资源简介

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考生 缺考考生，监考员用
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禁填 铅笔填涂左面的缺考标记
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答题前，考生先将自己的姓名，准考证号填写清楚，
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选择题必须用
2B
铅笔填涂；填空题和解答题必须用
事 项
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黑色签字笔答题，不得用铅笔或圆珠笔答题；
字体工整、笔迹清晰。
3.
请按题号顺序在各题目的答题区域内作答，超出区
域书写的答案无效；在草稿纸、试题卷上答题无效。
4.
保持卡面清洁，不要折叠、不要弄破。
填涂样例
正确填涂
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2023—2024 学年高三上学期 9 月月考英语试卷（全国卷） 英 语 答 题 卡
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第Ⅰ卷 选择题 第一部分：听力 1234567891011121314151617181920[ A ][ A ][ A ][ A ] (
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第三部分：语言知识运用（第一节） 4142434445464748495051525354555657585960[ A ][ A ][ A ][ A ] (
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第Ⅱ卷 非选择题 第三部分：语言知识运用（第二节）
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请在各题目的答题区域内作答，超出矩形边框限定区域的答案无效！
第四部分：写作
第一节 短文改错
Last summer vacation, I paid visit to Chengde Mountain Resort in Hebei. This park left us a deep impression.
The Mountain Resort, a key national cultural protection unit, were listed in the World Cultural Heritage Directory in
1994. It was built in 1703 but took about 90 years to construct. The Mountain Resort, situating in the north of
Chengde, is 230 kilometers far away from Beijing. It covers an area of 5.64 million square meters and was original
built for the royal families to spend the hot summer months. Wander in the Mountain Resort, I was deeply attracted
by its greatness and amazed with everything there. To tell the truth, it takes me two days to complete the journey.
第二节 书面表达
Convenience Food or Fresh Food on Weekends
Recently, our school conducted a survey, which aims to figure out how the students enjoy their weekend
dinner.
请在各题目的答题区域内作答，超出矩形边框限定区域的答案无效！2023—2024学年高三上学期9月月考英语试卷参考答案（全国卷）
英 语
第一部分 听力
1—5 ABCCA 6—10 ABBCA 11—15 BCABC 16—20 CBCBA
第二部分 阅读理解
第一节
A篇
本文是一篇应用文。文章主要介绍了中国香港四所培养创新型人才的顶级艺术学校及其不同的办学特色。
21. A 细节理解题。根据The Hong Kong Polytechnic University (HK PolyU)部分中的“... students must practise through practical workshop activities. The workshop facilities give students the chance to become familiar with the techniques needed for perfect making.”可知，香港理工大学可以让学生学习制作物品。故选A。
22. B 细节理解题。根据The University of Hong Kong (UHK)部分中的“You have the freedom to create a course of study that is ideal for you thanks to the program’s adaptable curriculum and inviting dual (双的) degree choices.”可知，学生在香港大学可以自由选择适合自己的课程。故选B。
23. C 细节理解题。根据全文内容，尤其是第一段中的“... encourages them to think outside the box.”可知，这四所学校的共同点是它们都旨在培养创新型人才。故选C。
B篇
本文是一篇记叙文。文章讲述了一对双胞胎致力于测量各地的最高山峰，以便后来的登山者有准确的数据来确定目的地的故事。
24. B 细节理解题。根据第一段最后一句中的“finding it to be about three metres shy of Jabal Ferwa”可知，Jabal Sawda比Jabal Ferwa低大约3米。故选B。
25. C 推理判断题。根据第二段中的“For more than a decade, the twins have ... rewriting the mountain record books”可知，十多年来，这对双胞胎在不同的国家旅行，重写山峰的记录；再结合本段中的“So far they have reached the peaks of more than 100 countries and newly identified the highest points”和第三段中的“If we’re going to ... the highest mountain”可推知，他们这样做的目的是测量最高的山峰。故选C。
26. D 细节理解题。根据第三段中的“We consider it assistance to future mountaineers ... so that they can focus their efforts on getting to whichever peak they want to get to.”可知，他们的工作提供了准确的数据，登山者可以根据这些数据选择攀登哪一座山峰。故选D。
27. B 推理判断题。根据最后一段中的“In 2012, after achieving their goal ... they turned their attention to the rest of the world.”可知，下一段可能会讲述这对双胞胎在其他国家的经历。故选B。
C篇
