资源简介

秘密★启用前
山西省三重教育联盟2023-2024学年高三上学期9月联考
英语试题
【注意事项】
1.本试卷全卷满分150分，考试时间120分钟。
2.答题前，考生务必将自己的姓名、班级、考号用0.5毫米的黑色墨水签字笔填写在答题卡上，并检查条形码粘贴是否正确。
3.选择题使用2B铅笔填涂在答题卡对应题目标号的位置上，填空题和解答题必须用0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔书写在答题卡对应框内，超出答题区域书写的答案无效；在草稿纸、试题卷上答题无效。
第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分)
第一节(共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1.What will the speakers do next
A.Rest at home. B.Have some coffee. C.Do more shopping
2.Where are the speakers most probably now
A.In a car. B.On a bus. C. On a train.
3.What is the woman most probably
A.A tour guide. B.A waitress. C. A bus conductor.
4. What does John like doing in his spare time
A.Listening to music. B. Doing exercise. C.Watching TV.
5. How will the man go to the movies
A.By car. B.By bus. C.On foot.
第二节(共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6至7题。
6.Why did Amy go to the contest
A.To have some fun. B.To win some money. C.To prove her cooking skills.
7.How does Amy most probably feel now
A.Regretful. B.Upset. C.Happy.
听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。
8.When did the old lady begin to play video games
A.Thirty years ago. B.Forty years ago. C.Fifty years ago.
9.What does the grandson do for the old lady
A.He takes videos. B.He downloads games. C. He collects reviews.
10.What does the woman ask Mike to do
A.Do his homework. B.Make videos himself. C.Tell her more about the lady.
听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。
11.What did the woman do this morning
A.She visited a bookstore.
B. She read a book to her kid.
C.She searched for books online.
12.What was Priya Iyer's purpose of building the website
A.To sell books.
B.To help children read more.
C.To recommend books to people of all ages.
13.What is the woman's attitude toward the website
A.Disappointed. B.Worried. C.Interested.
听第9段材料，回答第14至17题。
14.Who are Grigori Lup's regular customers
A.Actors. B.Housewives. C.Businessmen.
15.Why did Grigori Lup make such shoes
A. To meet his business partners' need.
B.To make people keep social distance.
C. To become a social media influence.
16.What happened after Grigori Lup posted pictures on the social media
A.He was laughed at by other shoemakers.
B. He got some orders around the world.
C. He was asked to stop making shoes.
17. How long does it take Grigori Lup to make such a pair of shoes
A.1.5 days. B.2 days. C.3 days.
听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。
18.Why was Farmers' Almanac started
A.To record big events in the natural world.
B.To make language learners learn better.
C. To help farmers grow crops better.
19.What was Richard Lederer probably good at
A. Sailing at the sea. B.Predicting the weather. C. Explaining expressions.
20.What is the speaker mainly talking about
A. An old publication.
B. The origin of an idiom.
C.Sailors' tough life in the past.
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节，满分50分)
第一节 (共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A
While traveling in New York,it's necessary for you to know about its public transport system and its fares.
On our website, you can find out how much it costs to ride the subway, bus, Long Island Rail Road,and Metro-North in the New York area.
★ Subways and buses
●Fare for most riders on subways and local, limited, and Select Bus Service buses:$2.85.
●Express buses cost $6.85.
More information about subway and bus fares
●Riding the subway costs $2.85 for most riders. People with disabilities or who are 65 or older are qualified for a reduced fare.
●An unlimited ride Metro Card can save your money. It gives you unlimited rides for a certain length of time.
●Metro Cards cost $1.All cards except for the Single Ride card are refillable (可充值的).
●Up to three children under 44 inches tall ride for free when they are with a fare-paying adult.
●You pay the fare at turnstiles(旋转闸门) before you aboard the train. You don't have to do anything afterwards.
★ Railroads: LIRR (Long Island Rail Road) and Metro-North
●Fares vary based on when and where you are travelling.
●Buying tickets on your phone is the most convenient option.
★ More information about railroad fares
●Peak(高峰的) fares are charged during business rush hours on any weekday train scheduled to arrive in New York City terminals between 6 a.m. and 10 a.m. or depart New York City terminals between 4 p.m.and 8 p.m. On Metro-North trains, peak fares also apply to travel on any weekday train that leaves Grand Central Station between 6 a.m.and 9 a.m.
●Off-peak fares are charged at all other times on weekdays, all day on Saturday and Sunday, and on holidays.
●Use our trip planner to find fare information.Get schedules and directions and see whether a trip is during peak or off-peak hours.
21.How much might a subway trip cost a 68-year-old man with two children under 44 inches tall
A.$2.85. B.$6.85. C.$2.35. D.$5.70.
22. For what train trip are peak fares charged
A.A weekday train leaving Grand Central Station at 10 pm.
B.A weekday train leaving Grand Central Station at 7 am.
C.A weekday train departing New York City terminals at 9 pm.
D.A weekday train departing New York City terminals at 8:30 am.
