because it had been on the road for too long. Richie asked, “what How can we get back to it ” Winnie thought calmly for a moment, and decided to see the trunk of the car to see what could be used. Unfortunately, there is nothing but a broken fire burner. Winnie suddenly thought of lighting wood to attract attention, so he collected some wood and lit them on a hill hill. But it took a long time to wait for no one to pass.
On the edge of despair, they heard the whistle of a car. They were immediately excited, and as the car approached, it pulled up in front of them and a familiar figure alighted. It was their daughter. They hugged each other in surprise and then excitement. They asked their daughter how she had found them. It turned out that the daughter had been tracking their location on her mobile phone at home. Seeing the smoke from their fire, she found them. They admired their daughter’s cleverness. Then the family went back home happily.
读后续写评分原则
一、评分标准
1. 本题总分为25分，按七个档次进行评分。
2. 评分时，主要从续写内容、语言表达、篇章结构三个方面考虑，具体为：
（1）创造内容的质量，续写的完整性及与原文情景的融洽度。
（2）所使用词汇和语法结构的准确性、恰当性和多样性。
（3）上下文的衔接和全文的连贯性。
3. 评分时，应先根据作答的具体情况确定其所属的档次，然后以该档次的要求来综合衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
4. 评分时还应注意：
（1）词数少于120的，酌情扣分；
（2）书写较差以致影响交际的，酌情扣分；
（3）单词拼写和标点符号是写作规范的重要方面，评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑，英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求
第七档（22—25分）
创造了新颖、丰富、合理的内容，富有逻辑性，续写完整，与原文情境融洽度高；
使用了多样且恰当的词汇和语法结构，表达流畅，语言错误很少，且完全不影响理解；
自然有效地使用了段落间、语句间衔接手段，全文结构清晰，前后呼应，意义连贯。
第六档（18—21分）
创造了比较丰富、合理的内容，比较有逻辑性，续写比较完整，与原文情境融洽度较高；
使用了比较多样且恰当的词汇和语法结构，表达比较流畅，有个别错误，但不影响理解；
比较有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构清晰，意义比较连贯。
第五档（15—17分）
创造了基本合理的内容，有一定的逻辑性，续写基本完整，与原文情境相关；
使用了比较恰当的词汇和语法结构，表达方式不够多样性，表达有些许错误，但基本不影响理解；
使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构比较清晰，意义比较连贯。
第四档（11—14分）
创造了基本完整的故事内容，但有的情节不够合理或逻辑性不强，与原文情境基本相关；
使用了简单的词汇和语法结构，有部分语言错误和不恰当之处，个别部分影响理解；
有语句衔接的意识，全文结构基本清晰，意义基本连贯。
第三档（6—10分）
内容和逻辑上有一些重大问题，续写不够完整，与原文有一定程度脱节；
所用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误较多且比较低级，影响理解；
未能有效地使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不够清晰，意义欠连贯。
第二档（1—5分）
内容和逻辑上有较多重大问题，或有部分内容抄自原文，续写不完整，与原文情境基本脱节；
所使用的词汇非常有限，语法结构单调，错误极多，严重影响理解。
几乎没有使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不清晰，意义不连贯。
第一档（0分）
未作答；所写内容太少或无法看清以致无法评判；所写内容全部抄自原文或与题目要求完全不相关2023年新高二开学摸底考试卷(全国通用)03
英 语
(考试时间：120分钟 试卷满分：150分)
注意事项：
1.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。
2.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
3.考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力(共两节，满分 30 分)
第一节(共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话仅读一遍。
1.What will the man do on Friday
A. Eat out with the woman. B. Go on a business trip. C. Attend a party.
2.Where does Jim come from
A. Ireland. B. Scotland. C. Wales.
3.What is the man doing
A. Doing exercise. B. Taking photos. C. Trying on clothes.
4.When will the man’s flight leave
A. At 6:30. B. At 7:20. C. At 10:10.
5.What are the speakers talking about
A. A person. B. A meeting. C. An idea.
第二节(共15小题；每小题1 .5分，满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A，B，C三个选项中选择最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读每个小题，每小题5秒钟，听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6和第7两个小题。
