陕西省汉中市2022-2023学年高二下学期期末考试英语试题(Word版无答案,无听力音频及听力原文)

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陕西省汉中市2022-2023学年高二下学期期末考试英语试题(Word版无答案,无听力音频及听力原文)

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汉中市2022-2023学年高二下学期期末考试
英语试卷
考生注意:
1.本试卷共150分,考试时间120分钟。
2.请将各题答案填写在答题卡上。
第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分)
做题时,先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后,你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例:How much is the shirt
A. 19.15. B. 9.18. C. 9.15.
答案是C。
1. What's John doing now
A. Playing football. B. Watching TV. C. Studying.
2. Where is the woman's grandma now
A. In the hospital. B. In a hotel. C. At home.
3. Where is the woman going next
A. To her friend Simon's house.
B. To a movie theater.
C. To a snack bar.
4. How does the man find the restaurant
A. Cheap. B. Wonderful. C. Unworthy.
5. What is the man going to do next
A. Prepare for an interview.
B. Talk to his neighbor.
C. Turn off the radio.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。
6. Why is the man going to Hawaii
A. To attend a wedding.
B. To visit his cousin.
C. To go on a business trip.
7. Where is the woman going this summer
A. To Italy. B. To Egypt. C. To Hawaii.
听第7段材料,回答第8、9题。
8. How far away is the bank
A. Forty blocks away. B. Fourteen blocks away. C. Thirteen blocks away.
9. Which of the following does the man choose to take
A. Streetcar B-102. B. Bus No, 104. C. Streetcar B-201.
听第8段材料,回答第10至12题。
10. When does the woman have to hand in her paper
A. This afternoon. B. Tomorrow. C. In a couple of days.
11. What is the woman having trouble with
A. Giving more thoughts. B. Starting her paper. C. Ending her paper.
12. How will the man help the woman
A. By reading what she has written.
B. By showing her some examples.
C. By correcting her mistakes.
听第9段材料,回答第13至16题。
13. Why did the man pick up a book
A. He found it for work. B. He needed a gift. C. He wanted to kill time.
14. What time is it now
A. 8:00 a. m. B. 9:00 a. m. C. 9:30 a. m.
15. What is the woman going to do next
A. Help the man fix the lights.
B. Call the phone company.
C. Wait for her husband.
16. Where did the man's brother get the cat
A. Outside his mother's house.
B. From a pet store.
C. Online.
听第10段材料,回答第17至20题。
17. How long did the speaker work a day
A. For 7 hours. B. For 9 hours. C. For 12 hours.
18. What was interesting in his work according to the speaker
A. Introducing tourists delicious food.
B. Meeting interesting passengers.
C. Taking different people to restaurants.
19. Which trip brought the speaker the most money
A. The one to the airport.
B. The one to the club.
C. The one to the theatre.
20. Why did the speaker give up the job
A. He was tired.
B. The traffic jams bothered him.
C. Some passengers weren't nice.
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分40分)
第一部分(共15小题;每小题2分,满分30分)
阅读下列短文,从每题说给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出最佳选项。
A
Down syndrome(唐氏综合征)changes the course of the individual's development and causes learning disabilities. But this doesn't mean people with Down syndrome are not capable of being successful in life.
Karen Gaffney
She is the first person with Down syndrome to complete a relay swim of the English Channel. She is also a noteworthy(显著的)individual for being the first person with Down syndrome to be awarded an honorary doctor's degree. Karen serves as the president of the Karen Gaffney Foundation of Portland. The organization is dedicated to helping those who have Down syndrome.
Madeline Stuart
She is an Australian model with this disorder. She is responsible for changing the face of the modeling industry. She's walked in New York Fashion Week, Paris Fashion Week and London Fashion Week, despite having Down syndrome. Madeline is credited as being the world's first supermodel with Down syndrome.
Tommy Jessop
He is noteworthy for being one of the first Down syndrome actors to star in a prime-time(黄金时段)BBC drama. On top of acting in movies, Tommy has played many parts in theater. such as the role of Hamlet. He has won several Best Actor Awards and received an honourable mention for his acting talent from the 17th European Film Festival Koszalin, Poland.
