安徽省六安市霍邱县2022-2023学年七年级上学期期末英语试题(含听力音频+答案)

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安徽省六安市霍邱县2022-2023学年七年级上学期期末英语试题(含听力音频+答案)

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霍邱县2022~2023学年度第一学期期末考试
七年级英语试卷
注意事项:
1. 本试卷共四部分,十大题,满分120分,考试时间120分钟。
2. 全卷包括“试题卷”和“答题卷”两部分。
3. 请务必在“答题卷”上答题,在“试题卷”上答题无效。
4. 考试结束后,请将“试题卷”和“答题卷”一并交回。
第一部分 听力 (共四大题;满分20分)
I. 短对话理解 (共10小题,每小题1分,满分10分)
你将听到五段对话,每段对话后有一个小题,请在每小题所给的A、B、C二个选项中选出最佳选项,每段对话读两遍。
1. What does Eric want to have for breakfast
A. B. C.
2. When is Helen’s birthday
A. B. C.
3. What do Jack and Nick want to do after school
A. Play computer games. B. Play soccer. C. Watch TV.
4. How much is Bill’s sweater
A. $12. B. $20. C. $22.
5. Who is Gina
A. The girl in a red skirt. B. The girl in a blue sweater. C. The girl in a red jacket.
II. 长对话理解 (共5小题,每小题1分,满分5分)
你将听到两段对话,每段对话后有几个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段对话,回答下列各小题。
6. When is Frank’s P.E. class
A. On Tuesday. B. On Wednesday. C. On Friday.
7. What sport does Frank like
A. Volleyball. B. Baseball. C. Basketball.
听下面一段对话,回答下列各小题。
8. Where is Alan’s middle school
A. In Hefei. B. In Beijing. C. In Nanjing.
9. How many (多少) boys are there in Alan’s class
A. 18. B. 21. C. 31.
10. What does Alan think of Ms. Wu’s English classes
A. Relaxing. B. Boring. C. Interesting.
III. 短文理解 (共5小题,每小题1分,满分5分)
你将听到一篇短文,短文后有五个问题。请根据短文内容,在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。短文读两遍。
11. How old is Lily
A. 11. B. 12. C. 13.
12. What’s Lily and Lucy’s favorite color
A. White. B. Red. C. Purple.
13. What do Lily and Lucy like for dinner
A. Chicken. B. Salad. C. Bread.
14. What sport does Lily like
A. Basketball. B. Soccer. C. Ping-pong.
15. Where does Lucy like going in her free time
A. To the party. B. To the library. C. To the clothes store.
IV. 信息转换 (共5小题,每小题1分,满分5分)
你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容,写出下面表格中所缺的单词,每空仅填一词,短文读两遍。
About Julia
Age (年龄) ________ (16)
Family Parents and brother
Job (职业) A ________ (17) player.
Weekend activities On Saturday morning: She always plays ball games. On Saturday afternoon: She ________ (18) TV. On Sunday morning: She plays volleyball with her brother. On Sunday afternoon: She goes to the ________ (19) with her mom.
It’s ________ (20) for her to be with her family.
第二部分 英语知识运用 (共两大题;满分30分)
V. 单项填空 (共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
21.—Emma, your bag is so beautiful. Is it new
—No. It’s ________ old bag of my mum.
A. a B. an C. the D. /
22. ________ your sister ________ on eraser
A. Do; have B. Does; has C. Does; have D. Do; has
23. The giraffe is very ________. we look so short near it.
A. fat B. small C. strong D. tall
24.—________ these socks
—They’re three dollars.
A. How much are B. How much is C. How many is D. How many are
25.—Hey, Jane. What are you reading
—A book ________ Alice. She meets many special people in the story.
A. to B. about C. for D. from
26. Ms White wants her children to wash ________ hands before having meals.
A.my B. their C. your D. our
27. Teachers’ Day is ________ September 10 and the Spring Festival is usually ________ February.
A. in; on B. in; in C. on; in D. in; at
28. ________ math is difficult, ________ I don’t like it.