6. Who visited Lake Tahoe
A. The woman. B. The woman’s grandparents. C. The man.
7. What is the probable relationship between the speakers
A. Friends. B. Husband and wife. C. Father and daughter.
听下面一段对话，回答第8和第9两个小题。
8.What does the woman ask the man to do
A. Keep quiet. B. Hide behind the tree. C. Carry her telescope.
9.What will the speakers find in a bird book
A. The bird’s color. B. The bird’s name. C. The bird’s food.
听下面一段对话，回答第10至13四个小题。
10.What relation is the man to the woman
A. Her grandfather. B. Her son. C. Her brother.
11.What does the woman think of Pizza Palace
A. Its food is delicious. B. Its price is high. C. Its service is slow.
12.Where do the speakers decide to go
A. To Burger King. B. To MacGregor’s. C. To Classic Express.
13.How will the speakers go out to eat
A. By taxi. B. By bike. C. On foot.
听下面一段对话，回答第14至17四个小题。
14.Whose speech did the woman listen to this morning
A. John Miller’s. B. David Thompson’s. C. Allan Brown’s.
15.What is the workshop in the afternoon about
A. Knowledge economy. B. Risk assessment. C. Employee motivation.
16.What does the woman say about her job
A. It can be challenging. B. It is truly interesting. C. It will be rewarding.
17.What do the man and the woman both want to do
A. Apply for a new position.
B. Offer their staff a salary raise.
C. Improve their management skills.
听下面一段独白，回答第18至第20三个小题。
18.What does Historic England advise
A. Ways to make the best photos.
B. Ways to protect traditional buildings.
C. Ways to raise people’s interest in art.
19.What is the exhibition about
A. Pictures of daily life. B. Ways of communication. C. Protecting the environment.
20.What is the feature of the show in London
A. Photos taken by Jamil.
B. Photos in shop windows.
C. The Week Junior advertisements.
第二部分 阅读(共两节, 满分50分)
第一节(共15小题；每小题2.5分, 满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文, 从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Down House, home of Charles Darwin:
Fun fact
Charles Darwin, his wife, Emma, and their children lived at Down House for 40 years from 1838. Several rooms appear as if the family still live here: with croquet sets thrown into an under-stairs cupboard, a half-played game of backgammon on a side table and Emma’s knitting(毛线)left on a chair in the drawing room. Upstairs, an exhibition showcases Darwin’s voyage aboard HMS Beagle, including a reconstruction of his cabin. Outside, visitors can explore the sheltered gardens which Darwin used as an open-air laboratory, and the greenhouse in which he planted rare plants and devised botanical experiments.
No room at Down House escaped Darwin’s experiments. In the drawing room he once placed a jar of earthworms on the grand piano to see whether they could hear.
Getting there
A 15-minute drive from the A21/Farnborough. Free parking. The R8 bus from Orpington stops nearby (except Sundays)or the 146 bus from Bromley North and South terminates(终点站)in Downe village, half a mile from the property. The nearest railway stations are Chelsfield or Orpington, about four miles away.
Value for money
It’s ￡12(adult), ￡7.20(child), or ￡31.30(family with 2 adults). Under 5s go free.
Opening hours
Open daily 10 a.m.—6 p.m. from 30 March to 30 September; daily 10 a.m.—5 p.m. between 1 to 31 October. Opening times vary through the winter(check website for details).
Verdict(评价)
8/10. An unstuffy educational, gentle day-trip attraction with friendly, knowledgeable staff.
21.What can visitors do in Down House
A. Play the grand piano. B. Set sail in HMS Beagle.
C. Explore Darwin’s work and life. D. Try food sourced from the garden.
22.How much would a couple with their 4-year-old twin sons pay for admission
A. ￡38.40. B. ￡26.20. C. ￡31.30. D. ￡24.
23.What do we know about Down House
A. It is highly thought of. B. It charges parking fees.
C. It has fixed opening hours. D. It is inconveniently located.
B
When a young man with autism(自闭)couldn’t realize his dream of riding on the Polar Express, the train staff helped make his wish come true.
18-year-old Ty Swartout is autistic and unable to speak, and he also loves The Polar Express. In addition to reading the book hundreds of times, he is sure to watch the movie every month. So when his parents discovered that there was a real-life version of the magic holiday train at the Grand Canyon Railway Hotel in Williams, Arizona, they knew a trip there is a must thing to be orchestrated.