本文是一篇说明文。文章主要介绍了2022年主题为“变化世界中老年人的复原力”的联合国国际老年人日（UNIDOP）的相关内容。
28. B 推理判断题。根据第二段内容可知，到2050年，世界老年人口预计增加到15亿多，2022年到2050年间，所有地区的老年人口都会增加，而预计增长最快的将是最不发达国家，那里65岁及以上人口的数量可能从2019年的3700万增加到2050年的1.2亿。由此可知，使用这些数据是为了说明老年人口的增长。故选B。
29. A 推理判断题。第三段的“all countries have to ... give it up altogether”说明了“银发族”引发的问题，“older persons continue to ... social and cultural lives”说明了他们的贡献。由此可知，“银发族”有利有弊，是一把双刃剑。故选A。
30. C 词义猜测题。根据画线词后的“something that jogs your memory ... contributing to their solutions”可知，此处指2022年联合国国际老年人日的主题会唤起你的记忆，让你想起老年人发挥的重要作用。由此可知，画线词表示的应是一种能够给予人们提醒或者刺激人们记忆的东西，reminder的含义与之相似。故选C。
31. D 推理判断题。根据最后一段内容可知，作者认为年龄只是一个数字，只是一种心态。事实上，重要的是身体健康，优雅地老去。如果一个人只能躺在床上，不能活动，那么他活到85岁或90岁是毫无意义的。总有一天，一个人的实际年龄在生理和心理上都不再重要。由此可推断，作者认为与健康相比，年龄不值一提。故选D。
D篇
本文是一篇说明文。文章主要介绍了一款可以帮助学生在视频学习中做笔记的人工智能应用程序。
32. C 细节理解题。根据第一段中的“In order to provide the full benefit of online learning, educators must be aware of the needs of their students and therefore tailor their instruction.”可知，为使线上学习更高效，教师必须了解学生的需求，从而相应地调整教学方法。故选C。
33. A 推理判断题。根据第三段最后一句“As a result, the app turns the passive experience of watching a video into an active one ..., which helps students to better engage with the material ...”可知，VideoSticker这款应用程序使学生们对学习过程更有热情和决心，也能使学生们更好地投入到所学材料中，由此推知，它可以让学生们精力更充沛，更投入。故选A。
34. A 推理判断题。根据最后一段的最后一句“Other education-based innovations we have spotted recently include an app ... as well as a platform ... and a tool that identifies struggling readers sooner.”可推知，更多用于教育的创新正在涌现。故选A。
35. B 标题概括题。分析文章内容可知，文章主要介绍了一款可以帮助学生在视频学习中做笔记的人工智能应用程序VideoSticker，由此可知B项最适合作为文章的标题。故选B。
第二节
本文是一篇说明文。文章指出，认知行为疗法的主要目标之一是找到有效的方法将焦虑转化为有成效的行动。本文重点介绍了具体的策略。
36. F 根据文章第一句话“One of the primary goals of cognitive behavioral therapy (疗法) is finding effective ways to channel your anxiety into productive action.”可知，认知行为疗法治疗焦虑的主要目标之一是找到有效的方法，将焦虑转化为有成效的行动。再结合下文几段的首句可知，下文主要介绍了具体的策略。F项“只要用积极的策略把焦虑转化为行动。”承上启下，符合语境。故选F。
37. B 根据上文“Take notice of your anxious thoughts and worries. What are you most concerned about ”可推测，本空应是对worries的提问，分析各选项可知，B项“你最害怕的是什么？”符合语境，且B项中的fears与下文的these fears相呼应。故选B。
38. D 根据上文“Think of your resilience to anxiety as a muscle.”可知，文章建议人们把针对焦虑的恢复力想象成一块肌肉。下文内容介绍了具体的做法。根据上下文语境可推知，D项“你使用肌肉的次数越多，它就变得越强壮。”承上启下，符合语境。故选D。
39. C 本空位于段首，应概括本段的主要内容，并且结构应与其他段落首句的结构相同。根据下文中“Exercise is a great activity to make use of this spare energy. Exercise offers a host of benefits like ... is its ability to neutralize anxiety and improve your mood.”可知，本段讲的是锻炼可以缓解人们的焦虑并缓和人们的情绪。C项“通过体育活动消除焦虑。”能概括本段主要内容。故选C。
40. A 根据本段首句可知，本段内容与reality testing有关。根据上文“You don’t have to become a slave to your anxious thoughts ...”及下文“Reality testing involves assessing a situation for errors in thinking.”可知，空处应当是建议进行测试。A项“改为对它们进行测试。”符合语境。故选A。
第三部分 语言知识运用
第一节
本文是一篇记叙文。文章主要讲述了作者在机场帮助一位发病的陌生人的故事。
41. A 考查动词辨析。根据上文中的“a woman at the gate suddenly became ill”可知，一位女士突然病倒了。再根据语境可知，此处表示妻子小声跟“我”说有些不对劲。whisper意为“小声说”，符合语境。故选A。
42. C 考查形容词辨析。根据下文中的“The woman fell down”及语境可知，妻子小声跟“我”说有些不对劲。wrong意为“（状况）有问题的”，符合语境。故选C。
43. D 考查名词辨析。根据上文中的“The woman fell down on the seat”可知，那位女士倒在了座位上，很快身体就失去了控制。control意为“控制（或操纵）能力”，符合语境。故选D。
44. A 考查动词辨析。根据上文中的“I went over and half knelt down before her”和下文中的“if she was okay”可知，“我”走过去半跪在她前面，询问她是否安好。ask意为“询问”，符合语境。故选A。
45. B 考查动词辨析。根据下文中的“she was Jackie”可知，“我”自我介绍“我”是一名按摩师，也得知她叫Jackie。learn意为“得知”，符合语境。故选B。
46. D 考查形容词辨析。根据下文中的“to help her in any way she needed”可知，“我”不是医师，但“我”愿意以任何她需要的方式帮助她。willing意为“愿意”，符合语境。故选D。
47. C 考查动词辨析。根据上文中的“I took her hand in one hand”及下文中的“her head in the other”可知，“我”一只手握着她的手，另一只手扶着她的头。support意为“支撑”，符合语境。故选C。