A. Because;/ B. So;/ C. Because; so D. So; because
29.—Are you free on Tuesday this week
—No. I’m very ________.
A. interesting B. relaxing C. old D. busy
30.—Dad, how about getting some apples
—________ Your mum likes them, too.
A. Oh, too bad! B. Good idea. C. It’s a secret. D. You’re welcome.
VI. 完形填空 (共20小题;每小题1分,满分20分)
阅读下列短文,从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Hello, boys and girls. ________ (31) name is Li Wen. I ________ (32) a Chinese girl. I’m eleven ________ (33) old. I am ________ (34) No. 3 Middle School. I am in ________ (35). Lucy is my good friend. She is ________ (36) American girl. She is twelve. She is in Class 3, ________ (37). My father is forty-eight. ________ (38) a doctor. My mother is a ________ (39). She works in my school. She is thirty-five. Li Jia is my ________ (40). He’s five. He’s in a kindergarten (幼儿园).
31. A. His B. Her C. My D. Mine
32. A. am B. is C. are D. do
33. A. year B. years C. day D. days
34. A. in B. to C. about D. for
35. A. Grade 1, Class 2 B. class 2, grade 1 C. Class 3, Grade 1 D. grade 1, class 3
36. A. a B. an C. the D./
37. A. to B. too C. also D. either
38. A. He B. She C. She’s D. He’s
39. A. classmate B. student C. teacher D. sister
40. A. father B. mother C. sister D. brother
B
Dear Kate,
From your ________ (41), I know there is an art festival in your school on December 12th. You ________ (42) Jenny like to sing at it. You want me to go and ________ (43) it, but I can’t.
I’m busy ________ (44) that day. I have four ________ (45) in the morning. They’re English, Chinese, P.E. and math. My ________ (46) is not good, so I must take the math class. I have art and geography in the afternoon. Art is my favorite ________ (47). Our teacher Miss White always teaches (教) ________ (48) great music. I’m not ________ (49) in the evening, either (也). I have to play ping-pong from 7:00 p.m. to 8:30 p.m.
Have a good time at the festival! ________ (50) some photos and let me have a look, please.
Yours,
Amy
41. A. book B. email C. photo D. class
42. A. and B. with C. or D. after
43. A. know B. look C. watch D. play
44. A. with B. at C. in D. on
45. A. tests B. parties C. lessons D. hours
46. A. math B. geography C. history D. science
47. A. subject B. game C. term D. thing
48. A. he B. him C. we D. us
49. A. happy B. free C. useful D. busy
50. A. Think B. Buy C. Take D. Have
第三部分 阅读理解 (共两大题;满分45分)
VII. 补全对话 (共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
根据对话内容,从方框内选出能填入空白处的最佳选项,其中有两个为多余选项。
A: May I ask you some questions
B: Sure.
A: When do you usually get up
B: ________ (51)
A: When do you have breakfast in the morning
B: I have breakfast at 6:30.
A: ________ (52)
B: School starts at 8:00.
A: ________ (53)
B: My favorite subject is math.
A: ________ (54)
B: Because I think it’s interesting and useful.
A: ________ (55)
B: Mr. Hu is my math teacher.
A: Thank you a lot.
A. Who is your math teacher B. I usually get up at six in the morning. C. What is your favorite subject D. I like playing basketball. E. When does your school start F. Why do you like it G. Who lost it
VIII. 阅读理解 (共20小题;每小题2分,满分40分)
阅读下列短文,从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。
A
56. How many sports halls are there in the Harker Middle School
A. One. B. Two. C. Twelve. D. Twenty.
57. Sarah wants to get more information (信息) about the school. She can ________.
A. go to Hollywood, America B. call 480.500.0399
C. send emails to communications@ D. visit www.harker.org
58. From the poster (海报), we can learn about ________.
A. the names of teachers B. the number of students
C. the subjects in the school D. the area of the playgrounds
B
I am Jenny Green. I like playing sports very much. I think it is a good way to keep healthy. I have many good friends. I often play volleyball with them after school. I don’t have a volleyball, but my friend Paul has one. So we often use (使用) his volleyball.