Ty handled the four-hour drive to the railway hotel with ease. As he and his parents ate dinner and prepared to board the train, however, Ty became more and more over-stimulated because of the excitement of the visit. After experiencing two minor meltdowns (a breakdown of self-control), Ty was too thrilled to board the train.
The train staff refused to leave without Ty, but his parents told them to go ahead without them. “The staff of the Grand Canyon Railway insisted on helping,” Ty’s mother Angie said. “They even held the train, for which I was beyond grateful. Finally, I had to say let us go back to the room.”
Hardly had they got back to their hotel room when they heard a knock at the door from a member of the hotel staff and a police officer who had stopped by to make sure that Ty was okay. Not only that, they said that they wanted to do something to make it up to Ty.
As hotel staff helped Ty’s father Lloyd rearrange their visit on the Grand Canyon Expressway with free special accommodations, Ty and Angie read The Polar Express, only to be visited by the real-life railway train conductor. He sat next to Ty’s bed and engaged him in conversation. Ty was so thrilled and happy.
“After the conductor left, my husband told me that they wanted everyone to experience something special and magical,” Angie continued. “We got the gift of human kindness!”
24.What does the underlined word “orchestrated” in Paragraph 2 mean
A. Scheduled. B. Drafted. C. Confirmed. D. Postponed.
25.What can we learn from the passage
A. Ty is autistic but he is fond of communicating with people.
B. Ty’s father drove them to the railway hotel with ease.
C. Ty’s family was greatly struck by people’s sympathy.
D. Hotel staff sat next to Ty’s bed and entertained him.
26.When was Ty visited by the train conductor
A. When he was suffering a meltdown. B. When he was in the middle of reading.
C. Right after he got back to the hotel room. D. When he made his way to the railway hotel.
27.What is the best title for the passage
A. Polar Express Surprises Boy with Autism B. Helping Others Is Helping Ourselves
C. Autism Is Cured by Human Kindness D. Don’t Hesitate to Realize Your Dream
C
CONSERVATIONISTS are hoping to create England’s biggest native woodland by planting 100,000 trees in the Yorkshire Dales.
Snaizeholme, near the town of Hawes, was covered in woodland centuries ago but the 561-hectare valley is now almost barren(贫瘠的). Across the Yorkshire Dales, total tree cover amounts to just five per cent, the Woodland Trust has said, with ancient woodland making up just one per cent of that cover.
The trust wants to raise 8 million for a decades-long program that will see a restored forest providing habitats for threatened species such as woodland birds and black grouse. Planted trees will be mostly native broadleaved species such as alder, silver birch, down birch, willow, aspen, rowan, hawthorn and blackthorn, with montane species on the higher slopes.
Al Nash, who is heading the project for the Woodland Trust, said, “I love the Dales but the one thing it lacks in many areas is an abundance(丰富性)of trees. Here we will be giving nature and biodiversity a big boost and creating a rich variety of habitats. It is a rare opportunity to create a sizeable wildlife conservation area for the north of England. It’s clearly a wonderful opportunity to create something real that can be seen and touched in the Yorkshire Dales for the fight against climate change.”
The first stage of planting has already begun with funding from the White Rose Forest, DEFRA and corporate donors. More trees than needed will be planted as not all will survive in the windswept, rainy upland valley. They will be arranged at random and without plastic guards to help stimulate natural forest growth, the trust said.
28.How does the author illustrate the problem of the woodland loss
A. By providing data. B. By listing examples.
C. By making comments. D. By giving explanations.
29.What is the message conveyed in paragraph 4
A. The trend of global warming. B. The decline in variety of trees.
C. The significance of the project. D. The campaign of restoring habitats.
30.Why will more trees than needed be planted
A. To facilitate the random growth of trees.
B. To guarantee a higher survival rate of trees.
C. To strengthen defence against wind and rain.
D. To sustain the balance between varieties of trees.
31.Which of the following is the best title for the passage
A. A Breakthrough Made in Forest Growth.
B. Funds Being Raised to Plant Trees in England.
C. Conservationists Taking Action to Help England.
D. England’s Largest Native Woodland to Be Created.
D
Do you listen to the songs that your parents like Chances are that you don’t. You probably think the music that they like is old and dull and that the songs on your playlist are much cooler.
But here is what scientists found recently: people’s music tastes change as they age, according to a study published in Journal of Personality and Social Psychology. So it’s likely that your own musical preference will follow a similar path to your parents’, whether you like it or not.
