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2023－2024学年度高一年级第一学期教学质量调研（一）
英 语 试 题
注意事项：
1. 答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。
2. 回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案
标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题
时，将答案写在答题卡上指定位置，在其他位置作答一律无效。
3. 本试卷满分为 150分，考试时间为 120分钟。考试结束后，将本试卷和
答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力（共两节, 满分 30分）
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案
转涂到答题卡上。
第一节
听下面 5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出
最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有 10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每
段对话仅读一遍。
1. What will Jason do
A. Go hiking. B. Read at home. C. Watch over the tents.
2. What is the woman
A. A teacher. B. A student. C. A police officer.
3. What are the speakers talking about
A. A supermarket. B. A restaurant. C. A party.
4. Where does Mary prefer to study
A. In Britain. B. In Germany. C. In New Zealand.
5. What does the woman advise the man to do
A. Join a health club.
B. Have a good rest.
C. Stay with the young.
第二节
听下面 5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三
个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题 5秒钟；
听完后，各小题将给出 5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
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听第 6段材料，回答第 6、7 题。
6. When did the man begin to play the guitar
A. 8 years ago. B. 10 years ago. C. 18 years ago.
7. What is the most difficult for the man
A. The piano. B. The guitar. C. The drums.
听第 7段材料，回答第 8至 10 题。
8. How many people will eat out tonight
A. 2. B. 4. C. 6.
9. Where will the speakers eat tonight
A. At the Silo.
B. At the Bingo’s.
C. At the Sunshine Beach.
10. What will Mike do next
A. Book a table.
B. Make a phone call.
C. Buy some ice cream.
听第 8段材料，回答第 11 至 13 题。
11. How often does Tony usually get pocket money
A. Once a week. B. Every other week. C. Once a month.
12. Which club did Tony give money to
A. The Sports Club.
B. The Animal Club.
C. The Environment Protection Club.
13. When did Jack donate money to the Sports Club
A. This week. B. Last week. C. Last month.
听第 9段材料，回答第 14 至 16 题。
14. How long will the woman stay in the countryside
A. About one day. B. About two days. C. About three days.
15. What will the man do during his trip
A. Go camping. B. Watch the sunset. C. Swim in the river.
16. What does the woman think of riding a motorbike
A. Exciting. B. Relaxing. C. Dangerous.
听第 10 段材料，回答第 17 至 20 题。
17. What is Julie celebrating for
A. An award of a competition.
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B. The publication of a new novel.
C. Her graduation from university.
18. Who is Julie
A. The speaker’s daughter.
B. The speaker’s friend.
C. The speaker’s student.
19. What did Julie do as a child
A. She gave some lectures.
B. She joined a writing club.
C. She won several competitions.
20. Why does the speaker leave a message
A. To ask Julie about her new novel.
B. To encourage Julie in her writing.
C. To send his congratulations to Julie.
第二部分 阅读（共两节, 满分 50分）
第一节 （共 15 小题；每题 2.5 分，满分 37.5 分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Exciting celebrations and festivals around the world
Vivid Sydney, Australia: A Festival of Light, Music, and Ideas.
When: Friday, 26 May 2023 to Saturday, 17 June 2023
Where: Sydney, Australia
Age group:All ages, a family-friendly event
About: Vivid Sydney is one of the most popular annual events in Sydney. While it is the light
installations(装置) shining on the Sydney Opera House and Harbour Bridge that gain the most
attention, the festival combines dozens of light installations, musical performances, and ideas to
encourage and celebrate creativity.
Merrie Monarch Festival, USA
When: Sunday, 9 April 2023 to Saturday, 15 April 2023
Age group:All ages, although better for older kids and teens interested in Hawaiian culture
About: It includes a 3-day celebration of traditional and modern Hawaiian hula dancing that
takes place on the Big Island of Hawaii. It’s an intense hula competition with participants(参与
者) from all around the world. There are also incredible Hawaiian craft fairs, a parade, and other
activities.
Parintins Folklore Festival, Brazil
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When: 24, 25, and 26 June 2023
Where: Parintins Town, Amazonas State, Brazil
Age group: Kids between 10 years old and older are allowed into the outdoor sports ground.
About: It is an important part of Brazilian culture because it celebrates an old local legend (传
说) about a lady and an ox. It combines the local legend and culture with modern rhythms and
themes from the whole country, which is why it is recognized as a cultural heritage of Brazil.
