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绣湖教育集团八年级英语期中学力检测试题2023.11
考生须知：
1.全卷共8页，7大题，76小题。满分为120分。
2.本卷答案必须做在答题纸的对应位置上，做在试题卷上无效。
3.请考生将学校、姓名、准考证号填写在答题纸的对应位置上，并认真核对。
温馨提示：请仔细审题，细心答题，相信你一定会有出色的表现！
试 卷 I
说明：本卷共有3大题，45小题，共70分。请用2B铅笔在“答题纸”上将你认为正确的选项对应的小方框涂黑、涂满。
一、听力（本题有15小题；第一节每小题1分，第二、第三节每小题2分，共25分）
第一节：听小对话，请从A、B、C三个选项中选择正确的选项。
1. Who is more careful
A. Kate. B. Cindy. C. Linda.
2. What kind of TV shows does Sally like
A. A game show. B. A sports show. C. A talent show.
3. Where did the woman go last summer holiday
A. China. B. Japan. C. Australia.
4. What does the girl’s sister like
A. Singing. B. Drawing. C. Reading.
5. How does the man like the talk show
A. He doesn’t mind it. B. He doesn’t like it. C. He loves it.
第二节：听较长对话，选择正确的答案。
听第一段长对话，回答第6-7两小题。
6. What is Susan’s dream
A. To be a talented student.
B. To be in America’s Got Talent.
C. To visit America.
7. How many candles can Susan blow out at a time
A. Twelve. B. Ten. C. Twenty.
听第二段长对话，回答第8-10三小题。
8. What does Mike like to eat
A. Meat. B. Hamburgers. C. Fruit
9. How often does Mike exercise
A. Every week. B. Twice a week. C. Every day.
10. What sport does Mike often do
A. Baseball. B. Basketball. C. Soccer.
第三节：听短文，回答问题。
11. Where did Emily go on May Day vacation
A. Hangzhou. B. Hainan. C. Dalian.
12. What did Sam do on May 1st
A. He swam in the sea. B. He visited the museum. C. He enjoyed the park.
13. How did Sam go to the museum
A. On foot. B. By bus. C. By bike.
14. How was the weather on the morning of May 3rd
A. Sunny. B. Windy. C. Rainy.
15. How was the park
A. Big and noisy. B. Clean and green. C. Crowded and small.
二、完形填空（共15小题，每小题1分，共15分）
阅读下面短文，掌握大意，然后从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
Have you seen lions walking on the streets In China, it often happens during the new year days. The lions dance to the beat of a drum. They are not 16 lions. They are dancers in lion clothes.
The lions are part of the 17 that is centuries old. It started in China. It is meant to bring good 18 in the coming year. In many Asian countries, the new year is 19 with the new moon in January or February. In 2022, Chinese lunar (农历的) new year began 20 February 1.
Usually, a lion is made up of two 21 .One dancer controls the head. The other controls the body and 22 .
“I think of it as a sport,” says Anthony Huang aged sixteen. He is a(n) 23 of the New York Chinese Freemasons Athletic Club. Anthony performs as the lion’s head. It can weigh 20 pounds. Lion dancing is 24 to Anthony. “This tradition really represents(代表) me,” he says.
In the past, lion dancing was performed mostly by men. 25 it is more inclusive (包容的) today. LionDanceMe is a lion dancing group. 26 is in San Francisco, California. There are boys and girls in the group. They dance together.
Ananda Tang-Lee is seventeen. She says anyone can 27 lion dancing. “You have to have 28 that you can do it,” she says.
There are 29 types of lion dances. One of them is 30 Jong. In this one, lion dancers do tricks（把戏）on poles（杆子）more than eight feet tall. The dancers use their acrobatic(杂技)skills. They also use martial-arts（武术）skills.