Collette Divitto
She is responsible for founding Collettey's Cookies, a cookie company based in Boston. After failing to find a job for 2 years, Collette was inspired by her friends to open her own business, which is still doing well. Collettey's Cookies employs around 20 people and about half of them are people with disabilities. She hopes to help create more jobs for people with disabilities.
21. Who went the furthest academically
A. Karen Gaffney. B. Tommy Jessop.
C. Madeline Stuart. D. Collette Divitto.
22. What do we know about Madeline Stuart
A. She set up Collettey's Cookies.
B. She won several Best Actor Awards.
C. She completed a relay swim of the English Channel.
D. She is the world's first supermodel with Down syndrome.
23. Where is the text most likely from
A. A review on Hollywood films. B. A fashion magazine.
C. A book of inspirational stories. D. A textbook on mathematics.
B
Sam was a hardworking man who delivered bread as a living to support his wife and three children. He spent all his evenings after work attending classes, hoping to improve himself to find a better-paying job.
Except for Sundays, Sam hardly ate a meal together with his family. He worked and studied very hard because he wanted to provide his family with a better life. Whenever the family complained that he was not spending enough time with them, he reasoned that he was doing all this for them.
The day came when the examination results were announced. To his joy, Sam passed with an impressive performance! Soon after, he was offered a better job which paid handsomely. Sam could now afford to provide his family with life's little luxuries like nice clothing, fine food and a vacation abroad. He continued to work very hard, hoping to be promoted to the position of manager. To make himself a worthy candidate for the promotion, he registered another course in an open university. Sam's hard work paid off and he was promoted. Delightedly, he decided to hire a maid to relieve his wife from her domestic tasks. He also felt that their three-room flat was no longer big enough. It would be nice for his family to be able to enjoy the facilities and comfort of a larger apartment.
Sam resolved to further his studies and work at being promoted again. The family still did not get to see him much of the time, Sometimes Sam had to work on Sundays entertaining clients. As expected, Sam's hard work paid off again and he bought a beautiful apartment with amazing scenery overlooking the coast.
From then on, he was able to devote more time to his family. It was time for him to enjoy the fruits of his labor finally.
24. Why did Sam's family complain to him
A. He failed to buy a large flat. B. He worked as a deliveryman.
C. He could make too little money. D. He was too busy to accompany them.
25. What is the third paragraph mainly about
A. How Sam achieved his life success.
B. Why hard work was so important.
C. What Sam provided for his family.
D. When Sam bought the big apartment.
26. Which of the following best describes Sam
A. Caring and modest. B. Ambitious and responsible.
C. Optimistic and generous. D. Hardworking and humorous.
27. What message does the author seem to convey in the text
A. Well begun is half done.
B. To know oneself is true knowledge.
C. Love and hard work bring luck.
D. Follow your course, and let people talk.
C
Sharing could be giving somebody a gift, helping someone by donating some money, sharing your food with a poor and hungry person. It can simply mean giving some time to help others.
When you receive something from others, it makes you happy, On the other hand, when you give something to others, it makes both you and the receiver happy. From the outside, sharing seems to give away a part of your time, resource or space to others. But when you share something with others, you can get all kinds of positivities inside and outside yourself. It can enhance your mood, reduce your stress level, decrease your blood pressure, and have a long-term effect on your life and longevity(长寿).
Sharing makes you bigger inside and in your society as well. Take knowledge and love for example, the more you share, the more you get. If you make sharing a part of your life and practice it in your daily life, you will get more out of your life directly or indirectly, like help, support, love, cooperation, and a lot more from others even at a time when you are not expecting it. This is why it makes you bigger and happier when you share something with others.
We are living in a global village where each one of us is related to each other in some way or other. When you volunteer, you give away your time or wealth or knowledge to a person or a group of people. You will realize that you are not alone in the big world. As a result, you won't feel left out in your society. Sharing advances cooperation and social connection. To live harmoniously, we should learn and practice sharing our life with others. Sharing could be one of the ways to build an ideal society.
So, what are you waiting for Start giving a part of yourself to others and see how your life becomes more beautiful, positive, lovely and satisfying. Giving makes you better, bigger, and brighter inside you, in your society, and even in the entire global village.