48. A 考查动词辨析。根据上文中的“carefully asking what was happening”及语境可知，“我”仔细询问她发生了什么事，Jackie向“我”解释了原因。explain意为“解释”，符合语境。故选A。
49. D 考查名词辨析。根据下文中的“stimulation”及语境可知，Jackie解释说当她受到太多压力和刺激时，她的身体就会超速运转。stress意为“压力”，符合语境。故选D。
50. B 考查副词辨析。根据下文中的“she had had the condition for thirty years and would be ‘perfectly _____ soon’”可知，然而，她有这种情况已经三十年了。however意为“不过，然而”，符合语境。故选B。
51. C 考查形容词辨析。根据下文中的“Jackie soon made a full recovery”及语境可知，Jackie有这种情况三十年了，很快就能恢复了。fine意为“身体很好的，健康的”，符合语境。故选C。
52. A 考查名词辨析。根据上文中的“her medical”及语境可知，Jackie说她离开家的时候忘了带上自己的医学报告。report意为“报告”，符合语境。故选A。
53. C 考查名词辨析。根据下文中的“I stayed behind to ensure Jackie boarded the plane safely”可知，“我”问Jackie她在登机时是否需要轮椅。plane意为“飞机”，符合语境。故选C。
54. B 考查动词辨析。根据上文中的“Jackie said yes”及语境可知，Jackie需要轮椅，所以“我”让妻子去要一台轮椅。request意为“请求”，符合语境。故选B。
55. C 考查介词短语辨析。根据下文“I explained her condition quickly.”及语境可知，由于误解，机场工作人员拒绝让她登机。due to意为“由于”，符合语境。故选C。
56. A 考查动词辨析。根据下文中的“the employees agreed to let her board”可推知，此处表示工作人员拒绝让她登机。refuse意为“拒绝”，符合语境。故选A。
57. B 考查名词辨析。根据上文“I explained her condition quickly.”可知，“我”快速向工作人员解释了Jackie的情况。在“我”的帮助下，工作人员同意让她登机。assistance意为“帮助”，符合语境。故选B。
58. D 考查副词辨析。根据下文中的“Jackie soon made a full recovery”可知，幸运的是，Jackie很快就完全恢复了。fortunately意为“幸运地”，符合语境。故选D。
59. C 考查名词辨析。根据下文“Everyone has their own battles and struggles.”及语境可知，此处表示不要害怕倾听陌生人（的声音）。stranger意为“陌生人”，符合语境。故选C。
60. A 考查副词辨析。根据语境可知，每个人都有自己的困境。有时我们只需有人来关心一下自己。sometimes意为“有时”，符合语境。故选A。
第二节
本文是一篇说明文。文章以布达拉宫的壁画开篇，列举了一些西藏与其他地区在早期进行文化交流的证据。
61. which/that 考查定语从句。分析句子结构可知，“ illustrates a historic marriage ... ethnic groups”为定语从句，空处在从句中作主语，先行词“a wall painting”指物，所以关系代词可用which或that。故填which/that。
62. further 考查副词的比较级。理解句意可知，此处表示“有助于进一步揭示西藏与中国其他地区的文化交流”，空处表示“进一步”，所以应用副词far的比较级。故填further。
63. Originally 考查词性转换。空处修饰动词built，应用original的副词形式；且空处位于句首，首字母要大写。故填Originally。
64. an 考查冠词。理解句意可知，此处表示“桑耶寺始建于八世纪，被列为文化遗产和建筑风格相结合的典范”。根据语境可知，此处表泛指，应填不定冠词，且example是以元音音素开头的单词。故填an。
65. identified 考查非谓语动词。分析空处所在句可知，is是谓语动词，所以空处要用所给词的非谓语动词形式。且identify与其逻辑主语“The earliest archaeological site”之间是动宾关系，所以应用其过去分词形式。故填identified。
66. have been found 考查时态、语态和主谓一致。根据“since 2016”可知，本句应用现在完成时态；“More than 4,000 stone artifacts”作主语，是复数形式，且与find之间是动宾关系，所以应用被动语态。故填have been found。
67. dates 考查时态。date back to意为“追溯到……”。根据上文语境可知，本句在陈述事实，因此宾语从句也应用一般现在时态。故填dates。
68. discoveries 考查名词的数。discovery为可数名词，意为“发现”。根据空后的谓语“have also provided”可知，此处应用名词复数形式作主语。故填discoveries。
69. in 考查介词。be similar in ...是固定搭配，表示“在……方面相似”。故填in。
70. connection 考查词性转换。由空前的“The cultural”以及空后的谓语动词“is”可知，空处应用可数名词单数或不可数名词作主语。connect的名词形式为connection。故填connection。
第四部分 写作
第一节 短文改错
第一处（第一句）：在paid和visit之间加上a 考查冠词。visit作名词用，是可数名词。pay a visit意为“游览；参观；访问”。故在paid和visit之间加上a。
第二处（第二句）：us→me 考查代词。通读全文可知，短文介绍的是作者自己的游览经历，因此应用第一人称单数形式。故将us改为me。
第三处（第三句）：were→was 考查主谓一致。分析句子结构可知，该句主语为The Mountain Resort。resort意为“度假胜地，旅游胜地”，是可数名词单数形式，因此谓语动词应用单数形式。故将were改为was。
第四处（第四句）：but→and 考查连词。句意：它建于1703年，耗时大约90年的时间才建造而成。分析句子结构并结合句意可知，前后两个分句之间不是转折关系，而是顺承关系。故将but改为and。
第五处（第五句）：situating→situated 考查非谓语动词。分析句子结构可知，本句已有谓语动词is，因此situate是作非谓语。当表示“某物位于……”时，常用be situated形式。故将situating改为situated。
第六处（第五句）：删掉far 考查固定搭配。“距离+away from+地方”意为“离某地……远”；且far不能用在表示距离的量词之后。故删掉far。
第七处（第六句）：original→originally 考查词性转换。修饰谓语动词was built应用副词。故将original改为originally。
第八处（第七句）：Wander→Wandering 考查非谓语动词。分析句子结构可知，本句已有谓语动词“was attracted ... and amazed”，因此wander是作非谓语。wander和主语I是逻辑上的主谓关系，因此应用其现在分词形式，表示主动。故将Wander改为Wandering。
第九处（第七句）：with→at 考查介词。sb is amazed at sth是固定结构，意为“某人对某事感到惊讶”。故将with改为at。
第十处（第八句）：takes→took 考查时态。通读全文可知，短文讲述作者去年暑假的旅游经历，因此应用一般过去时态。故将takes改为took。
第二节 书面表达