16. A. real B. beautiful C. big D. interesting
17. A. story B. tradition C. skill D. history
18. A . habit B. time C. luck D. way
19. A. celebrated B. founded C. ended D. stopped
20. A .to B. in C. at D. on
21. A. visitors B. singers C. dancers D. trainers
22. A. tail B. head C. body D. arms
23. A. worker B. member C. listener D. speaker
24. A. important B. helpful C. kind D. close
25. A .Because B. If C. But D. And
26. A. He B. She C. You D. It
27. A. take off B .take down C. take away D. take up
28. A. confidence B. experience C. hobby D. energy
29. A. same B. different C. simple D. little
30. A. set B. asked C. called D.carried
三、阅读理解（共15小题，每小题2分，共30分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Winter is coming, the weather is getting colder and colder.
You wake up and don’t feel well. You have a headache and don’t want to get out of bed. And you can’t breathe out of your nose. What’s wrong You may have a cold.
Signs (迹象) of a cold *low fever *coughing *runny nose and watery eyes *feeling cold, tired and not hungry *hard to breathe because of your stuffy (不通的) nose
*Hot drinks make you cough less, so have some chicken soup. *A humidifier (加湿器) helps your nose feel better. *Have a good rest. Go to bed a little earlier for a few nights. *If you’re worried too much, you will feel worse when you have a cold. So try to relax and use the time to read, listen to music or watch a movie.
31. Which of the following is probably a sign of a cold
A. Having a low fever. B. Having a toothache.
C. Always feeling hungry. D. Being thirsty all the time.
32. You will cough less, if you__________.
A. turn on a humidifier B. have some hot soup
C. take more exercise D. have a hot bath
33.The last part is mainly about_______.
A. what the signs of a cold are.
B. why young children catch a cold easily.
C. why we should develop healthy habits
D. what we can do to feel better if we have a cold.
B
Imagine you are a member on your school’s football team. You are playing against another school. Your opponent appears to be strong. At halftime, the other team is ahead of yours by the score of 2-0. Are you feeling sad because of this “Oh! It couldn’t be worse! It’s almost impossible for us to win now.”
On February 6, China’s women’s national football team faced a similar situation. It was the final of the 2022 AFC Women’s Asian Cup. The ladies were playing against the women’s football team of South Korea. The halftime score (2-0) came as a big disappointment to many Chinese football fans.
However, the Chinese players on the field (球场) didn’t lose heart. Instead, they fought back. In the second half of the match, Tang Jiali, Zhang Linyan and Xiao Yuyi each scored a goal. The result of the match: China beat South Korea 3-2. It was the ninth time in the tournament’s(锦标赛的) history that China’s women’s national football team had been able to lift the Asian Cup in victory. People all over the country were excited about the win.
Many football fans chalk this win up（归功于）to the “spirit of China’s women’s national football team”. Even when they had to play against an “unbeatable” team, the ladies never gave up.
Now let’s get back to the match at the beginning of this article. Why would you be feeling discouraged Do you know for sure that your team will lose In many matches throughout your life, you may find yourself falling behind at halftime. Don’t lose heart just yet! You may still be able to make a comeback and win!
34.What’s the Chinese meaning of the underlined word “opponent”
A.教练 B.对手 C.运动员 D.门卫
35. How did many Chinese football fans feel at the halftime score of the China’s women’s national football team on February 6
A. Bored. B. Happy. C. Sad. D. Satisfied.
36. Make the sentences in a right order(顺序).
①China beat South Korea 3-2 in the final match.
②The Chinese players on the field didn’t lose heart.
③Chinese football fans were excited about the win.
④The women`s football team lost to the team of South Korea 2-0 at half time
④②①③ B. ②④③① C. ④②③① D. ③①②④
37.What can we learn from the passage
A. As long as we work hard, we can do anything well.
B. If you want to succeed, you must fail first.
C. China is stronger than South Korea in many fields.
D. Don’t lose heart in the face of failure.
C
Love, a forever topic in human history, is also an everlasting theme(永恒的主题) in Chinese literature and poetry. What symbol means love in your country --the heart, rose, swan（天鹅）, or dove（鸽子）
There is a famous classic Chinese poem,“Love Seeds”. It is a Tang Dynasty poem, written by poet Wang Wei. He used red beans to express his longing for one of his friends. Red beans are also seen as “love seeds" in China. As time goes on, Chinese people have been using red beans to express a feeling of missing between lovers.