Researchers at the University of Cambridge, UK, collected data(资料)from more than 250,000 people over the past 10 years. They noticed that as people age, their social circumstances(环境)change, and so does their music taste.
There are three musical periods that people pass through as they grow.
The first period comes in the teenage years, during which time people like punk and rock because teenagers want people to regard them as independent individuals(个体).
But as people move into early adulthood(成年), their lifestyle changes—they get to know more people and want to build close relationships with others. As a result, they prefer pop and R&B, which are often played at parties where people hang out together and chat.
When middle age comes, people like to listen to jazz and classical. They also like country, folk, and blues.
“During this period of life, many people often feel tired because of their work and family, and there is a requirement for relaxing and emotive(动情的) music,” said Jason Rentfrow, a research member.
But you must be thinking: “Aren’t there old people who still love rock music ” Of course there are. But Rentfrow explained that their reasons for listening to rock music may have changed. “We use music for different reasons,” he said, and at that age people may listen to remind themselves of their youths.
32.The underlined word “dull” in Paragraph 1 most probably means “________”.
A. hot B. sick C. enjoyable D. boring
33.Mike is twenty years old. What kind of music does he most probably like
A. Pop. B. Jazz. C. Country. D. Classical.
34.According to Jason Rentfrow, middle age is a period when people ________.
A. feel relaxed about their work B. are under much stress
C. want to stay with their family D. like all kinds of music
35.Which of the following is a suitable title for this passage
A. Why Do People Listen to Music B. What Influences People’s Music Taste
C. Do You Have a Talent for Music D. Do Young People Like Classical Music
第二节(共5小题；每小题2. 5分, 满分12. 5分)
阅读下面短文, 从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Easy Solutions to Stress
Does stress often wear you down It’s almost impossible to totally avoid stress, but the following tips will help you to get it under control so that it doesn’t take over your life.
Rely on other people
Studies of both animals and humans show that social contact can help you better respond to stress. ___36___ Avoid people who always need something without giving back or who are always short with you.
___37___
Leave the house 15 minutes early for appointments, set up a system for paying your bills, refill your daily supplies a week ahead of time and buy birthday cards whenever you see ones you like. A little advance planning can spare you a lot of headaches!
Keep a journal
Reflect on your day, your emotions and your personal goals. While writing them down, include everything that stresses you, so you can start to recognize what your problems are and take appropriate action. ___38___
Cut your to-do list in half
Most of us set the bar too high. After you’ve written your to-do list, decide what’s most important to you in the long run, then cut the list in half. ___39___. For example, hire a neighbourhood teenager to water your garden or skip cooking and order takeaway.
Laugh a little
___40___ Laughter also helps keep your heart, lungs and muscles healthy and build up your resistance (抵抗力). Plus, it’s nearly impossible to stay tense while you’re laughing. Therefore, find cartoons, videos or TV shows that make you laugh.
A. Avoid last-minute rushes.
B. Make detailed plans for daily activities.
C. Writing is also a great way to relax and put things in order.
D. If you can’t cut out certain tasks, try to have someone else do them.
E. As we all know, laughter is the best medicine for both your body and mind.
F. So establish a network of people you can turn to and ask for some helpful advice.
G. When you laugh, you send chemicals called endorphins(内啡肽)to your brain that ease pain and promote your feeling of wellbeing.
第三部分语言运用(共两节，满分30分)
第一节(共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文, 从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Jonathan Jones, 12, was overcome with emotion after his principal, who is also color-blind, let him ___41___ his unique glasses during science class last week.
As soon as Jones put the glasses on, he appeared to be immediately ___42___. He initially smiled and laughed, ___43___ he broke down moments later. He then walked around the classroom excitedly, ___44___ the now-vivid colors around him.
“I was feeling joy that I could ___45___ see all this color, and a little bit of ___46___ that I couldn’t see color my whole life,” Jonathan told ABC news.
The boy’s mother posted a(n) ___47___ of Jonathan seeing color for the first time online and started a GoFundMe campaign to buy a pair of the unique glasses for Jonathan, which reportedly cost $350. However, so many people were ___48___ by Jonathan’s story, and the campaign actually ended up ___49___ more than $25,000.
