资源简介

2022~2023学年度第一学期期末学业质量监测试卷
七年级英语
参考答案及评分标准
第Ⅰ卷（选择题 共85分）
一、听力（本题共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分）
1. B 2. C 3. A 4. C 5. C 6. B 7. A 8. B 9. C 10. B
11. C 12. B 13. A 14. C 15. B 16.C 17. B 18. A 19. A 20. B
二、单选（本题共15小题；每小题1分，满分20分）
21. C 22.B 23. A 24. B 25. A 26. D 27. C 28. C 29. D 30. A
31. D 32. A 33. C 34. B 35. B
三、完形（本题共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
36. C 37.D 38. D 39. D 40. C 41. A 42. A 43. B 44. C 45. B
46. B 47. A 48. D 49. C 50. B
四、阅读 （共两节，满分35分）
第一节 （本题共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）
51-53 B A C 54-57 B B A D
58-61 C B D D 62-65 C A B D
第二节 （本题共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
66-70 B A G C E
第Ⅱ卷（非选择题 共65分）
六、词汇（本题共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分)
71. sugar 72. celebrating 73. special/unusual 74. matches 75. model
76. lady’s 77. interested 78. really 79. twice 80. diaries
81. carries 82. isn’t 83. Are; planning 84. lies 85. are watching
说明：1）因书写潦草导致单词难以辨认的不得分。
任何形式的错误均不得分。
七、短文填空（本题共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分)
86. meal 87. pieces 88. tastes 89. like 90. noodle
91. vegetables 92. foods 93. popular 94. dumpling(s) 95. sure
说明：1）因书写潦草导致单词难以辨认的不得分。
2）任何形式的错误均不得分。
八、阅读与回答问题（本题共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
96. Three.
97. Because/ As presents should be a surprise.
98. I can take him or her to one of their shows. / I can give him or her an experience.
99. Care.
100. They are useful/ meaningful/ special/ wonderful... (言之有理即可)
说明：1）答题时用完全回答或简略回答均得分。
2）答题时如未依据文章内容作答或答非所问均不得分。
3）答题时如除写出正确要点外，还写出答非所问的酌情扣分。
4）答题时如依据文章内容、用自己组织的语言正确作答不扣分。
5）答题时要点正确、但有语法、拼写、标点符号等错误时酌情扣分。
6) 单词拼写、标点符号、大小写等错误每处扣0.5分。
八、翻译句子（共10分）
单词拼写、标点符号、大小写等错误每处扣0.5分。
101. We practise playing football after school on Wednesday afternoon.
102. I always have milk and bread for breakfast.
103. Students look smart in dark blue.
104. This mall is a good place to meet friends and have fun.
105. All my family get together and have a big dinner.
九、书面表达 (共20分)
My best friend
Hello, everyone! I would like to tell you something about my best friend Sandy. Sandy comes from England, but now lives with her parents in Nantong. She is tall and looks pretty. Her hair is very long and she wears a pair of glasses.
Her school starts at seven in the morning and her favourite subject is English. She has a lot of friends here. After class, she often chats with them or play in the playground.
Sandy likes the Spring Festival best because she can get a lot of red packets from her parents. Moreover, she likes to let off fireworks at night. They are really wonderful.
This is my best friend, Sandy. I think we’ll be friends forever.