Red beans have a strong meaning in Chinese culture. Red beans are often hard and come in a heart shape. They are similar in color to that of blood and can be stored for a long time. Red beans mean love and fidelity(忠诚).Men give red beans to their lovers to show their fidelity, while women wear jewelry(首饰) made of red beans for a happy life.
The poet wishes his faraway friend to collect as many red beans as possible, as the beans will remind his friend of the poet.
Instead of expressing love to others by saying “I love you” or “I miss you", Chinese people are more likely to express feelings of love in a symbolic way in Chinese literature. For example, poets use pears (the same pronunciation as“离”) to describe the moment of parting.
Chinese people love to use poems to express their deep thoughts and feelings. The charm (魅力) of Chinese culture and words is shown by several words because of this.
38 .What’s the purpose of Paragraph 1
A. To list all kinds of signs of love. B. To show the importance of love.
C. To tell the subject the text talks about. D. To explain the importance of the heart.
39.What is seen as “love seeds” in China
A. The heart. B. Roses. C. Swans. D. Red beans.
40.What does the third paragraph mainly tell us
A. Red beans are good for all kinds of meanings.
B. Men hope to get more red beans from women.
C. Women wear jewelry made of red beans for a lover.
D. What characters and symbolic meanings red beans have.
41.What can we infer from the passage
A. Chinese culture and words are full of charm.
B. Chinese people like to express their love directly.
C. Chinese people always express thoughts and feelings in poetry.
D. It is not polite to express love to others by directly saying “l love you”.
D
Scientists have worked out when the Sun will die. It won’t be any time soon. It will be in 10 billion years. The scientists are from the University of Manchester in the UK. They predict that in about 5 billion years from now, the Sun will turn into a “red giant". This is the scientific name given to a star at the end of its life. When the Sun becomes a red giant（红巨星）, its center will get smaller. Its outer layers（外层） will spread（延伸） as far as Mars. This means the Earth will be burnt and disappear. After the Sun turns into a red giant, it will become a planetary nebula(行星状星云). This is a bubble (气泡) of gas and space dust（尘埃）. The scientists say no humans will be on Earth when the Sun dies out. Humans will disappear in around one 1 billion years from now.
The Sun is still quite young in space. It is just 4.6 billion years old. This means it is only around one third into its lifespan（寿命）.
Professor Albert Zijlstra, a scientist from the University of Manchester, explained what happens at the end of a star’s life. He said,“When a star dies, gives off plenty of gas and dust into space.This reveals (揭示) the star’s core. By this point in the star’s life, it is running out of fuel." He said it turns off and dies in the end.
Professor Zijlstra was happy that modern science calculate (计算)the age of stars and what will happen to them. He said we can measure the presence（存在） stars in distant galaxies（遥远星系）, and“we even have found what the Sun will do when it dies”.
42. The underlined word “It” refers to“_________”
A. the time when the Sun dies
B. the way how the Sun dies
C. the place where the Sun dies
D. the reason why the Sun dies
43. If the Sun turns into a “red giant", it means_______.
A. it will become smaller.
B. its life is over.
C. it has become another planet.
D. it will become the same as Mars.
44. What will happen when the Sun dies
①The Earth will be burnt and disappear.
②Humans will disappear.
③It will become a bubble that is made of gas and space dust.
④ Mars will disappear after it.