参考范文：
Convenience Food or Fresh Food on Weekends
Recently, our school conducted a survey, which aims to figure out how the students enjoy their weekend dinner. The following are the results.
As the survey results indicate, 50% have reported having fresh food prepared at home and 32% choose to dine out in restaurants on weekends. By contrast, the students who order takeouts or eat prepared store-bought food are fewer. The result that most students prefer eating fresh food prepared at home is not surprising since it is healthier and safer. In addition, they could spend some quality time together.
In my opinion, it is a new trend for young people to learn to prepare food themselves and it’s no doubt that bonding with family is of significance in Chinese culture.
听力材料
Text 1
M: What’s wrong with you, Alice You really look anxious and nervous.
W: I’m going to give a lecture to some international students about customs and behaviors. I’m not sure I can explain it well.
Text 2
W: Could you help me take two tomatoes out from the fridge
M: Yes. What else would you like me to do
W: Well, I’m busy preparing our dinner. Could you wash the vegetables
Text 3
M: I need to go out for a break. The loud music is killing me!
W: We’ve got to talk to our neighbor. He can’t always throw these “surprise parties” on weekends just because he feels happy to do so!
Text 4
W: Er ... All we need is milk, eggs, flour and fruit, right
M: Well, sugar is of vital importance in baking cakes.
W: OK. Let me write it down while it’s still fresh in my mind. Can you go with me
M: Sure. Anyway, the supermarket isn’t far away.
Text 5
W: Did you have a good time with your uncle’s family during Christmas, Peter
M: Yes. I had a really nice time with my cousins. We got on really well. I’ve invited them to come to our city for a trip.
Text 6
W: Tom, it’s too late. Did you miss the last bus
M: No. I am terribly sorry, Mom. I was so attracted by the singer at the subway exit. So I forgot the time.
W: Singing at the subway exit Oh, it sounds like someone needs some money.
M: Oh, no, the guy was a singer who played the guitar and sang pop songs. Many people were drawn to his music and there was no hat on the ground. He sang for appreciation, not for money.
W: Honey, have you heard of the real art at the subway station
M: No, but I guess it must be amazing.
Text 7
M: Hey, Monica. I can’t attend the meeting this afternoon. I have something more important to do.
W: All right. But can you attend the gathering at the restaurant this evening
M: Well, do you know when we are supposed to show up at the restaurant
W: David told everyone to be there by 7:00. He also said if any of us was going to be late, just call him.
M: But I have been asked by Mr. Smith to drop off some packages at our head office. I’m not sure if I will be able to make it there on time.
W: If you are driving out to the head office now, you’d better call David. The traffic usually gets pretty heavy during the time you come back.
Text 8
W: Do you still ride a shared bike from your home to the subway station
M: Of course I do. How about you
W: I do it on Mondays and Tuesdays. On Wednesdays, Thursdays and Fridays I go to work on foot. I think it is good exercise.
M: That’s a long way.
W: I count the steps on my smart phone, 15,000 each day.
M: Those things aren’t accurate.
W: Well, let’s just say I do a lot of steps each day. Steps are keeping me healthy.
M: Riding a bike is exercise as well. Plus, it’s cheap and quicker.