21. What can you do when attending Vivid Sydney
A. You may gain the most attention.
B. You are encouraged to be more creative.
C. You have a chance to take part in a hula competition.
D. You can enjoy musical performances and shining lights.
22. What do Merrie Monarch Festival and Parintins Folklore Festival have in common
A. They are family-friendly.
B. They both last three days.
C. They’re both suitable for older children.
D. They’re celebrated to promote traditional dances.
23. Where is this text probably taken from
A. An art magazine. B. A tourism website.
C. An academic article. D. A geography textbook.
B
A 32-year-old Australian runner has set a new world record for continuous daily marathons
as a woman.
Erchana Murray-Bartlett set out from Cape York, the tip of Australia, in August 2022. She
then ran a marathon every day for 150 days — a 3,900-mile journey that ended in Melbourne on
Monday, January 16, 2023.
By running the entire north-south distance of Australia, Murray-Bartlett beat the record
held by British runner Kate Jayden, who ran a marathon for 106 continuous days last year. In
addition to the new Guinness World Record, Murray-Bartlett was running to raise money for a
conservation (保护 ) charity, the Wilderness Society. She raised $70,000 during her journey
across Australia.
“Yesterday was everything,” she said. “When I stood on the start line on August 20, I could
never have imagined what the next 22 weeks would bring... I can’t put into words how good
crossing that finish line felt, and to be honest, I think I’ll be processing for a few weeks, months,
and even years to come.”
Murray-Bartlett has been running professionally (专业地 ) for many years. When she
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missed out on qualifying for the 2020 Tokyo Olympics, she decided on a new goal: running the
length of Australia and setting a new female record for continuous marathons.
To state the obvious: it wasn’t always easy. Murray-Bartlett experienced three injuries
during the first 3 weeks of the journey. But she didn’t give up, and her body adapted as she ran
along her country’s coasts, rainforests, dirt roads and highways. She ran through heavy rain and
intense heat.
The journey also served to raise awareness of Australia’s extinction(灭绝) crisis. Many of
the island nation’s plants and animals are found nowhere else — yet 500 of them are threatened
with extinction. Throughout the trip, Murray-Bartlett highlighted her country’s biodiversity on
social media. When she finally crossed the finish line on Monday evening, she learned she’d
raised nearly double her fundraising (募捐) goal.
24. What’s one goal of Murray-Bartlett’s running
A. To enter the next Olympics.
B. To go on running professionally.
C. To collect money for protecting wildlife.
D. To help bring back lost plants and animals.
25. How did she feel when crossing the finish line
A. Pleased. B. Faint. C. Confident. D. Horrible.
26. What do we know about the journey from paragraph 6
A. Murray-Bartlett finished the journey uninjured.
B. The good weather continued during her journey.
C. There were many challenges during the journey.
D. The journey raised awareness of extinction crisis.
27. Which words can best describe Murray-Bartlett
A. Energetic and frank. B. Tough and determined.
C. Positive and adventurous. D. Considerate and generous.
C
According to the United Nations, “The urban (城市的) population of the world has grown
rapidly from 746 million in 1950 to 3.9 billion in 2014. Sixty-six percent of us will likely live in
urban environments by 2050.”
Along with concerns about climate change and the distances, much of our food travels
from farm to plate, which has spurred (刺激) a renewed interest in producing food where people
live. Urban agriculture won’t solve all food production and distribution problems, but it could
help take pressure off rural land while providing other advantages.
Former Vancouver city councillor Peter Ladner writes in The Urban Food Revolution (革
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命), “When urban agriculture flourishes (兴旺), our children are healthier and smarter about
what they eat, fewer people are hungry, more local jobs are created, local economies are
stronger, our neighborhoods are greener and safer, and our communities are more inclusive.”
A 2016 study from the US Johns Hopkins Center for a Livable Future found that urban
agriculture could “increase social capital, community well-being, and civic engagement with the
food system”, as well as enhance food security, provide ecosystem services, improve health and
build people’s skills.
Urban agriculture isn’t new. During the First and Second World Wars, Canada, the US, the
UK and Germany encouraged “victory gardens” to improve people’s life by reducing pressure
on food systems and farms. Gardens and chicken cages appeared in yards, parks, school fields,
golf courses, railway edges and empty lands. Peter Ladner notes that, during the Second World
War, the UK had 1.5 million small land producing 10 percent of the country’s food, including
half of its fruit and vegetables; and by war’s end, more than 20 million home gardens provided
40 percent of the US domestically (国内的) consumed products.
Indeed, there were fewer people and more open spaces then, but it’s still possible to grow
food in urban areas today, especially with new technologies and enriched soil techniques. Peter
Ladner writes that Toronto plans to provide 25 percent of its fruit and vegetable production
within city limits by 2025.