23.Why should people read the trip planner
A.To know special offers. B.To leave your advice.
C.To check fare information. D. To book a train ticket.
B
Without a mobile phone for a day is like getting lost in the big world. Nowadays people tend to check whether their mobile phones receive any information or surf the Internet anywhere and anytime.
Studies estimate that we pick up our smartphones between 58 and 96 times a day. If my phone is by my side, then I'm checking it all the time. Last year, I decided to make a change: I signed up for the Phone Breakup Challenge. The goal isn't to get rid of your phone, but to develop a more intentional (刻意的) way of using it.
The first few days were easy enough. Before unlocking my phone, I must answer three questions first —"What for Why now What else ". I kept the questions on my lock screen. On Day 7, I had lunch without my phone. It was fine. I realized that, by always having my phone on hand, I was preventing myself from sitting still with my thoughts.
One of the biggest lessons of the challenge was that willpower wasn't enough, but having multiple barriers to make it less attractive and accessible did help. Day 20 was the long-awaited 24-hour no-phone period. It was much easier not to check my phone when it was totally off instead of in another room.I noticed that a feeling of calm had spread within me.
It's true that phones are fun and filled with my favorite people. There's nothing wrong with mindless distraction. The problem is when that becomes a habit. Not checking my phone all the time helped reduce that annoying habit of texting and talking at the same time or pulling out my phone when being with someone I love hanging out with.
Now, I am pleased to see I really do use my phone less. When I get home, I leave my phone in my bag by the door instead of bringing it from room to room. I now also enjoy activities that I used to run out of time for,like going for neighborhood walks or trying new recipes.
24.Why did the author take part in the Phone Breakup Challenge
A. To lead a life without using a phone.
B. To improve her phone-using habit.
C.To do research about the use of phones.
D. To take her attention away from social media.
25.What can we learn about the author's first few days of the challenge
A. She had a hard time ignoring her phone.
B.She turned her phone off to avoid using it.
C. She suffered loneliness without her phone.
D. She enjoyed keeping her phone away.
26.According to the author, what is a better way to separate ourselves from our phone
A. Signing up for more similar challenges.
B. Finding fun from other activities.
C.Making it hard to access it.
D.Building strong willpower.
27.Which would be the best title for the passage
A.Mindless distraction, a part of our lives
B.Technology, a barrier to concentration
C.Reducing screen time can be easy
D.Spending less time on the phone benefits us
C
Unlocking the meaning behind a work of art is one of the many joys of viewing and collecting. Looking at and comprehending art is all about taking the time to view, identify and think.
Viewing the art seems like an obvious first step, but it's more than quickly glancing at the art and drawing a conclusion. Before stepping back and taking the artwork in, take a moment to identify the artwork's basic qualities. All of the basic qualities are elements the artist chose when designing the artwork, so they need consideration.
Aside from the visual elements, knowing when or how the artwork was made shows more context.The famous Guernica (1937) by Pablo Picasso is a sight to behold (看) on its own, but knowing Picasso created the painting in response to the bombing of the town of Guernica during the Spanish Civil War helps to understand its antiwar symbolism.
Consider what the subjects or symbols meant to the artist when they created the artwork. What do the colors say about the artist, and how do they apply to the subjects in the art Art like the luminous (明亮的) paintings of Thomas Kinkade is not as difficult to interpret. In the case of more abstract art, there may not be literal descriptions of subjects or ideas, and therefore require a bit more thought.
The idea of applying these techniques to everything in a gallery is like going to a restaurant and eating every dish in one sitting. Doing so will probably leave you feeling overstuffed (过度填塞的).Instead, find what you like and enjoy it, and know that if you want to try something different, it is available to you. For instance, if you love photorealism but dislike abstract art, skip the abstract. Keeping an open mind,however, is always encouraged, so don't be afraid to stop and observe something outside of your tastes.
Next time you are admiring a work of art, keep these techniques in mind, and its meaning may unfold before your eyes.
28.What's important when you're viewing the art
A.Considering the artwork's basic qualities.
B.Stepping back and taking the artwork in.
C.Learning how to draw a conclusion.
D. Knowing when or how the artwork was made.
29.What does the author mainly advise us to do in paragraph 3
A. Go against wars. B. Stay away from wars.
C.Identify the art and the artist. D.Learn the background as well.
30.What does the author think about Thomas Kinkade's paintings
A. They are of great value.
B. They are too abstract to understand.
C.They are beyond people's imagination.
D.They can be understood without much difficulty.
31.What is the best title for the text
A.How to Appreciate Art. B.How to Identify Art
C. When to Take Up Art. D. When to Accept Art
D
Social media can be a powerful communication tool for employees, helping them to collaborate, share ideas and solve problems. Research has shown that 82% of employees think social media can improve work relationships and 60% believe it can support decision-making processes. These beliefs contribute to a majority of workers connecting with colleagues on social media, even during work hours.