A.①②③ B.②③④ C.①③④ D.①②③④
45. What does the last paragraph mainly tell us
A. Modern technology can do anything.
B. Space is no longer a secret to scientists.
C. Great progress has been made in the study of space.
D. Modern technology has not provided great help for the study of the Sun.
试 卷 Ⅱ
说明：本卷共有4大题，31小题，共50分。答题请用0.5毫米及以上的黑色签字笔书写在“答题纸”的对应位置上。
四、词汇运用（本题有15小题；每小题1分，共15分）
A. 用方框中所给单词的适当形式填空。每词限用一次。 relax, twenty, raise, close, look after 46. It is natural for us ______________our parents when they get old.
47. Many teenagers enjoy listening to music because it`s __________.
48. Lao She is one of the greatest Chinese writers of the _________ century.
49. We had better ______ money for the poor children.
50. Of the three cinemas, Movie World is the ________ to my home.
B.根据短文内容和所给提示，在空白处填入单词的正确形式。每空限填一词。
Fitness Buses
Many people in London are too busy to do exercise in the gym. 51.__________(然而),they will soon get the 52.____________(机会)to do exercise on the way to and from work. That will change the people’s life. They can do exercise53._____________(当……时候)they are taking the bus. The fitness bikes（健身自行车）are fixed(安装) on the buses so that people can make full use of the time to do exercise.
The fitness bikes will take the place of the seats on the changed buses. That 54.____________(允许) people to do exercise as much as they can on the way to work. After getting off the buses, people can take a bath, have a drink and then go to work.
The 55.____________ (令人兴奋的) idea for the fitness buses comes from James Balfour and Giles Dean.“It is not a difficult thing to 56._____________(提高)people’s lives by changing the buses," Balfour said. “Some people want to go to the gym to make themselves stronger and 57.___________(更好的),but they have no time to do it during the day. This gives them a great way to 58___________(度过) the time not just travelling to work."
On the other hand, safety is the 59.___________(最大的) problem for the good idea. Balfour said, “We are working with bus companies and the 60.___________(政府)to make the buses healthy and safe.”
五、语法填空（本题有10小题；每小题1分，共10分）
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入一个适当的词,或填入括号中所给单词的正确形式。
I have some wonderful childhood memories(童年回忆). When I was young, I always played together 61._____my cousins in my grandparents` house. My grandparents had a large swimming pond (池塘) in 62. ________ (they) garden. We spent many 63. ________ (interested) summer days there 64.________fact, it was a fish pond before, but my grandpa made it a swimming pond after all the fish 65.(die)___________.
Another memory of my childhood was about my fifth birthday. My parents held a party for me. My friends and I sang and danced 66._________ (happy) at the party. I got a lot of 67._______ (present) too. Then my dad told me to take something out of the car. I opened the car boot (汽车行李箱) and saw 68.______ bike. I thanked my parents for 69._________ (give) me the present that I wanted to have so much. I didn’t want to ask for something, 70.________sometimes my parents did a lot for me. I thanked them very much.
六、任务型阅读（本题有5小题；每小题1分，共5分）
阅读下面的短文，将方框内的句子还原到文中空白处，使短文完整、通顺。
ChatGPT has been in the news since it shows on November 30th, 2022. It can talk with humans freely. ChatGPT is developed by Open AI, which is founded by Elon Musk and Sam Altman. 71 .
Provide help in doing homework
ChatGPT is an AI-powered chatbot(聊天机器人)that can help kids with their homework. It uses natural language processing(自然语言处理) to understand questions and provide answers to them.ChatGPT can not only offer step-by-step ways to solve problems and explain concepts (概念). 72 . With ChatGPT, kids can get help with their homework anytime, anywhere.
Understand the basic(基本的) knowledge
ChatGPT can help kids to learn the basic knowledge and get a better understanding of how the technology（技术）and AI work. 73 . What’s more, kids can also learn how to use natural language processing and machine learning algorithms (算法) to make their chatbot smarter. ChatGPT can also help kids to improve their writing skills.
74
ChatGPT can help kids in learning coding（编码） by offering them with a conversational interface (对话界面) that can be used to ask questions and receive answers. 75 .What’s more, ChatGPT can offer useful help and tips by the learning process, making it easier for kids to understand and use the concepts they are learning.