第II卷评分标准
五、词汇
1. 因书写潦草导致单词难以辨认的不得分。
2. 任何形式的错误均不得分。
六、短文填空
1. 因书写潦草导致单词难以辨认的不得分。
2. 任何形式的错误均不得分。
七、阅读回答问题
1. 答题时用完全回答或简略回答均得分。
2. 答题时如未依据文章内容作答或答非所问均不得分。
3. 答题时如除写出正确要点外，还写出答非所问的酌情扣分。
4. 答题时如依据文章内容、用自己组织的语言正确作答不扣分。
5. 答题时要点正确、但有语法、拼写、标点符号等错误时酌情扣分。
6. 单词拼写、标点符号、大小写等错误每处扣0.5分。
八、句子翻译
1. 因书写潦草导致单词难以辨认的不得分。
2. 单词拼写、标点符号、大小写等错误每处扣0.5分，扣完为止。
3. 无论哪种结构或表达，只要句子表达正确均得分。
九、书面表达
1. 阅卷应结合“内容”和“语言”两个方面进行评分。
2. 内容：介绍自己最好的朋友，选择或自拟至少三个方面进行具体描述。
3. 语言：动词与句子层面（如句子结构）的错误视为大错，每错扣1；词语层面的短语（如搭配）、词汇（如用词不当）、拼写等错误为小错，每错扣0.5；另有标点、大小写等错误酌情扣分，每错扣0.25。
4. 未分段写作扣2分。
5. 因书写潦草导致字母或单词难以辨认或卷面不洁等情况扣2分。
6. 各档次的给分范围和要求：
第五档 (很好)：(17-20分)
完成了试题规定的全部任务：
1) 覆盖所有要点内容。
2) 语言表达形式多样，词汇丰富；允许有1大错或3处以下小错。
3) 有效地使用连接成份，使全文结构紧凑，过渡自然。
第四档 (好)：(13-16分)
完成了试题规定的任务：
1) 虽漏掉1、2个次重点，但覆盖所有主要内容。
2) 语法结构和词汇运用基本正确，有少数错误。
3) 能应用连接成份，有助于全文结构紧凑，过渡自然。
第三档 (适当)：(9-12分)
基本完成了试题规定的任务：
1) 虽漏掉少数要点，但基本覆盖主要内容。
2) 语法结构和词汇应用基本正确，虽有一些错误，但不影响表达。
3) 尚能注意语句间的连接，使内容连贯。
第二档 (较差)：(5-8分)
未完成试题规定的全部任务：
1) 漏掉或未写清楚一些主要内容，或写了一些无关内容。
2) 语法结构简单，词汇单调；错误较多，影响表达。
第一档 (差)：(1-4分)
未完成试题规定的基本任务：
1) 遗漏或未能表达要点内容，或写了一些无关内容。
2) 错误很多，严重影响表达。
3) 只写出了几个相关单词。
不得分：(0分) 未能表达出与试题有关的任何信息。2022～2023 学年度第一学期期末学业质量监测试卷
七年级 英语
注 意 事 项
考生在答题前请认真阅读本注意事项：
1．本试卷共 12 页，满分为 150 分，考试时间为 120 分钟。考试结束后，请将答题卡交回。
2．答题前，请务必将自己的姓名、考试号用 0.5 毫米黑色字迹的签字笔填写在答题卡上指
定的位置。
3．答案必须按要求填涂、书写在答题卡上，在试卷、草稿纸上答题一律无效。
第Ⅰ卷 (选择题部分 共 85 分)
第 I 卷共 70 小题，请将答案按要求填涂在答题卡上。
一、听力部分（共 20 小题; 每小题 1 分, 满分 20 分）
第一部分：听对话回答问题
本部分共有 10 道小题, 每小题你将听到一段对话, 每段对话听两遍。在听每段对话前, 你将
有 5 秒钟时间阅读题目；听完后, 你还有 5 秒钟的时间选择出你认为最合适的备选答案。在
听到“嘀”的信号后, 进入下一小题。
1. Which festival does Daniel like best
A. B. C.
2. When does the shopping mall open today
A. B. C.
3. What is Kitty doing now
A. B. C.
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4. How does Millie usually go to school
A. B. C.
5. What colour does the girl like best
A. Red. B. Yellow. C. Blue.
6. What is the skirt made of
A. Cotton. B. Wool. C. Silk.
7. Where are they talking now
A. In a restaurant. B. In a library. C. In a bookshop.
8. How much does the woman spend on the basketball cards
A. 2 yuan. B. 10 yuan. C. 5 yuan.
9. What does the lady want to have
A. Coffee and hamburgers. B. Cakes and tea. C. Tea and hamburgers.
10. How long does Mary play volleyball every week
A. One hour. B. Two hours. C. Three hours.
第二部分：听对话和短文回答问题
你将听到一段对话和两篇短文，各听两遍。听每段对话或短文前，你将有时间阅读相关小题，
每小题5秒钟；听完后，每小题你仍有5秒钟时间选择你认为最合适的备选答案。
听一段对话，回答第11—12小题。答题完毕，请等待嘀的信号，进入第一篇短文。
11. How often does Amy go on picnics
A. Every week. B. Once a week. C. Once a month.
12. Who does Tommy visit museums with
A. His family. B. His friends. C. His classmates.
听第一篇短文，回答第 13—15 小题。请根据短文内容，选择正确答案，完成信息记录表。
A school day
Who The students of 13 , Grade 7.
·Some students show the visitors around the school.
What ·The speaker tells the visitors about the 14 of the school.
·The other students put on 15 for the visitors.