Today is June 1st, and it is Children’s Day. My father buys my brother Alan a new volleyball. He is six years old. He just plays it on the floor at home. I want to use his new volleyball. So I say to him, “Hi, Alan. May I use your volleyball this afternoon ” “No, you can’t,” he says to me. I am very sad (难过的). My father comes to him and says, “Dear boy, you should share (分享) your things with others. Then you can be a good boy.” Then he gives the volleyball to me.
59. What does Jenny often do after school
A. B. C. D.
60. Who is Alan
A. Jenny’s friend. B. Paul’s brother. C. Jenny’s brother. D. Paul’s cousin.
61. Which of the following is NOT true
A. Jenny’s last name is Green. B. Paul has a basketball.
C. Today is Children’s Day. D. Alan plays volleyball at home.
62. From the passage, we can infer (推断) that ________.
A. Alan never shares his things with Jenny B. Alanis angry (生气的) with his father
C. Jenny can play Alan’s volleyball today D. Alanis not a good boy
C
My favourite sport is basketball because it is very exciting. I like basketball because the NBA stars play very well. Basketball is very cheap and it is a good sport for our health. We can grow taller if we play basketball often. Also it keeps me fit. I play basketball three times a week. I often play it in my school. I often play it with my friends or I may play it myself. I feel very happy when I play basketball at school with my classmates. Sometimes I play basketball in the playground near my home. Basketball is very easy to play. If you play basketball very well, you can form (组建) a basketball team to take part in the competition (比赛). If you win the basketball competition, you will have the prize. You may become a famous basketball star.
63. I like basketball best because it’s ________.
A. cheap B. exciting C. good D. famous
64. How many times do I play basketball every week
A. Five. B. Three. C. Four. D. Six
65. Why do I like basketball
A. Because it’s cheap. B. Because it’s good for health.
C. Because the NBA stars play very well. D. A, B and C.
66. The best title (标题) for the passage is “________”.
A. Basketball Player B. My Favourite Sport C. Basketball Star D. My Favourite Basketball Star
D
On Martin’s birthday, his father gives him a gift. His father says, “Son, it’s a magic (有魔力的) book. But to find its magic, you’ll have to read it.”
Martin doesn’t like reading. But he starts reading it because he likes things about magic. The next morning, his father asks him, “Have you found the magic key ” Martin looks through the book, but there is no key. A little later, his younger sister asks him for the book to try reading it. After some days, she says, “I’ve found the key of the magic book!”
That makes Martin interested in reading the book. At first it is difficult, but, little by little, he is interested in the book. Suddenly, he finds that the book itself is the key of magic! With the key, Mailin can travel in many books.
67. When does Martini father give him a book
A. On Christmas Day. B. On New Year’s Day. C. On his birthday. D. On his father’s birthday.
68. Maitin starts reading the book because ________.
A. he likes reading B. he likes things about magic
C. he likes reading with his sister D. his sister finds the magic
69. What does “it” in the 3rd paragraph refer to (指代)
A. The talk. B. His father. C. The book. D. His mother.
E
Chinese New Year is next week in January this year. Do you need great furniture (家具) for your room Come and buy things at our great sale at Helen’s Furniture Store. Look! Here are some nice tape players in white, blue and red for mothers. We sell them for only $20. For students, we have desks and chairs for $25 a set. You can buy big tables for $50 and small tables lor $40. What color do you like Sofas in all colors are only $100 each.
One interesting thing: You can buy great vegetables here, too. The vegetables are from Yunnan and Taiwan.
Come to our store. You will like it.