(
Learn how to code
（编码）
.
It can also help ki
ds find useful text and topics.
Now the platform is free and children can do many things with it.
This means that kids can play with
ChatGPT
to get knowledge and understanding of coding concept.
By using
ChatGPT
, kids can make up their own conversational AI
chatbot
and join it.
)
七、书面表达（本题有1小题，共20分）
为全面落实大课间体育活动制度，你校每天统一安排30分钟的大课间，进行形式多样、内容丰富的体育活动。请根据下面的思维导图，以“The Sunshine Break”为题，给某英文报“校园体育”栏目投稿。
How long it takes ----- 30 minutes, every day
Wushu ; Volleyball exercises; running ; rope skipping….
The sports in your school
The Sunshine Break
keep healthy and strong relax ourselves enjoy the joy of sports…..
Your opinion on the break
要求：1）文中包含所给思维导图要点提示，可适当补充。
100词左右，首句已经给出，不计入词数。
The Sunshine Break
There is a 30-minute break in our school every day._______________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
8绣湖教育集团八年级英语期中学力检测试题 2023.11
考生须知：
1.全卷共 8 页，7 大题，76 小题。满分为 120 分。
2.本卷答案必须做在答题纸的对应位置上，做在试题卷上无效。
3.请考生将学校、姓名、准考证号填写在答题纸的对应位置上，并认真核对。
温馨提示：请仔细审题，细心答题，相信你一定会有出色的表现！
试 卷 I
说明：本卷共有 3 大题，45 小题，共 70 分。请用 2B 铅笔在“答题纸”上将你认为正确
的选项对应的小方框涂黑、涂满。
一、听力（本题有 15 小题；第一节每小题 1 分，第二、第三节每小题 2 分，共 25 分）
第一节：听小对话，请从 A、B、C 三个选项中选择正确的选项。
1. Who is more careful
A. Kate. B. Cindy. C. Linda.
2. What kind of TV shows does Sally like
A. A game show. B. A sports show. C. A talent show.
3. Where did the woman go last summer holiday
A. China. B. Japan. C. Australia.
4. What does the girl’s sister like
A. Singing. B. Drawing. C. Reading.
5. How does the man like the talk show
A. He doesn’t mind it. B. He doesn’t like it. C. He loves it.
第二节：听较长对话，选择正确的答案。
听第一段长对话，回答第 6-7 两小题。
6. What is Susan’s dream
A. To be a talented student.
B. To be in America’s Got Talent.
C. To visit America.
7. How many candles can Susan blow out at a time
A. Twelve. B. Ten. C. Twenty.
听第二段长对话，回答第 8-10 三小题。
8. What does Mike like to eat
A. Meat. B. Hamburgers. C. Fruit
9. How often does Mike exercise
A. Every week. B. Twice a week. C. Every day.
10. What sport does Mike often do
A. Baseball. B. Basketball. C. Soccer.
第三节：听短文，回答问题。
11. Where did Emily go on May Day vacation
A. Hangzhou. B. Hainan. C. Dalian.
12. What did Sam do on May 1st
A. He swam in the sea. B. He visited the museum. C. He enjoyed the park.
13. How did Sam go to the museum
A. On foot. B. By bus. C. By bike.
14. How was the weather on the morning of May 3rd
A. Sunny. B. Windy. C. Rainy.
1
15. How was the park
A. Big and noisy. B. Clean and green. C. Crowded and small.
二、完形填空（共 15 小题，每小题 1 分，共 15 分）
阅读下面短文，掌握大意，然后从 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。
Have you seen lions walking on the streets In China, it often
happens during the new year days. The lions dance to the beat of a
drum. They are not 16 lions. They are dancers in lion clothes.