Employers typically worry that social media is a productivity killer; more than half of U.S.employers reportedly block access to social media at work. In my research with 277 employees of a healthcare organization I found these concerns to be misguided. Social media doesn't reduce productivity nearly asmuch as it kills employee retention(保留，保持).
In the first part of the study I surveyed the employees about why and how they used platforms like Facebook, Twitter, or Linked In. Respondents were then asked about their work behaviors, including whether they felt motivated in their jobs and showed initiative at work. I found employees who engage in online social interactions with co-workers through social media blogs tend to be more motivated and come up with innovative ideas. But when employees interact with individuals outside the organization,they are less motivated and show less initiative.
In the second part of the study I found 76% of employees using social media for work took an interest in other organizations they found on social media. When I examined how respondents expressed openness to new careers and employers, I found that they engaged in some key activities including researching new organizations and making new work connections.
These findings present a dilemma for managers: employees using social media at work are more engaged and more productive, but they are also more likely to leave your company. Managers should implement solutions that neutralize the retention risk caused by social media.
They can create social media groups in which employees will be more likely to collaborate and less likely to share withdrawal intentions or discussions about external job opportunities. Managers can also use social media to directly reduce turnover(跳槽) intentions, by recognizing employees' accomplishments and giving visibility to employees' success stories.
32.What does previous research about social media reveal
A.Most employees think positively of it.
B.It improves employees' work efficiency.
C.It enables employees to form connections.
D. Employees spend much of their work time on it.
33.What did the author's own research find about social media
A.It influences employees' work negatively.
B. It does much harm to employee loyalty.
C. It kills employees' motivation for work.
D.It affects employers' decision-making.
34.What did the author find in his study about the effect of online social interactions
A.It differs from employee to employee.
B. It tends to vary with the platform used.
C.It has much to do with whom employees interact with.
D.It is hard to measure when employees interact with outsiders.
35.What does the author suggest managers do to neutralize the retention risk
A.Give promotions to employees for their accomplishments.
B.Create opportunities for employees to share success stories.
C. Acknowledge employees' achievements through social media.
D.Encourage employees to increase their visibility on social media.
第二节(共5小题；每小题2.5分，共12.5分)
根据短文内容，从短文后的七个选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Everyone is born with the ability to learn. There are normally two types of learning in our daily life and study—active learning and passive learning. __36__This will help you develop a habit of active learning gradually.
__37__ I bet that no one sits down to read with the purpose of not getting the contents. But I'm sure that some of you have been in a situation, probably more than once, where you read an assignment,closed the book and thought"what the world was about". __38__Active readers, on the other hand, set goals and check their understanding as they read. When they finish, they can explain the main points and know that they've seen what they have read.
Active learners think about information deeply and critically. Being thoughtful is an important part of active learning, because it means that you are analyzing and absorbing the information. __39__ For instance, you may make connections between the new information and what you already know, identify concepts that you may not understand very well, or evaluate the importance of what you are reading. An active learner considers constantly in this way. In contrast, passive learners may read the text and listen to lectures and even understand most of what is read and heard. __40__
All in all, behavior of an active learner and a passive one varies greatly. Equipping yourself with study strategies of active learners may eventually help you become one of them.
A.You'd better know how they differ from each other.
B. Passive learners won't be strict with themselves.
C.That is to say, you are processing what you read.
D.However, that important step of reflecting on it is not taken.
E.When interacting with the text in this way, you are doing passively.
F. Active learners accept much of the responsibility for learning.
G. Active learners study with the purpose of grasping and memorizing information.
第三部分：语言运用(共两节，满分30分)
第一节(共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分)
Coffee shops are cool, but in Wilmington, Bitty & Beau's Coffee enjoys a good reputation for its warmth.
At the heart of the shop's popularity is its__41__staff: Almost everyone has an intellectual (智力的)or developmental disability.
The coffee shop was opened in 2016 by Amy Wright and her husband, __42__by two of her four children Beau and Bitty,who have Down syndrome(唐氏症).
When the couple discovered that most people with intellectual and developmental disabilities could never find an employer who would even give them a(n) __43__, they resolved to do something about it."
It __44__me like a flash of lightning: a coffee shop!"Wright said."It would be the perfect environment for bringing people together. Seeing the staff __45__customers at the door, preparing food,serving orders and cleaning tables, people would realize how __46__ they are."
When the shop opened, it __47__had lines out the door. National press attention __48__, and six months later, it had to move to a __49__ space.
Today, the store employs 40 people with disabilities, who are really good at their jobs.
What makes Amy most proud is the__50__ it has built in the community."Every day, people say,'You've made my day. Thank you.'That's a feeling of happiness most people don't get elsewhere, and it's what __51__people back here," she said."This is a place where people can __52__ with those with disabilities and realize how much more alike we are than different. It's __53__a cup of coffee. It's a human rights movement. It's given our employees the respect and a sense of being __54__that they deserve. For many employees, it's their first job, and their __55__ fills the air."