70. You can’t buy ________ at the great sale.
A. vegetables B. sofas C. tape players D. fruit
71. Jack wants to buy a set of desk and chair. He will pay (付钱) ________.
A. $20 B. $40 C. $25 D. $22
72. This article (文章) is ________.
A. a letter (信件) B. a notice (通知) C. an e-mail D. an ad (广告)
阅读下面短文,并用英语回答问题(请注意每小题后面的词数要求)。
F
We all like festivals, because we can do some interesting things on these days. I have a friend. His name is Mike. He loves New Year’s Day. It’s a big festival in China. It often comes in January. His mother loves Women’s Day. It is on March 8th. She can have a good rest (休息), eat some nice food and watch movies (电影) on that day. Mike has a brother and a sister. They’re David and Anna. David is thirteen and Anna is only eleven. David likes April 1st. It’s April Fool’s Day (愚人节). He likes to play jokes (玩笑) on his friends on that day. Anna likes to eat mooncakes (月饼) so she loves Mid-Autumn Festival. It often comes in September. What festival do I like It’s Children’s Day, June 1st! It’s an interesting festival and I think all the children love it!
73. How old is Anna (不超过5个词)
_______________________________________________________________________________________________74. Why does Mike’s mother like Women’s Day (不超过15个词)
_______________________________________________________________________________________________75. What does Anna like to eat (不超过5个词)
_______________________________________________________________________________________________第四部分 写 (共两大题;满分25分)
IX. 单词拼写 (共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
根据首字母和汉语提示,完成下列单间的拼写,使句意明确,语言通顺。
76. Our classroom is very big but t ________ (他们的) classroom is really small.
77. W ________ (星期三) is the fourth day of the week.
78. I don’t think the Chinese and English t ________ (考试) are difficult for us.
79. Thank you for h ________ (帮助) me with my math.
80. My last class always f ________ (完成) at five in the afternoon.
X. 书面表达 (共1小题;满分20分)
假如你是Mike,请你根据以下内容和要求以 “My Family” 为题,写一篇英语短文,介绍自己的家人。
Name: Mike From: America Age: 12 Family member (家庭成员): I (student); father (doctor); mother (teacher); cousin (student) ……
写作要求:
1. 包含以上所有要点,可适当发挥,使行文连贯;
2. 语篇完整,语句通顺,语法正确,书写规范;
3. 文中不得出现题目要求之外的人名、校名以及透露个人信息的地名,否则不予以评分;
4. 60-80词,开头已给出,不计入总词数。
My Family
Hello, everyone! My name is Mike.
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________七年级英语参考答案
I-IV. 听力部分 (共20小题;每小题1分,满分20分)
1. A 2. C 3. B 4. B 5. C 6. B 7. B 8. A 9. C 10. C
11. C 12. B 13. B 14. A 15. C
16. 26/Twenty-six. 17. volleyball 18. watches 19. store 20. relaxing
V. 单项选择 (共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
21. B 22. C 23. D 24. A 25. B 26. B 27. C 28. A 29. D 30. B
VI. 完形填空 (共20小题;每小题1分,满分20分)
31. C 32. A 33. B 34. A 35. C 36. B 37. B 38. D 39. C 40. D
41. B 42. A 43. C 44. D 45. C 46. A 47. A 48. D 49. B 50. C
VII. 补全对话 (共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
51. B 52. E 53. C 54. F 55. A
VII. 阅读理解 (共20小题;每小题2分,满分40分)
56. B 57. D 58. C 59. D 60. C 61. B 62. C 63. B 64. B 65. D
66. B 67. C 68. B 69. C 70. D 71. C 72. D
73. She is eleven.
74. Because she can have a good rest, eat some nice food and watch movies.
75. Moon cakes.
(其它符合文章意思的答案也可以)
IX. 单词拼写 (共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
76. their 77. Wednesday 78. tests 79. helping 80. finishes
X. 书面表达 (共1小题;满分20分)
My Family
Hello, everyone! My name is Mike. I am twelve years old. I am a student.
My father is a doctor in a big hospital. He is forty-one. My mother is a teacher. She can speak English. She is thirty-eight.
I have no brothers or sisters, but I have cousins. My father has a sister. She is thirty-six. She is a nurse. She looks young. My mother has a brother. He is twenty-five. He is a cook.
I love them and they love me too. We are a happy family.

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