The lions are part of the 17 that is centuries old. It started in
China. It is meant to bring good 18 in the coming year. In many
Asian countries, the new year is 19 with the new moon in January
or February. In 2022, Chinese lunar (农历的) new year began 20
February 1.
Usually, a lion is made up of two 21 .One dancer controls the head. The other controls the
body and 22 .
“I think of it as a sport,” says Anthony Huang aged sixteen. He is a(n) 23 of the New York
Chinese Freemasons Athletic Club. Anthony performs as the lion’s head. It can weigh 20 pounds.
Lion dancing is 24 to Anthony. “This tradition really represents(代表) me,” he says.
In the past, lion dancing was performed mostly by men. 25 it is more inclusive (包容的) today.
LionDanceMe is a lion dancing group. 26 is in San Francisco, California. There are boys and girls
in the group. They dance together.
Ananda Tang-Lee is seventeen. She says anyone can 27 lion dancing. “You have to have 28
that you can do it,” she says.
There are 29 types of lion dances. One of them is 30 Jong. In this one, lion dancers do tricks
（把戏）on poles（杆子）more than eight feet tall. The dancers use their acrobatic(杂技)skills. They
also use martial-arts（武术）skills.
16. A. real B . b e a u t if u l C. big D. interesting
17. A. story B . t ra d i ti o n C . s kill D. history
18. A . habit B . ti m e C. luck D. way
19. A. celebrated B . f o u n d e d C . ended D. stopped
20. A .to B . in C. at D. on
21. A. visitors B . s i n g e rs C . d a n cers D. trainers
22. A. tail B . h e ad C. body D. arms
23. A. worker B . m e m b er C. listener D. speaker
24. A. important B . h e l p f u l C. kind D. close
25. A .Because B . If C . B u t D. And
26. A. He B . S h e C . You D. It
27. A. take off B .t a k e d o w n C . take away D. take up
28. A. confidence B . e x p e r i en c e C . h o b b y D. energy
29. A. same B . d i ff e r en t C . simple D. little
2
30. A. set B . a s k e d C. called D.carried
三、阅读理解（共 15 小题，每小题 2 分，共 30 分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Winter is coming, the weather is getting colder and colder.
You wake up and don’t feel well. You have a headache and don’t want to get out of
bed. And you can’t breathe out of your nose. What’s wrong You may have a cold.
Signs (迹象) of a cold
*low fever
*coughing
*runny nose and watery eyes
*feeling cold, tired and not hungry
*hard to breathe because of your stuffy (不通的) nose
*Hot drinks make you cough less, so have some chicken soup.
*A humidifier (加湿器) helps your nose feel better.
*Have a good rest. Go to bed a little earlier for a few nights.
*If you’re worried too much, you will feel worse when you have a cold. So try to relax
and use the time to read, listen to music or watch a movie.
31. Which of the following is probably a sign of a cold
A. Having a low fever. B. Having a toothache.
C. Always feeling hungry. D. Being thirsty all the time.
32. You will cough less, if you__________.
A. turn on a humidifier B. have some hot soup
C. take more exercise D. have a hot bath
33.The last part is mainly about_______.
A. what the signs of a cold are.
B. why young children catch a cold easily.
C. why we should develop healthy habits
D. what we can do to feel better if we have a cold.
B
Imagine you are a member on your school’s football team. You are
playing against another school. Your opponent appears to be strong. At
halftime, the other team is ahead of yours by the score of 2-0. Are you
feeling sad because of this “Oh! It couldn’t be worse! It’s almost
impossible for us to win now.”
On February 6, China’s women’s national football team faced a
similar situation. It was the final of the 2022 AFC Women’s Asian Cup.
The ladies were playing against the women’s football team of South
Korea. The halftime score (2-0) came as a big disappointment to many Chinese football fans.
However, the Chinese players on the field (球场) didn’t lose heart. Instead, they fought back. In
the second half of the match, Tang Jiali, Zhang Linyan and Xiao Yuyi each scored a goal. The result
of the match: China beat South Korea 3-2. It was the ninth time in the tournament’s(锦标赛的)
history that China’s women’s national football team had been able to lift the Asian Cup in victory.