41.A.professional 42.A.accompanied 43.A.interview 44. A.dawned on 45.A. greeting 46.A.competent 47.A.exactly 48.A.agreed 49.A.farther 50.A.background 51.A.holds 52.A.interact 53.A.nothing but 54.A.admired 55.A.ambition B.unique B.controlled B.appointment B.jumped at B.observing B. generous B.finally B.continued B.larger B.balance B.draws B.discuss B.far from B.valued B.humor C.active C.impressed C.reason C.occurred to C. gathering C. reliable C.immediately C.responded C.quieter C.bridge C.forces C.play C.above all C.separated C.joy D.talented D.inspired D.invitation D.fell on D.finding D.considerate D.obviously D.followed D.nearer D.tradition D.calls D.work D.more than D.protected D. patience
第二节(共10小题；每小题1.5分，共15分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Tourists taking a holiday in the Indonesian island of Bali are facing a new $14-per- person tax when they arrive on the holiday island from next year. But this is a green tax, __56__Bali Governor Wayan Koster has been working on for months, and which __57__ (design) to help clean up the island's natural environment,and with good reason, too. Indonesia is drowning in plastics. Recycling is not one of the country's strong points. __58__ is not uncommon to be offered many more plastic bags than one could ever need when __59__(visit) supermarkets and shopping malls. However, slowly, things are starting to change for 60better. Back in 2016, the medium-sized city of Banjarmasin __61__ (ban) single-use plastic bags. The city of Bog or followed suit in 2018. A few __62__ (month)ago, Koster announced a plan that would not only ban single-use plastic bags from supermarkets and convenience stores, __63__plastic bags and straws across the island. The regulation will come __64__full effect next month."We received a fast and quick response from the Balinese people. Not only positive responses from the Balinese, we received good responses from the __65__ (centre)government, other local governments and even from overseas." Koster told the Sydney Morning Herald this week during an interview.
第四部分写作(共两节，满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
假设你是红星中学高三“传统文化社”社长李华。你校国际部留学生Jim邀请你参加他们组织的“China Day”活动并做展示。请你用英语给他写一封电子邮件，内容包括：
1.接受邀请并表示感谢；
2.你展示的内容及理由。
注意：
1.词数80左右；
2.开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数。
Dear Jim,
______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours
Li Hua
第二节(满分25分)
阅读下面短文，根据所给情节和所给段落开头语进行续写，使之构成一个完整的短文。
When I was little, I lived in a house with a beautiful garden full of all kinds of flowers, and roses are the most beautiful of them. There was nothing I enjoyed more than sitting in the garden with my mother as she read stories to me. When I was in primary school and old enough to read, I enjoyed reading stories aloud to her.
I will never forget one day when I was in the third grade. I had been picked to be the princess in the school play, and for weeks my mother had rehearsed(排练)my lines so hard with me. But no matter how easily I acted at home, as soon as I stepped on stage, every word disappeared from my head. Finally,my teacher took me aside. She explained that she had written a narrator's(旁白) part to the play, and asked me to change roles. Her words, kindly expressed, still hurt, especially when I saw my part go to another girl.
I didn't tell my mother what had happened when I went home after school that day. But she sensed my pain. Instead of suggesting we practice my lines, she asked if I wanted to take a walk in the garden.
It was May and roses were blossoming and, under the trees, we could also see yellow dandelions(蒲公英)in the grass, as if a painter had painted our garden with red, yellow and green. I watched my mother casually bend down by one dandelion."I think I'm going to dig up all these weeds," she said,pulling it up by its roots."From now on, we'll have only roses in this garden."
"But I like dandelions," I protested."All flowers are beautiful—even dandelions."
My mother looked at me seriously."Yes, every flower is beautiful in its own way, isn't it " She asked thoughtfully. I nodded, pleased that I had won her over."And that is true of people too," she added."Not everyone can be a princess, but there is no shame in that." Relieved that she had guessed my pain, I started to cry as I told her what had happened. She listened and smiled reassuringly.
注意：
1.续写的词数应为150左右；
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
"But you will be a beautiful narrator,"she said.__________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
After the play, I took home the flower._______________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
山西省三重教育联盟2023-2024学年高三上学期9月联考
英语试卷参考答案
听力1-5 BAABC 6-10 BCBAA 11-15 ABCAB 16-20 BBCCB
阅读理解21-25 CBCBD 26-30 CDADD 31-35 AABCC 36-40AGECD
完形填空41-45 BDACA46-50 ACDBC 51-55 BADBC
语法填空(满分15分，每小题1.5分)
56.which 57.is designed 58.It 59.visiting 60.the
61.banned 62.months 63.but 64.into 65.central
书面表达
第一节
Dear Jim,
I'm writing with great honor to accept your invitation to your "China Day" event. Thank you so much for offering me this precious opportunity to be part of it.
I'm thinking of presenting Chinese calligraphy. I will introduce and demonstrate the basic techniques of calligraphy, after which I would ask some audience to try writing some characters.