28. What can be learned about sharing from paragraph 2
A. It only benefits the receivers.
B. It takes a lot of time and energy.
C. It has nothing to do with emotion.
D. It is good for physical and mental health.
29. Why does the author mention knowledge and love in paragraph 3
A. To say what is important in life.
B. To tell us how to find happiness.
C. To remind us how to live happily.
D. To show sharing makes us better.
30. What makes volunteering very important in today's world
A. Great dependence on each other.
B. Highly developed technology.
C. Greatly improved awareness.
D. Convenient means of transportation.
31. What is the main purpose of the text
A. To give the definition of sharing.
B. To introduce an instructive book.
C. To inspire the readers to share.
D. To make others better and happier.
D
Elephants can no longer maintain themselves with the small amounts of food they find in forest areas and parks. They come into the fields abutting their nature reserves and eat the crops. Dozens of elephants are getting wiped out by farmers every year. One solution that has been proposed is electric fencing but that is extremely expensive and the electricity itself can kill the elephant and every other animal. A much better idea has been put forward.
Elephants are frightened of bees. Bees enter and attack their sensitive trunks inside, causing a pain that elephants never forget. Generations of elephants have learned to associate bees with pain and they even run away when they hear the sound of the bees. Beehive fences were invented in 2002 when scientists from the Save the Elephants discovered that elephants avoided trees with beehives. University of Oxford zoologist Lucy King designed the fence and it was tried out in 2008 in Kenya.
Supported by Save the Elephants, University of Oxford, and Disney's Animal Kingdom, scientific studies concerning the theme by Lucy King have led to the establishment of a project called The Elephants and Bees Project, which teaches farmers how to build beehive fencing near fields to prevent elephants entering. More than ten African countries have now followed suit.
The bees pollinate(授粉)farmers' crops and the nearby plants, providing an ecological and economic boost to the surrounding area. Elephants perform essential services like digging waterholes in dry river beds, spreading hundreds of fruit tree species with their dung which also feeds dozens of insects and small animal species, and making forest paths that act as firebreaks.
And even more exciting, the raw honey is sold by the farmers to markets all over the world. Beehive fences are the first fences that have been invented to make the farmers more money than what it costs to maintain the fence.
Elephants could bring in a lot of eco-tourism money. Every year, Africa has calculated that each elephant brings in nearly $ 23,000 in tourism.
All this helps the ecology of the region and the additional income of beehives gives farmers even more motive to keep the elephants alive.
32. What does the underlined word "abutting" in paragraph 1 mean
A. Different from. B. Far from. C. Similar to. D. Next to.
33. How did scientists come up with the idea for beehive fences
A. By observation. B. From experts.
C. From books. D. By experiments.
34. What is the author's attitude towards beehive fences
A. Doubtful. B. Favorable. C. Unclear. D. Intolerant.
35. What is the best title of the text
A. The bees and the function of the elephants
B. Measures to save elephants from extinction
C. An advantageous solution to save elephants
D. The history of an organization to save elephants
第二节(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
How to create an indoor garden
If you're looking for a way to brighten up your home, consider creating an indoor garden. 36 We will share some basic tips on how to make yours look its best.
Know the type of plants you want
Deciding is probably the hardest part when it comes to creating an indoor garden because there are just so many plants to choose from. Start by thinking about what type of plants you want.
37 Or maybe something that doesn't need much attention or effort Once you have an idea of the type of plant you want, you can start narrowing down your options.
Get the right potting soil and containers
Now that you know what type of plants you want, it's time to get the right potting soil and containers. Make sure to get a potting mix that is specifically designed for indoor plants. 38 As for containers, you can really use anything as long as it has drainage(排水)holes.
Choose a bright location
Once you have your plants and pots, it's time to choose a location for your indoor garden. 39 This will help your plants grow and stay healthy. If you don't have a spot that gets a lot of light, you can always use artificial lighting like grow lights. 40
In addition to watering, you'll also need to fertilize your plants about once a month. This will help them grow and stay healthy. Just be sure to follow the instructions on the package. Don't overdo it.
A. Give fertiliser monthly.
B. How exactly can we make one
C. Follow the instruction correctly.
D. But don't worry, we're here to help.
E. This will help your plants grow strong.
F. Do you want something that will flower
G. Look for a spot in your home that gets a lot of natural light.
第三部分 语言知识运用(共两节,满分45分)
第一节(共20小题;每小题1.5分,满分30分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Ada Lovelace was the daughter of a romantic poet, Lord Byron. She earned her place in history as the first computer 41 —a full century before today's computers 42 . And she became an idol(偶像)for women in 43 industry today. She couldn't have done it without British mathematician Charles Babbage. Their 44 started in the early 1830s. Babbage had 45 plans for a detailed and complicated machine he called the Difference Engine— 46 , a giant mechanical calculator.