She wrote: “After posting the video we’ve been touched by how many ___50___ people have wanted to help him. We’ve had multiple pairs donated to Jonathan and will use 100% of ___51___ funds to purchase color-blind glasses for those who can’t ___52___ them.” “The glasses company will match every pair we purchase with a free pair, which ___53___ the number of people we can ___54___,” she continued.
For Jonathan, with the new glasses comes a new ___55___ of the world. He said his favorite color is blue and he’s excited to visit the Caribbean this winter so he can see the ocean in all its glory.
41.A. borrow B. polish C. remove D. adjust
42.A. disappointed B. annoyed C. surprised D. embarrassed
43.A. and B. but C. so D. or
44.A. mixing B. painting C. changing D. exploring
45.A. finally B. rarely C. constantly D. occasionally
46.A. tension B. sadness C. relief D. shame
47.A. picture B. article C. video D. introduction
48.A. moved B. shocked C. confused D. entertained
49A. loaning B. costing C. saving D. collecting
50.A. wealthy B. generous C. competent D. ambitious
51.A. limited B. managed C. donated D. needed
52.A. find B. produce C. fix D. afford
53.A. doubles B. decreases C. replaces D. compares
54.A. treat B. instruct C. help D. accompany
55.A. future B. view C. situation D. record
第二节(共10小题；每小题1. 5分, 满分15分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Technology has started to take over the world. It may seem like a huge advancement to society, but large setbacks come equally.
We now live in an age of social media. We have never been as ___56___(connect)as we are now. Everyone around us can be reached instantly. Besides, the use of technology has made all of our lives ___57___ (incredible)efficient. Furthermore, a majority of people have access to technology, which helps them express themselves on many ___58___(difference)platforms. Lastly, technology has given people many ways ___59___ (entertain)themselves. Various websites offer hours upon hours entertainment for those ___60___(bore)nights.
While some may see social media’s positive effects ___61___ relationships, others can see it as the exact opposite. It keeps people from seeing each other face to face. Meanwhile, there is nothing more frustrating than having technology not work right when it ___62___(need)to. Moreover, so dependent on technology, people don’t try to explore life outside of a smart device. Also, with more and more people posting information on the internet, ___63___ can be very difficult to determine whether the information is credible or not. This can lead to false information being taken seriously, and ___64___(change)perspectives of those who believe it.
To understand technology, one must know ___65___ it provides in terms of advantages and disadvantages.
第四部分 写作(共两节, 满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
66.假定你是李华，从互联网上得知某动物保护协会正在招募(recruit)志愿者，你想成为其中的一员。请写一封信申请这个职位。
内容包括：1.写信目的；
2.个人优势和能做的事情；
3.你的希望。
注意：1.词数 100 左右；
2.可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
Dear Sir or Madam,
______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节(满分25分)
67.阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
Richie and her husband, Pooh, decided on visiting Cape Cod, a beautiful sea town, which is about three hours drive from the city of Boston. Their daughter who then lived in Salem close to Boston insisted that she would pick them up. But they were confident of their sense of direction and not wanting to trouble her, so they refused her offer. They decided to take their journey in their own car and started early in the morning.
After a three-hour drive, they arrived in Cape Cod and started their new discovery with a road map of the town and its suburbs. Since there were many places to see, it took them the whole day to finish their sightseeing.
Now, they were visiting a suburb with shops selling handmade items. Richie was most interested in shopping, while Pooh warned her to finish before it started getting dark. They were so absorbed in their shopping that they forgot about the time until the shops began to close.
They took the same route back. Pooh had a very good memory and a keen sense of direction and so Richie just blindly followed him, without knowing where they were heading to. Soon they found themselves just going round in a maze, realizing they got lost on the way.
They had to stop the car, referred to their map, and started again. After some time, they realized it was no use trying and finding their way back. Their mobile phones had been dead for hours, and it was impossible to contact their daughter. Having no other option, they decided to ask someone for help, but being a Sunday, the roads were empty, with no people walking around or cars passing by. They were getting worried and terrified with each passing minute. The darkness and panic filled Richie’s head with horrible thoughts “Would they be robbed or attacked ”After hours of waiting silently in the darkness, they decided to try again.
注意：1.续写词数应为150左右；
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Paragraph 1:
Pooh turned the key and tried to start the car, but it wouldn’t move. ________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Paragraph 2:
On the edge of despair, they heard the whistle of a car. __________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

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