I choose this topic because it is a unique way to appreciate the beauty of Chinese characters and understand the essence of Chinese culture. Moreover, I think only when the audience get involved can they truly understand the beauty of Chinese culture.
How do you like this idea Tell me if you would like me to change. Best wishes to the event.
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节
参考范文
"But yow will be a beautiful narrator;"she said,"Every character on the stage is unique and important." Suddenly, I understood why my mother took me to the garden. As I made up my mind to be a good narrator, I started to practice my new role and gradually found the importance of it.On the school play day, I did an excellent job. As our play was to end, two strangers from the audience came to me. They gave me a bunch of flowers, which were, surprisingly, the yellow dandelions.
After the play, I took home the flower. I put them in a vase and admired them carefully. My mother came to me, put her hand on my shoulder and said,"They are so beautiful!" I smiled and nodded my pared with roses, dandelions are considered as ordinary flower. However,the beauty of every kind of flower is unique, which is similar to human beings. Individuals are different, but each can play their own roles in the society and prove their own value.
第一节
一、评分原则
1.本题总分为15分，按5个档次给分。
2.评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
3.词数少于60词的，从总分中减去2分。
4.评分时，应注意的主要内容为：时态、人称、内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的丰富性和准确性、上下文的连贯性、语言的得体性及应用文体裁格式。
5.拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面。评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
6.如书写较差，以至影响交际，将分数降低一个档次。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档(13—15分)
1.完全完成了试题规定的任务。
2.覆盖所有内容要点。
3.应用了较多的语法结构和词汇。
4.语法或词汇方面有些许错误，但为尽力使用较复杂结构或词汇所致。
5.有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。
6.完全达到了预期的写作目的。
第四档(10—12分)
1.完成了试题规定的任务。
2.虽漏掉一两个次重点，但覆盖所有主要内容。
3.运用的语法结构或词汇方面能满足任务的要求。
4.语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致。
5.应用简单的语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。
6.达到了预期的写作目的。
第三档(7—9分)
1.基本完成了试题规定的任务。
2.虽漏掉一些内容，但覆盖所有主要内容。
3.应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
4.有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解。
5.应用简单的语句间的连接成分，使全文内容连贯。
6.整体而言，基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档(4—6分)
1.未恰当完成试题规定的任务。
2.漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容。
3.语法结构单调，词汇知识有限。
4.有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响了对写作内容的理解。
5.较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺少连贯性。
6.信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
第一档(1—3分)
1.未完成试题规定的任务。
2.明显遗漏主要内容，写了一些无关内容，原因可能是未理解试题要求。
3.语法结构单调，词汇知识有限。
4.较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响对写作内容的理解。
5.缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯。
6.信息未能传达给读者。
不得分(0分)
未能传达给读者任何信息：内容太少，无法评判。所写内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。
说明：
1.内容要点可用不同方式表达；
2.应紧扣主题，可适当发挥。
第二节
一、评分原则
1.本题总分25分，按以下5个档次给分。
2.评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
3.评分时，应注意的主要内容为：与所给短文及段落开头语的衔接程度；内容的丰富性和创新性； 应用语法结构和词汇的丰富性和准确性；上下文的连贯性。
4.词数少于130的，从总分中减去2分。
5.拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面。评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
6.如书写较差，以至影响交际，将分数降低一个档次。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档(21—25分)
1.与所给短文融洽度高，与所提供各段落开头语衔接合理。
2.内容丰富。
3.有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使所续写短文结构紧凑。表达合理。
第四档(16—20分)
1.与所给短文融洽度较高，与段落开头衔接较为合理。
2.内容比较丰富。
3.比较有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使所续写短文结构紧凑。表达合理。
第三档(11—15分)
1.与所给短文关系较为密切，与段落开头有一定程度的衔接。
2.写出了若干有关内容。
3.应用简单的语句间的连接成分，使全文内容连贯。表达基本合理。
第二档(6—10分)
1.与所给短文有一定的关系，与段落开头有一定程度的衔接。
2.写出了一些有关内容。
3.较少使用语句间连接成分，全文内容缺少连贯性。表达不够合理。
第一档(1—5分)
1.与段落开头语衔接较差。
2.写出内容太少。
3.全文内容不连贯。表达不合理。
不得分(0分)白卷；内容太少，无法判断或所写内容与所提供内容无关。
答案详解
A篇
本文是一篇广告布告类阅读，主要介绍了纽约地铁、公交车和铁路等公共交通乘坐费用情况，还涉及地铁及公交费减免情况和铁路交通高峰期的时间和车费。
题目解答
21 C.数字计算题。根据More information ab out subway and bus fares部分中Riding the subway costs $ 2.85 for most riders. People with disabilities or who are 65 or older are qualified for a reduced fare(对大多数乘客来说，乘坐地铁的费用是2.85美元。残疾人士或65岁以上的老年人可享受优惠票价。) Up to three children under 44 inches tall ride for free when they are with a fare-paying adult (最多3名身高44英寸以下的儿童可以免费乘坐，只要他们有一个付费的成人陪伴。)可知，一位68岁男子带着身高44英寸以下的孩子需要付的车费低于$2.85。故选C.