W: I love those shared bikes, but I hate to see them being piled up and blocking entrances and sidewalks.
M: So do I. The industry grew more quickly than anyone anticipated. Now I’m heading back to the office, so any good advice of exercise — cycling or walking I wonder which is the best form of exercise.
W: It’s hard to say. Either of them is helpful.
M: It makes sense.
Text 9
M: Hi, Jenny. It has been a lot of time since the last time I saw you.
W: Yes. Three years have passed since you moved away. I often miss the days when we lived in the same building. How are you doing
M: Not bad. It would be better if I had a job in the field of finance right now.
W: You are looking for a job Why
M: I’ve already finished my studies and graduated last month.
W: How long have you been looking for a job
M: I just started last week.
W: Didn’t you have any interviews with those firms that came to your campus
M: I only got one interview because of my tight schedule. A month has gone by and I haven’t heard from them. I guess I didn’t make it. But I made sure I was on time. Anyway, nothing is worse than being late for an interview.
W: Don’t worry, Calvin. It is helpful to do some preparations before you go to an interview. You need to know the company well.
M: I don’t know about this. I’ve only thought about questions they might ask me.
W: Oh, yes. It also plays an important part.
Text 10
W: All right, everyone. Please take your seats. I will try to make this quick, because there are still two groups left to speak to. There were many questions in the first group before this, and I want you to have time to ask me some as well.
Starting next week, we will begin selling outdoor furniture. This new section in our store will be going directly next to the living room furniture. I am hoping to fill up our new warehouse within the next two years. I have already begun negotiating with a home electronics company, who is interested in becoming our partner.
I just have to say how happy I am that our store has been able to grow over these past few years. When my father started this store 10 years ago, he did it with the intention of being better than the competition. I was already proud of our store when we grew too big for the old building last year and moving here was a great decision. In just four years since I became manager, we have begun selling to customers all around the country and we have doubled our profits in that time! It is all thanks to your hard work, which is why everyone will be getting a raise today! Every one of you deserves this, and I am happy to have you on my team.2023—2024学年高三上学期9月月考英语试卷（全国卷）
英 语
（试卷满分150分，考试时间120分钟）
注意事项：
1. 答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。
2. 回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。
3. 考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节 （共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What is Alice worried about
A. An upcoming lecture. B. The students’ behavior. C. A traditional custom.
2. Where does the conversation take place
A. In a restaurant. B. At home. C. In a supermarket.
3. How do the speakers feel now
A. Surprised. B. Happy. C. Annoyed.
4. What is the woman doing
A. Baking cakes. B. Preparing for a party. C. Making a shopping list.
5. What are the speakers mainly talking about
A. Peter’s holiday. B. Peter’s trip plan. C. Peter’s cousins.
第二节 （共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. Why did Tom come home late
A. He lost track of the time.
B. He missed the last bus.
C. He finished school late.
7. What does Tom say about the singer
A. He needs some money.
B. He just wants to be appreciated.
C. He’s good at singing classical songs.
听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。
8. What did David ask his colleagues to do
A. Attend the afternoon meeting.
B. Arrive at the restaurant by 7:00.
C. Leave early to avoid busy traffic.
9. Why is the man unable to ensure his arrival time
A. He has to pick up Mr. Smith.
B. He has to prepare for a meeting.
C. He has to deliver some packages.
10. What does Monica suggest the man do
A. Give David a call. B. Skip the gathering. C. Take public transportation.
听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。
11. How often does the woman walk to work
A. Two days a week. B. Three days a week. C. Four days a week.
12. What does the woman dislike about shared bikes
A. The speed. B. The expense. C. The parking situation.
13. Where will the man go next
A. His office. B. His home. C. The subway station.
听第9段材料，回答第14至16题。
14. What is the probable relationship between the speakers
A. Schoolmates.
B. Former neighbors.
C. Interviewer and interviewee.
15. Why does the man feel upset about the interview on campus
A. He didn’t attend it.
B. He found it meaningless.
C. He hasn’t received any notice.
16. What advice does Jenny give to the man about interviews
A. Providing satisfactory answers.
B. Arriving at the company on time.
C. Doing research on the company beforehand.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. Which group do the listeners belong to
A. The first one. B. The second one. C. The third one.
18. What product is the store selling now
A. Home electronics. B. Outdoor furniture. C. Indoor furniture.
19. When did the speaker become the store manager
A. One year ago. B. Four years ago. C. Ten years ago.
20. Who is the speaker talking to
A. The employees. B. The customers. C. The partners.
第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分40分）
第一节 （共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
You can study a wide range of topics in an art and design school, from history to sculpting, theater to fashion. Due to the variety, learners remain interested, and a challenging curriculum encourages them to think outside the box. The top art schools in Hong Kong are listed below.
The Hong Kong Polytechnic University (HK PolyU)
The school benefits from its location as a link between the East and the West, enabling its students to improve their creative skills while also gaining a distinctively global cultural awareness. Practical skills are thought to be a crucial component of the problem-solving process, which students must practise through practical workshop activities. The workshop facilities give students the chance to become familiar with the techniques needed for perfect making.