13. A. Class 2 B. Class 3 C. Class 4
14. A. buildings B. lessons C. history
15. A. a short play B. a fashion show C. a welcome talk
听第二篇短文，回答第 16—20 小题。
16. How does the fox feel
A. Tired. B. Thirsty. C. Hungry.
17. What is the wall like
A.Very short. B. Very high. C. Very long.
18. What does the fox want to do
A. To eat the grapes (葡萄). B. To look at the grapes. C. To stand by the grapes.
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19. What does the fox do at last
A. He walks away. B. He gets the grapes. C. He jumps on the wall.
20. The fox says he doesn’t like those grapes. What’s the real reason
A. Because they are really green.
B. Because he can’t get the grapes.
C. Because they are not good to eat.
二、单项选择题（共 15 小题; 每小题 1 分, 满分 15 分）
从 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
21. —Do you know Zhong Nanshan, ▲ great doctor in China
—Yes. And he can play ▲ basketball very well.
A. the; / B. the; the C. a; / D. a; the
22. Under the Double Reduction Policy (双减政策), students don’t need to get up early ▲
the morning ▲ Saturdays and Sundays.
A. in; on B. on; of C. in; of D. on; on
23. —Mum, can I have ▲ juice
—Sure, but we don't have ▲ at home.
A. some; any B. any; some C. any; any D. some; some
24. I want to ▲ the CD from you. Please ▲ it here tomorrow.
A. borrow; take B. borrow; bring C. lend; take D. lend; bring
25. Half of the class ▲ the homework now. Some of the homework ▲ really
difficult.
A. are doing; is B. is doing; are C. is doing; is D. are doing; are
26. —Do you have any time ▲ your hobbies on weekdays
—Yes, and I usually have a good time ▲ the piano.
A. doing; playing B. to do; to play C. doing; to play D. to do; playing
27. —Do you know the man in a black coat
—Yes, he is ▲ new teacher. He teaches ▲ English this term.
A. us; us B. us; our C. our; us D. our; our
28. —Would you like to go to the cinema with me this Friday
—Sorry, I’m going to see my grandparents. Let’s do it ▲ day.
A. other B. others C. another D. the other
29. —How do you like this English story
—I think everyone can read the story, because there are ▲ new words in it.
A. a little B. little C. a few D. few
30. —Excuse me, ▲ is Nantong Library from our school
—It is about twenty minutes by Underground Line 1.
A. how far B. how soon C. how long D. how often
31. This pair of red boots ▲ leather. May I ▲
A. are made of; try them on B. is made of; try it on
C. are made of; try it on D. is made of; try them on
32. —Which of the two apples are you going to take
—I am going to take ▲ . One is for my brother and the other is for myself. We can eat
▲ meals.
A. both; between B. both; among C. all; between D. all; among
33. The shopping mall ▲ at 8 a.m. and it ▲ for fourteen hours every day.
A. opens; opens B. is open; is open C. opens; is open D. is open; opens
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34. —Hi, Linda, can I ask you a question
—Of course. I ▲ .
A. listen B. am listening C. hear D. am hearing
35. —Could I speak to Miss Green
— ▲ . She is giving a lesson to her students now.
A. Yes, please B. Wait a minute C. Yes, you can D. Not at all
三、完形填空 (共 15 小题; 每小题 1 分, 满分 15 分)
请认真阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并
在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
My company sends my wife and me to live in New York. I’ve always loved 36▲ , so I
am very 37▲ when I find out the house they rent (租) for us is next to Central Park. This
means that every morning I can go for a run 38▲ I go to work.
39▲ a lot of people already tell me to be careful of robbers (抢劫犯) in the park, I usually
take nothing with me. How can they rob me if I don’t have anything But this morning my wife
asks me to buy some bread on the way home, so I 40▲ a $10 note into my pocket.
While I am running through the park, another runner nearly 41▲ me over. He says sorry
and goes on running. I think it is a little strange, so I check my pocket and find that the money is
missing. I start to run 42▲ him at once. I finally catch him by his arm. I begin shouting and
order him to 43▲ the $10 back to me. I’m not 44▲ an impolite person but
I really get very angry. He 45▲ a little afraid and he quickly puts his 46▲ in his
pocket and gives me the money. Then he runs away as 47▲ as he can.
I buy the bread and go 48▲ . As soon as I come back, I begin to 49▲ my wife my
story. “You won’t believe what happens to me,” I start. She quickly 50▲ me, “I know, you
leave the money for the bread on the kitchen table.”