22 B.细节理解题。根据More information about railroad fare部分中On Metro-North trains, peak fares also apply to travel on any week day train that leaves Grand Central Station between 6 am and 9 am(地铁北线列车的高峰票价也适用于工作日早上6点至9点之间从中央车站出发的任何列车。)可知，在上午七点离开Grand Central车站属于交通高峰期。故选B。
23 C.细节理解题。根据最后一段Use our trip planner to find fare information.Get schedules and directions and see whether a trip is during peak or off-peak hours.(使用我们的旅行计划来查找票价信息。了解行程和方向，看看旅行是在高峰时间还是非高峰时间。)可知，通过行程规划可以找到费用信息。故选C。
24.B由第一段最后一句可知，作者参加“不玩手机挑战”的目的不是摆脱手机，而是养成一种更有意识的使用习惯，故选B。
25.D由第二段"The first few days were easy enough."以及"It was fine."可知，在挑战刚开始的几天，作者感到轻松甚至是愉悦，享受远离手机的生活，故选D。
26.C由第三段第一句可知，要戒掉手机依赖，光靠意志力是不够的，但设置多重障碍使它变得不那么有吸引力、不那么触手可及是有用的，故选C。
27.D由最后一段可知，作者很高兴自己现在手机用得少了，有了更多时间享受生活，结合作者参加"不玩手机挑战”的目的和对习惯性看手机影响社交生活的描述，可推知选项D“少玩手机对我们有益”可概括文章主旨，故选D。
C篇
【语篇导读】本文是一篇说明文。文章介绍了如何欣赏一件艺术品以及真正理解其内涵的方法。
28.A细节理解题，根据第二段Before stepping back and taking the artwork in, take a moment to identify the artwork's basic qualities.可知，在欣赏艺术作品时识别艺术作品的基本品质是非常重要的。
29.D推理判断题。根据第三段可知，作者通过Picasso的例子，强调通过了解艺术作品的创作时间或创作方式可以帮助我们了解作品的来龙去脉。由此可推知，作者建议读者了解艺术作品的创作背景。
30.D细节理解题。根据第四段Art like the luminous(明亮的)paintings of Thomas Kinkade is not as difficult to interpret.可知，Thomas Kinkade的绘画作品并不难理解。
31.A标题归纳题。通读全文可知，文章主要讲述了了解艺术作品背后的意义是观赏和收藏艺术作品的众多乐趣之一，并给出了一些欣赏艺术作品的技巧。故A项最适合作为文章标题。
D篇
32.A根据题干关键词previous research about social media可以定位到第1段第2句。该题问之前关于社交媒体的研究揭示了什么。该句提到，研究表明，82%的员工认为社交媒体可以改善工作关系，60%的员工认为它能为决策过程提供支持。选项A“大多数雇员以对社交媒体持积极态度”与原文表述一致，为正确答案。
33.B根据题干关键词the author's own research可以定位到第2段最后一句。该题问关于社交媒体，作者自己的研究发现了什么。该句提到，社交媒体对工作效率的影响远不及对员工留任率的破坏力强。社交媒体对员工留任率有破坏力，说明它影响的是员工对企业的忠诚度。选项B“它极大地破坏了员工的忠诚度”与原文表述一致，为正确答案。
34.C根据题干关键词study和online social interactions可以定位到第3段。该题问关于在线社交互动的影响，作者在他的研究中发现了什么。该段第3句和第4句提到，通过社交媒体博客与同事进行在线社交互动的员工往往更有积极性，也更能提出创新的想法。但当员工与企业之外的个人互动时，其积极性和主动性便会有所下降。也就是说，员工和不同的人互动，会产生不同的影响。选项C“它与员工和谁互动有很大关系”与原文表述一致，为正确答案。
35.C根据题干关键词neutralize the retention risk可以定位到第5段最后1句。该题问作者建议管理者们做什么来化解离职隐患。该句提到，管理者应采取解决方案，化解社交媒体造成的离职隐患。接着在最后一段给出具体建议。该段最后一句提到，管理者也可利用社交媒体来表彰员工的工作成绩、宜传员工的成功故事，从而直接削弱员工的跳槽意向。选项C“通过社交媒体认可员工的成就”与原文表述一致，为正确答案。
七选五
语篇解读：作者在文中介绍了两种不同的学习类型——主动学习和被动学习并介绍了他们的区别，让学生了解主动学习是如何进行的，进而养成主动学习的习惯。
36.选A上文提到通常有主动和被动两种学习方式，下文内容介绍了它们的不同，故A项符合语境，且与最后一段中的"All in all, behavior of an active learner and a passive one varies greatly.”首尾相呼应。
37.选G本空位于段首，应是本段的主题，概括本段的内容。第二段主要讲解不同学习模式中对阅读的不同的处理方式，再结合“set goals and check their understanding..what they have read"可判断，G项“主动学习者带着理解和记忆信息的目的进行学习”正确。
38.选E空前内容介绍一种不好的学习方式，空后有转折短语"on the other hand",介绍了主动学习者如何进行阅读，故空处应该是被动学习者的做法，E项符合语境。