The University of Hong Kong (UHK)
Study subjects that interest you and select from a large range of beginner arts courses to learn about new themes. You have the freedom to create a course of study that is ideal for you thanks to the program’s adaptable curriculum and inviting dual (双的) degree choices. You will choose your own combination of courses during your first year from a wide range of basic arts and humanities courses.
The Chinese University of Hong Kong (CUHK)
The Faculty (系) of Arts at CUHK has always been essential to the university’s commitment to combining Chinese with Western traditions, with bilingual teaching, and with cutting-edge interdisciplinary (跨学科的) research.
Vocational Training Council (VTC)
The multidisciplinary program here exposes students to a wide range of modern visual arts mediums and actively involves them in the larger cultural sectors. And the program promotes a dynamic climate where interdisciplinary arts projects grow via cooperation and creativity within the arts sector. Graduates are also encouraged to pursue careers as professional artists.
21. Which school can you choose to learn to make things
A. The Hong Kong Polytechnic University.
B. The University of Hong Kong.
C. The Chinese University of Hong Kong.
D. Vocational Training Council.
22. What can students do at the University of Hong Kong
A. Obtain a global cultural awareness.
B. Choose courses suitable for them.
C. Perform cutting-edge interdisciplinary research.
D. Pursue careers as professional artists.
23. What do the four schools have in common
A. They all carry out bilingual teaching.
B. They all offer interdisciplinary courses.
C. They all aim to develop innovative talents.
D. They all provide a dynamic learning atmosphere for students.
B
Located among the forests where eagles fly overhead, Jabal Sawda has long been one of Saudi Arabia’s best places for mountaineers. At 2,999m, Jabal Sawda had been considered the kingdom’s highest peak until twin mountaineers, Matthew and Eric Gilbertson, climbed it in 2018, finding it to be about three metres shy of Jabal Ferwa.
For more than a decade, the twins have traveled to one country after another around the world, rewriting the mountain record books about places across the Middle East and West Africa. So far they have reached the peaks of more than 100 countries and newly identified the highest points in Togo, Guinea-Bissau and Ivory Coast.
Matthew, a research scientist at Lockheed Martin in Palo Alto, California, and Eric, an instructor in mechanical engineering at Seattle University, said their work was motivated by a need for accuracy and love for mountaineering. “If we’re going to go through all the effort to visit a country and visit the highest mountain, we want to be sure that we have indeed visited the highest mountain,” Matthew said. “We consider it assistance to future mountaineers to have an accurate survey done so that they can focus their efforts on getting to whichever peak they want to get to.”
The twins’ love of mountaineering began when they were children with family trips to the Great Smoky Mountains in the southeastern United States. When they were students at the Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT), they started climbing as many mountains as possible. In 2012, after achieving their goal of reaching the highest point of each US state, they turned their attention to the rest of the world.
24. What can we learn about Jabal Sawda
A. It’s Saudi Arabia’s best place.
B. It’s lower than Jabal Ferwa.
C. It’s Saudi Arabia’s highest peak.
D. It’s better-known than Jabal Ferwa.
25. Why have the twins traveled to different countries in the past years
A. To write books about mountains.
B. To rename the peaks of mountains.
C. To measure their highest mountain.
D. To admire good views of the mountain.
26. What do Matthew’s words indicate about their work in paragraph 3
A. It satisfies their need for accuracy.
B. It deepens their love for climbing.
C. It makes them focus their efforts on life.
D. It helps climbers choose their destination.
27. What might the following paragraph talk about
A. The twins’ other goals in their life.
B. The twins’ experiences in other countries.
C. The twins’ influence on other mountaineers.
D. The twins’ achievements in finding peaks.
C
Today, the world celebrates the United Nations International Day of Older Persons (UNIDOP) under the theme “Resilience (复原力) of Older Persons in a Changing World”.
The number of older persons worldwide is projected to reach more than 1.5 billion in 2050. All regions will see an increase in the size of the older population between 2022 and 2050. Less developed countries excluding the least developed countries will be home to more than two-thirds of the world’s older population (1.1 billion) in 2050. Yet the fastest increase is projected to take place in the least developed countries, where the number of people aged 65 or over could rise from 37 million in 2019 to 120 million in 2050 (about 225%).
As to the “Silver Generation”, all countries have to bear increased pension (养老金) and healthcare costs as people live longer. But including the elderly in a productive way in the national economy has become a major problem for many countries. Many young families also struggle to care for their elderly parents or give it up altogether. Meanwhile, though older persons continue to meaningfully contribute to their political, economic, social and cultural lives, their contributions and experience are largely ignored.
The 2022 theme of UNIDOP serves as a fillip, something that jogs your memory and makes you think about the significant role older people play in taking up global challenges and contributing to their solutions. UNIDOP 2022 is also a call for action and opportunity to hear older persons’ voices and show their resilience and contributions in society.
Age is just a number and only a state of mind. Indeed, what matters is ageing elegantly, accompanied by good health. It is meaningless to live to 85 or 90 if one is limited to bed, unable to move around. But this could be a thing of the past in the light of rapid medical advances, which will give mobility and a new life to the elderly. I believe there will come a time when one’s actual age doesn’t really matter anymore in both a physical and mental sense.