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People all over the country were excited about the win.
Many football fans chalk this win up（归功于）to the “spirit of China’s women’s national football
team”. Even when they had to play against an “unbeatable” team, the ladies never gave up.
Now let’s get back to the match at the beginning of this article. Why would you be feeling
discouraged Do you know for sure that your team will lose In many matches throughout your life,
you may find yourself falling behind at halftime. Don’t lose heart just yet! You may still be able to
make a comeback and win!
34.What’s the Chinese meaning of the underlined word “opponent”
A.教练 B.对手 C.运动员 D.门卫
35. How did many Chinese football fans feel at the halftime score of the China’s women’s national
football team on February 6
A. Bored. B. Happy. C. Sad. D. Satisfied.
36. Make the sentences in a right order(顺序).
①China beat South Korea 3-2 in the final match.
②The Chinese players on the field didn’t lose heart.
③Chinese football fans were excited about the win.
④The women`s football team lost to the team of South Korea 2-0 at half time
A. ④②①③ B. ②④③① C. ④②③① D. ③①②④
37.What can we learn from the passage
A. As long as we work hard, we can do anything well.
B. If you want to succeed, you must fail first.
C. China is stronger than South Korea in many fields.
D. Don’t lose heart in the face of failure.
C
Love, a forever topic in human history, is also an everlasting theme(永恒的主题) in Chinese
literature and poetry. What symbol means love in your country --the heart, rose, swan（天鹅）, or
dove（鸽子）
There is a famous classic Chinese poem,“Love Seeds”. It is a
Tang Dynasty poem, written by poet Wang Wei. He used red beans to
express his longing for one of his friends. Red beans are also seen as
“love seeds" in China. As time goes on, Chinese people have been
using red beans to express a feeling of missing between lovers.
Red beans have a strong meaning in Chinese culture. Red beans
are often hard and come in a heart shape. They are similar in color to
that of blood and can be stored for a long time. Red beans mean love
and fidelity(忠诚).Men give red beans to their lovers to show their fidelity, while women wear
jewelry(首饰) made of red beans for a happy life.
The poet wishes his faraway friend to collect as many red beans as possible, as the beans will
remind his friend of the poet.
Instead of expressing love to others by saying “I love you” or “I miss you", Chinese people
are more likely to express feelings of love in a symbolic way in Chinese literature. For example,
poets use pears (the same pronunciation as“离”) to describe the moment of parting.
Chinese people love to use poems to express their deep thoughts and feelings. The charm (魅力)
of Chinese culture and words is shown by several words because of this.
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38 .What’s the purpose of Paragraph 1
A. To list all kinds of signs of love. B. To show the importance of love.
C. To tell the subject the text talks about. D. To explain the importance of the heart.
39.What is seen as “love seeds” in China
A. The heart. B. Roses. C. Swans. D. Red beans.
40.What does the third paragraph mainly tell us
A. Red beans are good for all kinds of meanings.
B. Men hope to get more red beans from women.
C. Women wear jewelry made of red beans for a lover.
D. What characters and symbolic meanings red beans have.
41.What can we infer from the passage
A. Chinese culture and words are full of charm.
B. Chinese people like to express their love directly.
C. Chinese people always express thoughts and feelings in poetry.
D. It is not polite to express love to others by directly saying “l love you”.
D
Scientists have worked out when the Sun will die. It won’t be any time soon. It will be in 10
billion years. The scientists are from the University of Manchester in the UK. They predict that in
about 5 billion years from now, the Sun will turn into a “red giant". This
is the scientific name given to a star at the end of its life. When the Sun
becomes a red gian（t 红巨星）, its center will get smaller. Its outer layers
（外层） will spread（延伸） as far as Mars. This means the Earth will
be burnt and disappear. After the Sun turns into a red giant, it will
become a planetary nebula(行星状星云). This is a bubble (气泡) of gas
and space dust（尘埃）. The scientists say no humans will be on Earth
when the Sun dies out. Humans will disappear in around one 1 billion
years from now.