39.选C空前提到"because it means that you are analyzing and absorbing the information",空后举例说明如何思考及处理信息，C项是前文的释义，且与下文表意一致，符合语境。
40.选D空前提到“相反，被动学习者阅读和听讲座时能理解大部分读到和听到的内容”,本文一直在对比两种学习方式的不同，故D合题意，选项中的it指代上一句中的"what is read and heard"。
完形填空
【语篇解读】本文是说明文。主题语境是人与社会一人文关怀一一家店为人们提供了一种与残疾人沟通交流的方式。文章主要介绍了一家人气很高的咖啡店Bitty&Beau's Coffee,其特别之处在于其员工几乎每个人都有智力或发育障碍，这家店为人们提供了一种与残疾人沟通交流的方式。
答案与解析
41.B考查形容词。A.professional专业的；B.unique独特的； C.active积极的； D.talented有天赋的。根据下文"Almost everyone has an intellectual(智力的)or developmental disability(几乎每个人都有智力或发育障碍)”。可知，这家咖啡店的人气在于它独特的员工，故选B。
42.D考查动词。A.accompany陪伴；B.control控制；C.impress印象深刻的；D.inspire鼓励。根据语境可知，Amy Wright受到她的两个孩子的鼓舞，故选D。
43.A考查名词。A.interview面试；B.appointment约会；C.reason理由；D.invitation邀请。当这对夫妇发现大多数智力和发育障碍的人永远找不到一个甚至会给他们面试的雇主时，他们决定做点什么”。故选A。
44.C考查动词词组。A.dawned on逐渐明白；B.jumped at欣然接受；C.occurred to指"某人突然想到……";D.fell on职责落在某人身上。故选C。
45.A考查动词。A.greet问候；B.observe观察；C.gather聚集；D.find发现。看到员工在门口迎
接顾客、准备食物、点菜和清洁桌子，人们就会意识到他们有多么能干。故选A。
46.A考查形容词。A.competent有能力的；B.generous慷慨的；C.reliable可信赖的；D.
considerate体谅的。看到员工在门口接顾客、准备食物、点菜和清洁桌子，人们就会意识到
他们有多么能干。即这些独特的员工意识到自己是很有能力的，故选A。
47.C考查副词。A.exactly确切地；B.finally最后C. immediately立刻，马上D. obviously
显而易见地，故选C。
48.D考查动词。A.agree同意； B.continue继续； C.respond回应； D.follow跟随，接着。由上文可知，这家店生意火爆。接着就引起了全国媒体的关注，6个月后，店门不得不搬到更大的地方。故选D。
49.B考查形容词。A.farther更远；B.larger更大；C.quieter更静；D.nearer更近。全国媒体也纷纷关注，6个月后，店门不得不搬到更大的地方。根据下一句"Today, the store employs 40people with disabilities, who are really good at their jobs可知他的店更大了。故选B。
50.C考查名词。A.background背景；B.balance平衡；C.bridge桥：D.tradition传统。艾米最引以为豪的是她在社区里建起的那座用以沟通的“桥”。故选C。
51.B考查动词。A.hold抓住；B.draw吸引；C.force强迫；D.call打电话。根据前文"That's a feeling of happiness most people don't get elsewhere"可知这是大多数人在别处得不到的幸福感，由此可知，这也是吸引人们回到这里的原因。故选B。
52.A考查动词。A.interact互动； B.discuss讨论；C.play玩耍；D.work工作。根据本句"This is a place where people can_52_with those with disabilities and realize how much more alike we are than different可知这是一个人们可以与残疾人士互动的地方，让他们意识到还有更多的事情要做。故选A。
53.D考查介词短语。A.nothing but仅仅；B.far from远非；C.above all首先；D.more than多于。这不仅仅是一杯咖啡。这是一场人权运动。根据下一句"It's a human rights movement"可知不仅仅是一杯咖啡。故选D。
54.B考查动词。A.admire钦佩；B.value重视；C.separate分开；D.protect保护。它给了我们的员工应有的尊重和被重视的感觉。respect(尊重)和valued(重视)是并列关系。故选B。
55.C考查名词。A.ambition野心；B.humor幽默：C.joy欢乐；D.patience耐心。根据本句"For many employees it's their first job, and their 55 fills the air可知对这些员工来说，这是他们的第一份工作，他们的内心充满了快乐。他们被尊敬，被重视当然是高兴的。故选C。
语法填空
56.which.考查非限定性定语从句，指代上句的green tax.
57.is designed.考查谓语动词的被动式
58.It.考查代词。It做形式主语。It is adj. to do sth.