28. Why are the figures used in paragraph 2
A. To clarify the gap between rich and poor.
B. To show the growth in the older population.
C. To explain the correctness of the UN statistics.
D. To analyze the reasons for population ageing.
29. What does the author say about the “Silver Generation”
A. It is a double-edged sword.
B. It is a force to be treated seriously.
C. It is a huge burden to young families.
D. It is a by-product of the economic development.
30. Which word is closest in meaning to “fillip” underlined in paragraph 4
A. Reference. B. Guideline.
C. Reminder. D. Platform.
31. What is the author’s understanding of age
A. Age affects both physical and mental health.
B. Age is not a number but a mental state.
C. Age does not matter in the medical field.
D. Age pales by comparison with health.
D
Young children often benefit from the structure and routine of a traditional classroom setting. On the other hand, older students may find that they learn better when given the freedom to explore material at their own pace. In order to provide the full benefit of online learning, educators must be aware of the needs of their students and therefore tailor their instruction.
As anyone who has tried to learn from videos knows, it can be difficult to search, obtain, and sum up important information. In response to this, Hari Subramonyam, a research professor, and his two colleagues, have developed a new app called VideoSticker which uses artificial intelligence (AI).
The app uses AI to automatically identify and trim (整理) objects out of video lessons and place them into a note-taking area. In addition to capturing images, VideoSticker also pulls in key text, joining it with the imagery. This way, students can easily handle images and text and add those elements in their own explanations. As a result, the app turns the passive experience of watching a video into an active one with lots of enthusiasm and determination, which helps students to better engage with the material and remember the information.
The test of VideoSticker’s effectiveness was conducted with 10 graduate and undergraduate students. During the test, the students completed a 75- to 90-minute note-taking session of a biology class. The researchers reported positive feedback from participants, with particular praise to VideoSticker’s flexibility in navigating between notes and video content. Next up, the team will partner with other educators to further evaluate and improve VideoSticker before making the tool fully available commercially.
With more and more people turning to videos for educational content, apps like VideoSticker could help to make the learning process easier and more efficient. Other education-based innovations we have spotted recently include an app that lets students upload maths problems through their phones, as well as a platform for students with learning differences and a tool that identifies struggling readers sooner.
32. What should teachers do to make online learning more efficient
A. Guide the students to use the material properly.
B. Satisfy their students’ different demands fully.
C. Adjust their educational activities accordingly.
D. Create the classroom atmosphere gradually.
33. How do students feel when learning on VideoSticker
A. Energetic and involved. B. Thoughtful and focused.
C. Helpful and encouraged. D. Confident and determined.
34. What can we infer from the last paragraph
A. More education innovation come into being.
B. More practice bases are to be developed.
C. More burden is laid on students.
D. More people begin to make education videos.
35. Which of the following could be the best title for the text
A. An Available Method Makes Students Improve Study Efficiency
B. An AI Tool Makes It Easy for Students to Take Notes from Videos
C. An Advanced App Makes Students Interact Well with the Teachers
D. A Piece of Important Information Makes Students Benefit from Education
第二节 （共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
One of the primary goals of cognitive behavioral therapy (疗法) is finding effective ways to channel your anxiety into productive action. The best possible one is under the care of an experienced mental health care provider. Still, if you are hoping to stop being paralyzed (麻痹) by anxiety and use this energy to fuel and improve your life, you can. 36
Set a goal. Goal-setting is one way to use your anxiety as fuel. Take notice of your anxious thoughts and worries. What are you most concerned about 37 Instead of shaking in your boots, get to work developing a plan that allows you to overcome these fears.
Challenge yourself regularly to build resilience. Think of your resilience to anxiety as a muscle. 38 Rather than avoiding those situations that cause anxiety, gradually expose yourself to them more often. When you do this, you will find that, over time, they lose their power. For instance, if you hate public speaking, you might benefit from signing up for a local Toastmasters club. Doing so will allow you to practice speaking in front of a group more often, which will reduce your anxiety.
39 Anxiety can feel like a live wire in your body. You can’t sit still or focus. Exercise is a great activity to make use of this spare energy. Exercise offers a host of benefits like fighting off illness and helping you manage weight. One of the benefits most helpful to you, however, is its ability to neutralize anxiety and improve your mood.
Perform reality testing. You don’t have to become a slave to your anxious thoughts, giving them permission to get you all worked up. 40 Reality testing involves assessing a situation for errors in thinking. To assess the reality of this situation, you want to ask what evidence is there that says this is true. Did your friends actually call you lame Are they avoiding you
A. Put them to the test instead.
B. What are your biggest fears
C. Burn off nervous energy with physical activity.
D. The more you use the muscle, the stronger it becomes.
E. How can you deal with getting fired if it does happen
F. Just transform anxiety into action by using positive strategies.
G. When you find yourself becoming anxious, check your thought patterns.
第三部分 语言知识运用（共两节，满分45分）
第一节 （共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
When my wife and I were about to board a flight, a woman at the gate suddenly became ill.