36. A. studying B. working C. running D. reading
37. A. healthy B. fine C. sad D. happy
38. A. when B. as C. or D. before
39. A. But B. So C. If D. Because
40. A. carry B. take C. put D. bring
41. A. knocks B. looks C. turns D. moves
42. A. after B. by C. near D. off
43. A. pay B. give C. lend D. show
44. A. never B. once C. usually D. seldom
45. A. guesses B. seems C. enjoys D. wishes
46. A. arm B. hand C. face D. nose
47. A. fast B. slow C. early D. late
48. A. there B. out C. far D. home
49. A. talk B. speak C. tell D. say
50. A. asks B. stops C. helps D. follows
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四、阅读理解（共两节，满分 35分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）
请认真阅读下面图表或短文，从短文后各题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中，选出最佳选
项。
A
Two boys get into a fight (打架). Son asks Dad for help with tears (眼泪).
The other boy comes with his dad too. Dads quarrel (吵架) with each other.
The boys really enjoy their time and
▲
become friends.
51. How may the Dads feel when they quarrel with each other
A. Sorry B. Angry C. Sad D. Happy
52. Which of the following can be best put in the ▲ in Picture 5
A. Dads get ready for a fight. B. Dads begin to chat with each other.
C. Boys get ready to learn from Dads. D. Boys begin to play games together.
53. What do you think of the Dads
A. Poor. B. Friendly. C. hot-headed. D. Clever.
B
The World Cup is an international football match that takes place every four years. The first
World Cup event is held in 1930 and it has only been cancelled (取消) twice in the history — in
1942 and 1946, because of the Second World War. The World Cup can take place anywhere in the
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world. In 2018 the host country is Russia, in 2014 it is Brazil, in 2010 it is South Africa, and in 2022
the host country is the State of Qatar. It is the first time that a country in the Middle East is hosting
the World Cup and only the second time that a country in Asia is hosting the match.
While the World Cup usually takes place in the months of June and July. It is really hot in Qatar
during the summer months, and so the match is held in November and December. There are 32
national teams taking part. These teams are determined through qualifying matches (由资格赛决
定). There are a total of 64 matches played over the 28-day World Cup. These take place in eight
stadiums (体育馆) across the State of Qatar.
54. How many times is the World Cup held
A. 21. B. 22. C. 23. D. 24.
55. From the passage we can know that the World Cup usually takes place in ▲ .
A. spring B. summer C. autumn D. winter
56. Which of the following is true according to the passage
A. Qatar is the second Asian country to host the World Cup.
B. The 2022 World Cup lasts twenty-eight days with 32 matches.
C. All the matches of 2022 World Cup take place in eighteen stadiums.
D. The World Cup has been cancelled twice because of the First World War.
57. Where can you probably read the passage
A. In a story book. B. In a science guide.
C. In a geography magazine. D. In a sports newspaper.
C
The Little Red Riding Hood is such a lovely girl that she thinks everyone can be her friend.
One day she meets a wolf (狼) and tells him she is going to see her grandma.
When the Little Red Riding Hood comes to the grandma's home, the
big wolf already wears the grandma’s clothes and lies in bed. The Little
Red Riding Hood asks, “Grandma, why are your ears so big ” The big
wolf says, “I can hear you with the big ears.” The Little Red Riding Hood
asks again, “Why are your hands so big ” The wolf says, “I can protect
(保护) you with the big hands.”
But the Little Red Riding Hood is still surprised, she asks, “But why is your mouth so big,
Grandma ”
The big wolf says, “I can eat you with the big mouth.” It jumps down from the bed and
swallows (吞下) the Little Red Riding Hood. Then it sleeps in bed．
A hunter (猎人) comes to see the grandma. He sees a big wolf sleeping in bed, and there is
something moving in its stomach (胃). So he gets some scissors (剪刀) and cut open the wolf’s
stomach. Then the girl and her grandma come out. Because the wolf swallows them, they don’t get
hurt. The Little Red Riding Hood thanks the hunter and says she won’t believe the wolf any more.
The hunter puts lots of stones (石头) inside the wolf’s stomach and sews up the stomach. After
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the wolf wakes up, he feels thirsty. So he goes to the river to drink water. His stomach is so heavy
that he falls into the river and drowns (淹死).