28. What are mentioned by Peter Ladner and Johns Hopkins Center
A. The revolutions of urban food. B. The well-being of our children.
C. The development of food production. D. The benefits of urban agriculture.
29. What do we know about “victory gardens”
A. They first appeared in the US.
B. They were built in various places.
C. They helped reduce people’s stress.
D. They provided 40% of the UK’s food.
pared with “victory gardens”, what’s the advantage of today’s urban agriculture
A. More open spaces. B. More variety in food.
C. Advanced technology. D. Increased production.
31. What’s the author’s purpose in writing the text
A. To advertise Toronto urban planning.
B. To analyse the problem of urban food.
C. To call for attention to urban population.
D. To introduce the idea of urban agriculture.
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D
Pandas are famously picky eaters. They only eat bamboo — a poor quality diet low in fat.
But the creatures appear to have evolved to get the most out of what they do eat, according
to a new study.
Their gut bacteria (肠道细菌) change in late spring and early summer when bamboo is at
its most nutritious — while it’s producing protein-rich green shoots. The bacteria make the bear
gain more weight and store more fat, which researchers said may make up for a lack of nutrients
later in the year when bamboo plants have only leaves to feed on.
To see how the gut bacteria could affect a panda’s metabolism(新陈代谢), the team first
collected the waste of eight wild giant pandas during both leaf-eating season and shoot-eating
season and then examined how the waste samples differed.
They found that a bacterium called Clostridium butyricum was more abundant in the
pandas’ guts during the season when they enjoy the fresh bamboo shoots.
To find whether this bacteria help the pandas gain and store weight, the researchers
performed a waste transplant (移植), putting the panda waste they collected into lab mice.
Researchers found that mice, transplanted with panda waste collected during shoot-eating
season, gained significantly more weight, despite eating the same amount of food.
Wei Fuwen, a coauthor of the study, said that further work is needed to prove the
connection. He added that their work could help improve the health of captive giant pandas.
32. What does the underlined word “shoots” in paragraph 3 mean
A. Fresh leaves. B. Gut bacteria.
C. Heavy weights. D. Newly-grown branches.
33. Why did researchers perform the waste transplant
A. To prove their thoughts. B. To challenge others’ belief.
C. To help pandas gain weight. D. To find differences in samples.
34. What isWei Fuwen’s attitude towards their work
A. Negative. B. Positive. C. Doubtful. D. Uncaring.
35. What can be a suitable title for the text
A. Why Grass-eating Pandas Are Round
B. What Giant Pandas Are Fond of Eating
C. How Gut Bacteria Change in Late Spring
D. Who Is to Blame for the Poor Diet of Pandas
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第二节 （共 5小题；每小题 2.5分，满分 12.5分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为
多余选项。
Who is a genius This question has greatly interested humankind for centuries.
Let’s state clearly: Einstein was a genius. His face is almost the international symbol for
genius. But we want to go beyond one man and explore the nature of genius itself. Why is it that
some people are so much more intelligent or creative than the rest of us 36
In the sciences and arts, those praised as geniuses were most often white men, of European
origin. 37 It’s said that history is written by the victors, and those victors set the
standards for admission to the genius club. But in fact, many contributions were made by
geniuses outside the club. 38
A study recently published by Science found that as young as age six, girls are less likely
than boys to say that members of their gender (性别) are “really, really smart.” Even worse, the
study found that girls act on that belief. Around age six they start to avoid activities said to be
for children who are “really, really smart.” Can our planet afford to have any great thinkers
become discouraged and give up 39
40 In a world with constant global communication, we’re all positioned to see
flashes of genius wherever they appear. And the more we look, the more we will see that social
factors (因素 ) like gender, race, and class do not determine the appearance of genius. As a
writer says, future geniuses come from those with “intelligence, creativity, perseverance (毅力),
and simple good fortune, who are able to change the world.”
A. And who are they
B. Here’s the good news.
C. Perhaps this comes as no surprise.
D. Nine times out of ten, the answer is “yes”.
E. Fortunately, they are now taken more seriously.
F. It does not take a genius to know the answer: absolutely not.
G. Most of them, due to their different color or belief, were ignored.
第三部分 语言运用（共两节, 满分 55 分）
第一节 （共 15小题；每小题 1分，满分 15分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处
的最佳选项。
I’ve stopped arguing with my mum this year. Almost every conversation we used to have
would end with 41 . We would argue about everything, from job to family. No conversation
was 42 .