I came back from the restroom and sat down next to my wife. She 41 to me that something was 42 . The woman fell down on the seat and quickly lost 43 of her body. I went over and half knelt down before her, 44 if she was okay.
I introduced myself as a chiropractor (按摩师) and 45 she was Jackie. I was not a medical doctor, but I was 46 to help her in any way she needed.
I took her hand in one hand and 47 her head in the other, carefully asking what was happening. Jackie 48 that when she was exposed to too much 49 and stimulation, her body went into overdrive. 50 , she had had the condition for thirty years and would be “perfectly 51 soon”. She said she forgot to bring her medical 52 when she left home.
I asked her if she needed a wheelchair to board the 53 , to which Jackie said yes. I asked my wife to 54 a wheelchair. I stayed behind to ensure Jackie boarded the plane safely, but
55 some miscommunication, the employees of the airline 56 her.
I explained her condition quickly. With my 57 , the employees agreed to let her board.
58 , Jackie soon made a full recovery.
Don’t be afraid to listen to 59 and help them out. Everyone has their own battles and struggles. We 60 just need someone to care about us.
41. A. whispered B. replied C. pointed D. sighed
42. A. difficult B. funny C. wrong D. ordinary
43. A. balance B. ability C. way D. control
44. A. asking B. wondering C. hoping D. expecting
45. A. realized B. learned C. guessed D. found
46. A. determined B. able C. anxious D. willing
47. A. patted B. touched C. supported D. covered
48. A. explained B. described C. expressed D. admitted
49. A. pain B. sunlight C. suffering D. stress
50. A. Therefore B. However C. Instead D. Besides
51. A. right B. normal C. fine D. great
52. A. report B. test C. explanation D. evidence
53. A. ship B. train C. plane D. bus
54. A. ask B. request C. offer D. provide
55. A. except for B. thanks to C. due to D. according to
56. A. refused B. promised C. allowed D. accepted
57. A. comfort B. assistance C. confidence D. suggestion
58. A. Clearly B. Hopefully C. Finally D. Fortunately
59. A. patients B. friends C. strangers D. adults
60. A. sometimes B. always C. hardly D. never
第二节 （共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
The Potala Palace (布达拉宫) features a wall painting 61 illustrates a historic marriage between members of the Han and Tibetan ethnic groups. Like the wall painting, many other relics in Tibet have also helped 62 (far) uncover the cultural communication between Tibet and the rest of China.
63 (original) built in the eighth century, the Samye Monastery is listed as 64 example of a combination of cultural heritage and architectural styles, while the Shalu Monastery, set up in 1087, is another example of a mix of architectural styles.
The earliest archaeological (考古学的) site 65 (identify) at the heart of the Qinghai-Tibet Plateau (高原) so far is the Nwya Devu site. More than 4,000 stone artifacts (石器)
66 (find) at the Paleolithic site since 2016. Scientific analysis shows that the site 67 (date) back to some 40,000 years ago.
Archaeological 68 (discovery) have also provided abundant evidence of cultural integration. For example, the wooden carving unearthed from Tibet’s Ngari and those from Xinjiang are similar 69 shape.
The cultural 70 (connect) between Tibet and the Yellow River basin is proved at the Karub ruins with the finding of a crop planted in northern China. The finding proves the communication between the plateau and northern China some 5,000 years ago.
写作（共两节，满分35分）
第一节 短文改错（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文，请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误，每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。
增加：在缺词处加一个漏字符号（∧），并在其下面写出该加的词。
删除：把多余的词用斜线（\）划掉。
修改：在错的词下划一横线，并在该词下面写出修改后的词。
注意：1. 每处错误及其修改均仅限一词；
2. 只允许修改10处，多者（从第11处起）不计分。
Last summer vacation, I paid visit to Chengde Mountain Resort in Hebei. This park left us a deep impression. The Mountain Resort, a key national cultural protection unit, were listed in the World Cultural Heritage Directory in 1994. It was built in 1703 but took about 90 years to construct. The Mountain Resort, situating in the north of Chengde, is 230 kilometers far away from Beijing. It covers an area of 5.64 million square meters and was original built for the royal families to spend the hot summer months. Wander in the Mountain Resort, I was deeply attracted by its greatness and amazed with everything there. To tell the truth, it takes me two days to complete the journey.
书面表达（满分25分）
为了解学生周末用餐的情况，你的学校进行了一次相关的调查，下表是这次调查的结果。请你根据该表格中的数据，以“Convenience Food or Fresh Food on Weekends ”为题写一篇短文，内容包括：
1. 学生周末用餐选择情况的概述；
2. 简单的分析；
3. 你的想法。
Fresh food prepared at home Prepared store-bought food Ordering takeouts Dining out in restaurants
50% 4% 14% 32%
注意：
1 写作词数应为100左右；
2. 短文的题目和首句已为你写好；
3. 可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
Convenience Food or Fresh Food on Weekends
Recently, our school conducted a survey, which aims to figure out how the students enjoy their weekend dinner. _____________________________________________________________
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