—Taken from Little Red Riding Hood
58. Why does the wolf wear the grandma’s clothes
A. He likes Grandma very much.
B. He likes the grandma’s clothes.
C. He wants to dress up as Grandma.
D. He wants to play a trick on the girl.
59. The underlined word “it” in Paragraph 3 refers to (指代） ▲ .
A. the big mouth B. the big wolf
C. Little Red Riding Hood D. Little Red Riding Hood’s grandma
60. Which is the correct order of the things below
a. Mr.Wolf eats Little Red Riding Hood.
b. Little Red Riding Hood meets Mr.Wolf.
c. Mr.Wolf finds the grandmother and eats her.
d. The big wolf drowns in the river.
A. b-c-d-a B. c-d-b-a C. c-b-a-d D. b-c-a-d
61. The passage mainly wants to tell us ▲ ．
A. hunters should learn to protect animals
B. hunters should learn to protect children
C. children should learn to protect animals
D. children should learn to protect themselves
D
China’s Shenzhou XV manned spaceship successfully docked (成功对接) with the space
station combination in November 2022. As the last step in the building of the Tiangong space station,
the Shenzhou XV mission (任务) also means the first step in use of the space station. Here are some
of the highlights (亮点) of the mission.
Two groups meet in orbit for first time
The two groups of Shenzhou XV and Shenzhou XIV spacecraft get together in orbit (在轨道
上), and will stay together in the space station for a few days. The in-orbit rotation (旋转) will
become usual after the space station is put into use.
Six Chinese astronauts in space together
After the three Shenzhou XV group members go into the
space station, there are now six astronauts in orbit. And all over
the world, there are now a total of 13 astronauts in space, with
the other seven on the International Space Station (3 from the
United States, 3 from Russia and 1 from Japan). So, now China is the country with most people in
the space.
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The space station at its biggest
China’s space business surprises the world now. Following the arrival of the Shenzhou XV
spacecraft, the Tiangong space station has developed into its biggest size. At present, it is one of the
biggest space-based structures people have ever built in outer space.
During their six-month stay, the three astronauts of the Shenzhou XV mission will also perform
extravehicular (舱外) activities four times.
62. According to the passage, how many foreign (外国的) astronauts are there in space
A. 13 B. 6 C. 7 D. 3
63. When will the Shenzhou XV spacecraft come back to the Earth
A. In May 2023. B. In July 2023.
C. In September 2023. D. In November 2023.
64. From the news report, we can infer (推断) ▲ .
A. China has the most astronauts in the world
B. Chinese people are happy with China’s space business
C. the Tiangong station is the biggest space-based structure
D. the Shenzhou XV is the last step in use of the space station
65. Which can be the best title for the passage
A. Introduction of Shenzhou XV B. Introduction of Shenzhou astronauts
C. Highlights of Shenzhou XV astronauts D. Highlights of Shenzhou XV mission
第二节（共 5 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 5 分）
阅读下面短文，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。其中有两项为多余选项。
A: Good morning! Can I help you
B: Yes, please. 66▲ So I want to buy a gift for my mother. But I don't know what
to buy.
A: 67▲
B: Great! 68▲ Roses or carnations (康乃馨)
A: I think carnations are very good. They mean happiness and love. They are for mothers.
B: 69▲
A: Twenty yuan a bunch (束).
B: 70▲
A: Thank you and best wishes to your mother!
A. Let me see. What about some flowers
B. Today is the second Sunday in May.
C. How much do they cost
D. What beautiful flowers they are!
E. That’s fine. I’ll take them.
F. What can I do for you
G. But which flowers shall I buy
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第Ⅱ卷 (非选择题 共 65 分)
第 II 卷共 36 小题，请将答案按要求写在答题卡上。
五、词汇（共 15 小题; 每小题 1 分，满分 15 分)
A. 请根据括号中的中文提示、英文释义或句意，写出句中所缺单词，使句子通顺。
71. To keep healthy, we should eat less food with a lot of ▲ (糖).
72. Thank you for ▲ (庆祝) my tenth birthday, dear Mum. I am so happy.
73. Mary has a lot of ideas. She often does things in ▲ (not usual) ways.
74. I think Simon’s red and grey tie ▲ (go well with) his coat very well.
75. It’s not a real plane. It’s a ▲ plane my aunt buys for me during her trip.
B. 请根据句意从方框中选择合适的单词，并用其适当形式填空，使句子通顺。
two diary real interest lady
76. —Whose new leather bag is it
—It’s the old ▲ .