In the middle of his work on it, Ada4 47 Babbage at a party. It was mathematical 48 at first sight. The two struck up a working relationship and eventually close friendship that would 49 until Ada's death. Babbage 50 his Difference Engine to brainstorm a new Analytical Engine. He then 51 an incomplete prototype(雏形)of this machine. Ada saw that engine's true 52 . The Analytical Engine was more than a 53 . When the user 54 its commands, the engine could 55 nearly any mathematical task ordered. Ada even wrote instructions for 56 a complicated math problem. Many 57 would later consider those as the first computer program and Ada as the 58 programmer. The second Tuesday in October has become Ada Lovelace Day, on which the 59 of women to science, technology, engineering, and mathematics are 60 .
41. A. tutor B. programmer C. saleswoman D. accountant
42. A. broke down B. died out C. came out D. showed off
43. A. computer B. tourist C. vehicle D. agriculture
44. A. settlement B. conflict C. argument D. cooperation
45. A. shut down B. slowed down C. followed up D. drawn up
46. A. actually B. widely C. briefly D. carefully
47. A. inquired B. met C. criticised D. accepted
48. A. love B. mistake C. problem D. addiction
49. A. form B. last C. matter D. count
50. A. repaired B. broke C. used D. damaged
51. A. bought B. restored C. represented D. showed
52. A. context B. potential C. bonus D. damage
53. A. dreamer B. user C. teacher D. calculator
54. A. obeyed B. stopped C. needed D. sent
55. A. perform B. input C. quit D. study
56. A. discovering B. creating C. solving D. raising
57. A. artists B. historians C. students D. musicians
58. A. first B. friendly C. smart D. familiar
59. A. contribution B. humor C. beauty D. secret
60. A. integrated B. postponed C. honored D. adopted
第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Tang suit often refers to a type of Chinese jackets. The word of Tang suit was created by the overseas Chinese people.
A Tang suit has two 61 (vary)in Chinese culture, which are 62 (striking)different from each other in style. One refers to the real Tang-era clothes developing from Hanfu, 63 (give)a free and easy and elegant impression. 64 other refers to the Manchu male's jacket developing from magua of the Qing Dynasty, and it is made by absorbing a Western-style suit cutting method. A typical design of a Tang suit employs the Chinese characters, such as Fu and Shou 65 (express)good fortune and best wishes, 66 is extremely popular among the Chinese people.
Tang suit 67 (have)a great influence on the clothing styles of other countries up till now. The Japanese kimono(和服)is made 68 the basis of pao of the Tang Dynasty, and it has become the national clothing of Japan. As an essential part of 69 (tradition)Chinese culture, Tang suits 70 (wear)by overseas Chinese people during the Spring Festival each year, appealing to many foreigners to wear them. More and more young Chinese people are inclined to wear Tang suits instead of Western-style suits and dresses on their big days.
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分35分)
第一节 短文改错(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文,请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误,每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。
增加:在缺词处加一个漏字符号(∧),并在其下面写出该加的词。
删除:把多余的词用斜线(\)划掉。
修改:在错的词下划一横线,并在该词下面写出修改后的词。
注意:1.每处错误及其修改均仅限一词;
2.只允许修改10处,多者(从第11处起)不计分。
It is quite important for parents and children to spend quality time together regular. It helps build a close and health relationship between them. On the one hand, spending time with parents give children the impression that their parents care about them. This can create a sense of security, that is particularly important for our overall development. On the other hand, it allows parents to know better about their children, include their interests and concerns. Besides, parents can also educate their children in case if they make mistakes. All in all, parents' love and care can't replaced by anything. But no matter how busy parents are, never forgot to set aside some time for children.
第二节 书面表达(满分25分)
假定你是李华,你报名参加了国外的一项夏令营活动,下个星期要进行面试。请你用英语给交换生James写一封邮件,咨询面试技巧,内容包括:
1.写信目的;
2.描述现状;
3.期待回复。
注意:
1.词数100左右;
2.可以适当增加细节,以使行文连贯。

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