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I’ve never doubted my mum’s 43 . I knew she wasn’t going to 44 me. But now
in her 70s, she is weak from having 45 cancer, and left with hearing loss; I’m aware that
we’re running out of 46 . We’ve been standing at the opposite 47 of a bridge, our
arms outstretched, not knowing how to get to each other for too long.
At the age of 47, I finally scratched the CD that Mum and I had been playing on a loop (循
环播放) for years. I began ending conversations early to 48 arguments, I stopped filling
silences, and I didn’t ask questions whose 49 I wouldn’t like.
I began to see my mum as a person separate from me. Mum came to England from Karachi
in 1973 when she was 23 years old. At the time, everything was 50 . She did not have the
energy to be angry like me.
This year, I have come to understand that my 51 was not for her, but grief (悲伤) for
the people and experiences that I feel I had 52 , for having had to fight alone. But my mum
had also had her battles, and she’d done her best. We love each other, and love requires 53 .
We’re not fully there yet. I’m still raw, and I get the sense that my mum is still nervous, but
we are walking towards each other, and 54 our hands will meet in the 55 of that
bridge.
41. A. comforts B. arguments C. explosion D. breakdown
42. A. enough B. thorough C. effective D. safe
43. A. love B. belief C. judgement D. words
44. A. shoot B. press C. leave D. trick
45. A. sought B. battled C. skipped D. attacked
46. A. luck B. patience C. money D. time
47. A. sides B. options C. targets D. aims
48. A. recover B. ignore C. avoid D. balance
49. A. answer B. influence C. origin D. disadvantage
50. A. smooth B. difficult C. joyful D. regular
51. A. concern B. fright C. anger D. confidence
52. A. acquired B. desired C. lost D. suffered
53. A. contact B. acceptance C. chat D. company
54. A. equally B. slightly C. hopefully D. nervously
55. A. centre B. hole C. basis D. scene
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第二节 （共 10小题；每小题 1.5分，满分 15分）
根据提示，在空白处填入 1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
56. I also had a friend ________ I trusted a lot.
57. I found Maths quite easy and ________(enjoy) because the material was less advanced in
the UK than in China.
58. Joining clubs ________ (be) usually a great way to meet British students and make friends
with them.
59. ________ (fortunate), your parents do not always agree and that makes you feel unhappy.
60. She then passed out in her morning PE lesson and ________ (rush) to hospital.
61. In a society ________ being thin is often seen as being beautiful, teenagers sometimes turn
to extreme methods to slim down quickly.
62. Friendship has a double advantage — happiness takes ________ a greater meaning and
trouble shared becomes a trouble halved!
63. Maybe she has a simple ________ (explain) for her behaviour.
64. ________ we’re walking to school, doing homework, or just hanging out at the weekend,
we’re hardly out of each other’s sight.
65. Friendships grow best between friends ________ communication is warm and open.
第三节 翻译句子 (共 10小题; 每小题 2.5分，满分 25分)
66. 大雪使得我们无法出去。（主+谓+宾+宾补）
_____________________________________________________________________________
67. 真正的朋友是在全世界都离开你的时候靠近你身边的人。（定语从句, walk in / out）
_____________________________________________________________________________
68. 时间不多了，我们必须要快一点。（so...that）
_____________________________________________________________________________
69. 你需要不断努力锻炼你的心智和发展你的性格。（make a continuous effort）
_____________________________________________________________________________
70. 这会提醒你为了什么而努力。（remind sb. of sth.）
_____________________________________________________________________________
71. 抛开一切烦恼，因为快乐是最重要的。（let go of sth.）
_____________________________________________________________________________
72. 你可能会感到焦虑，因为你正在以不同于你的朋友的速度成长。（at a different rate to sb）
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_____________________________________________________________________________
73. 我们期待为公司未来的发展做出贡献。（look forward to, contribute to）
_____________________________________________________________________________
74. 如果你从不使用字典，那拥有字典也就没有什么意义了。（There is no point in doing）
_____________________________________________________________________________
75. 通过友谊，我们可以变得更开心，更智慧，更满足。（主系表）
_____________________________________________________________________________
第四部分 应用文写作 （满分 15 分 ）
76. 假定你是李华，你弟弟李军发现他的好朋友 Jack沉迷游戏，他很担心，写信向你求助。
请你根据下面的提示写一封建议信。内容包括：
1. 表示理解；
2. 提出建议；
3. 表示祝愿。
注意：
1. 词数 80词左右；
2. 开头结尾已给出，不计入总词数；
3. 可适当增加细节；以使行文连贯。
Dear Li Jun,
▲
▲
▲
▲
▲
▲
All the best,
Li Hua
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