77. More and more people around the world become ▲ in learning Chinese.
78. Children like to go boating on Haohe River. They ▲ enjoy it.
79. We do eye exercises ▲ a day to have good eyesight.
80. Miss Green often tells us to keep ▲ in English.
C. 请根据句意从方框中选择合适的动词，并用其适当形式填空，使句子通顺。
watch not be lie plan carry
81. —Daniel with his classmates often ▲ water for Grandpa Ma.
—What kind children!
82. Twenty dollars ▲ enough for this hair clip. Let’s buy another one.
83. — ▲ you ▲ to go to Nantong Wild Forest Zoo next week
—Yes, I am.
84. The little cat always ▲ on the grass and enjoys the sunshine.
85. It’s six o’clock in the evening. My family ▲ the World Cup in the living
room.
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六、短文填空（共 10 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 10 分）
阅读短文，根据所给的首字母提示，写出一个合适的单词，使短文通顺。
I am a picky (挑剔的) eater. There are many foods that I don’t like to eat. But there is one (86)
m ▲ that I have always loved. It’s just two (87) p ▲ of toasted (烘烤过的) bread
with cheese in the middle and a bowl of tomato soup. But it always (88) t ▲ great. This
kind of food is called “Comfort fort food means simple easy-to-make meals that are
delicious. Your parents may make meals (89) l ▲ this for you when you’re not feeling
well.
Chicken (90) n ▲ soup is an example of comfort food. It’s a simple soup of chicken,
noodles and a few (91) v ▲ . But it is the best food on a cold day, especially (尤其) when
you’re ill. There are different comfort (92) f ▲ from different countries. In France,
French onion soup is a (93) p ▲ comfort food. It is made of cheese, onion and bread in
soup. In Japan, many people eat ramen noodles (拉面). And in Poland, a kind of (94) d ▲
called pierogi (洋水饺) is a simple and classic dish. I try all of these foods myself. They’re all quite
excellent.
Does China have comfort food I’m not (95) s ▲ about it. But I do know that many
people enjoy noodles and dumplings. And I can say for myself that a simple meal of jiaozi or
dandanmian is quite comforting.
七、任务型阅读（共 5 小题；每小题 2 分，满分 10 分）
阅读短文，根据短文内容回答问题。
There are different kinds of gift shops. And giving small gifts is a common way of showing
how much we care for someone, even if there is nothing unusual. So, how do you choose a perfect
gift for your friends？To find a right gift, you can do three things.
Know the person’s interests
You should find out what your friends like most and then buy those kinds of gifts. If they love
books, you should learn about the writers they like. If they love travelling, you can get some
postcards. By buying something that reflects (反映) the person’s interest, you can be sure they will
like it, and this will help build the relationship.
Find out if the person has a problem
Gifts can be cheap things. It can be something that the person needs most. And as presents
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should be a surprise, don’t ask your friends what they need. Listen to them carefully as they may
talk about their problems. Also, you can look around and find out what problems they may be facing.
Give them an experience (经历)
Gifts don’t have to be things you can touch. They can be experiences that the person would
enjoy. For example, if a friend loves a music group, you can take him or her to one of their shows.
It will be a surprise and they will never forget it.
No matter what you gift, care is more important than anything else.
96. How many things can you do if you want to find a right gift
▲
97. Why don’t you ask your friends what they need
▲
98. What kind of gift can you give if your friend loves a music group？
▲
99. What is the most important thing when you gift
▲
100. What do you think of the ways of giving gifts (自拟一句话作答)
▲
八、句子翻译（共 5 小题; 每小题 2 分，满分 10 分）
101. 周三下午放学后我们训练踢足球。(practise doing sth.)
▲
102. 我早饭总是吃牛奶和面包。(have ... for ...)
▲
103. 学生穿深蓝色的衣服看上去很精干。(look ... in ...)
▲
104. 这家购物中心是会见朋友和娱乐的好地方。(a good place to)
▲
105. 我们全家人聚在一起，吃一顿大餐。(get together)
▲
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九、书面表达 (满分 20 分)
你的学校正在举办“My best friend”为主题的英语征文比赛。假如你有个好朋友叫
Sandy，她来自英国,目前和父母一起在南通生活。请你根据以下图片提示，至少选择 2-3
个方面，展开想象，写一篇短文，介绍你的这位好朋友。
要求：1. 90词左右，开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数。
2. 短文中请勿提及真实校名和姓名。
My best friend
Hello, everyone! I’d like to tell you something about my friend Sandy.
请
将
答
案
写
在
答
题
卡
上
This is my best friend Sandy. I think we will be friends forever.
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