59.visiting.考查状语从句的省略。
60.the. for the better好转；变好。固定词组。
61.banned.考查谓语动词的时态。根据前文的back in 2016,用过去时。
62.months.考查名词的复数。
63.but.考查not only...but also.固定用法。
64.e into effect是固定词组，实施。
65.central考查词类转换。形容词修饰名词government。
听力原文
Text1
W:Thank you for shopping with me this afternoon, Mark. Let's stop in this cafe and I'll buy you a cup of your favorite latte.
M: OK. Frankly, I really need a rest now.Text 2
W:Honey, this road is very steep. Please slow down and drive more carefully.
M: OK. Don't worry,honey. I'm experienced.
W:Well, it's good to be careful. Besides, it's raining now.
Text3
M: Excuse me, where are we going next
W:We're going to Sunset Road next. We'll spend two hours at a museum there. Then we'll eat at a restaurant. Now let's get on the bus.
M: OK.
Text 4
W:John, do you like listening to music in your leisure time
M: Not really. I used to lie on the sofa watching TV, and I gained weight easily. Now when I have
some time of my own, I like shooting some hoops(打篮球). It is a good exercise and gives me some time out of the house.
Text5
M:Mum, can I use the car I'm going to the movies. There is no bus stop nearby.
W:But your dad has the car. Why don't you walk to the cinema It's close, and it's a lovely autumn evening.
M: It sounds like a good idea.
Text 6
M: Amy, I heard you went to a cooking contest this morning.⑥Why did you go to such a contest Just to have some fun
W:⑥No. The winner could receive 300 dollars. I really wanted to win so I could buy a new cellphone.
M: So did you win
W:No.What the others made didn't just look great, they tasted great, too.
M:⑦ You must be very upset now.
w:⑦Not really. I went to the contest together with my mother. She made something very special and all the judges loved what she made.⑦She won and she said she'd buy me a new phone with the money she received tomorrow.
Text 7
W:Mike, what are you watching on the Internet
M: Some videos on YouTube. I just cannot believe it.⑧A 90-year-old Japanese woman began
to play video games when she was fifty years old, and she has been doing that every day ever since.
W:Really
M: Yes. She has played over 200 different video games of all kinds.⑨Her grandson takes
videos of her playing for YouTube. The videos have gotten millions of views. Now her YouTube channel has over 300,000 followers.
W:That's really amazing.
M:Yes. Mum,can I play a video game now
W:No, honey. I think it's time to do your homework now.⑩ Stop watching the videos and get down to your homework.
M:OK.
Text 8
w: I visited Magers & Quinn this morning. There were just too many books for kids there. I just didn't know which one to buy.
M: I never go downtown to buy books.
W: So where do you buy books On Amazon
M: No. I usually visit Kids Must if I want a book for Henry. It is a website that
helps parents to encourage their children to read. The search engine on the website creates
a list of recommended books that are the right fit for a child's age, reading level, and interest.W:That's very convenient. But are the books good
M: Yes. The books have been read from cover to cover by its founder, Priya lyer, and none of the books contain inappropriate content.
W:So are the books on it expensive
M: Don't worry. All resources on it are free for parents. You can download them for free.
w: I'll certainly give it a try tonight.
M: Believe me, you'll love it!
Text 9
W:What are you doing, honey
M: I'm looking at some pictures of some special shoes.W:Why are they special I'd like to know more about it.
M:When the pandemic hit, Grigori Lup's business impacted. He's a shoemaker in Romania,and his shop relies heavily on custom orders from theaters and opera houses across the country, as well as traditional folk dance ensembles. However, as restrictions eased across Europe, he realized that people didn't take social distancing seriously, so he came up with the lengthy shoes as a way for them to keep their distance.
W:So can the shoes really keep people apart
M: Yes. If two people wearing the shoes were facing each other, there would be almost a meter and a half between them.
W: So how many such shoes did he make
M: Mr.Lup originally made 3 pairs and posted pictures of them on the social media. But soon, he has had orders from around the world, and now features several different styles of social distancing shoes on the social media.
W:How much does such a pair of shoes cost
M: S115 for one pair, which takes him two days to make.
Text 10
W:@Everyone, do you know why we say "under the weather" when we're sick That just sounds strange, right To find out, I turned to a publication called Farmers' Almanac. Farmers' Almanac is not really meant for language learners. It was founded in 1818 to help American farmers understand more about the natural world around them as they grow and harvest their crops. That is still its purpose today. The Farmer's Almanac website tells about all things weather-related. To explain,"under the weather", the website published the writing of Richard Lederer, a word expert. Lederer notes that the expression "under the weather" comes from the language of sailors. Imagine being on a boat on rough seas. The waves continually for cethe boat up and down and side to side. This continual movement can make many people feel seasick. He writes that "on the high seas when the wind would start to blow hard and the waves became rough, crewmen and travelers would go below deck.”They actually went"under the weather" to find safety, shelter and to avoid becoming seasick.@Years ago, only sailors described seasick sailors as being "under the weather." But today, we use this expression anytime when someone is not feeling well.

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