The Sun is still quite young in space. It is just 4.6 billion years old. This means it is only around
one third into its lifespan（寿命）.
Professor Albert Zijlstra, a scientist from the University of Manchester, explained what happens
at the end of a star’s life. He said,“When a star dies, gives off plenty of gas and dust into space.This
reveals (揭示) the star’s core. By this point in the star’s life, it is running out of fuel." He said it turns
off and dies in the end.
Professor Zijlstra was happy that modern science calculate (计算)the age of stars and what will
happen to them. He said we can measure the presence（存在） stars in distant galaxies（遥远星系）,
and“we even have found what the Sun will do when it dies”.
42. The underlined word “It” refers to“_________”
A. the time when the Sun dies
B. the way how the Sun dies
C. the place where the Sun dies
D. the reason why the Sun dies
43. If the Sun turns into a “red giant", it means_______.
A. it will become smaller.
B. its life is over.
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C. it has become another planet.
D. it will become the same as Mars.
44. What will happen when the Sun dies
①The Earth will be burnt and disappear.
②Humans will disappear.
③It will become a bubble that is made of gas and space dust.
④ Mars will disappear after it.
A.①②③ B.②③④ C.①③④ D.①②③④
45. What does the last paragraph mainly tell us
A. Modern technology can do anything.
B. Space is no longer a secret to scientists.
C. Great progress has been made in the study of space.
D. Modern technology has not provided great help for the study of the Sun.
试 卷 Ⅱ
说明：本卷共有 4 大题，31 小题，共 50 分。答题请用 0.5 毫米及以上的黑色签字笔书写
在“答题纸”的对应位置上。
四、词汇运用（本题有 15 小题；每小题 1 分，共 15 分）
A. 用方框中所给单词的适当形式填空。每词限用一次。
relax, twenty, raise, close, look after
46. It is natural for us ______________our parents when they get old.
47. Many teenagers enjoy listening to music because it`s __________.
48. Lao She is one of the greatest Chinese writers of the _________ century.
49. We had better ______ money for the poor children.
50. Of the three cinemas, Movie World is the ________ to my home.
B.根据短文内容和所给提示，在空白处填入单词的正确形式。每空限填一词。
Fitness Buses
Many people in London are too busy to do exercise in the gym. 51.__________(然而),they will
soon get the 52.____________(机会)to do exercise on the way to and from work. That will change
the people’s life. They can do exercise53._____________(当 时候)they are taking the bus. The
fitness bikes（健身自行车）are fixed(安装) on the buses so that people can make full use of the time
to do exercise.
The fitness bikes will take the place of the seats on the changed buses. That
54.____________(允许) people to do exercise as much as they can on the way to work. After getting
off the buses, people can take a bath, have a drink and then go to work.
The 55.____________ (令人兴奋的) idea for the fitness buses comes from James Balfour and
Giles Dean.“It is not a difficult thing to 56._____________(提高)people’s lives by changing the
buses," Balfour said. “Some people want to go to the gym to make themselves stronger and
57.___________(更好的),but they have no time to do it during the day. This gives them a great way
to 58___________(度过) the time not just travelling to work."
On the other hand, safety is the 59.___________(最大的) problem for the good idea. Balfour
said, “We are working with bus companies and the 60.___________(政府)to make the buses healthy
and safe.”
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五、语法填空（本题有 10 小题；每小题 1 分，共 10 分）
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入一个适当的词,或填入括号中所给单词的正确形式。
I have some wonderful childhood memories(童年回忆). When I was young, I always played
together 61._____my cousins in my grandparents` house. My grandparents had a large swimming
pond (池塘) in 62. ________ (they) garden. We spent many 63. ________ (interested) summer days
there 64.________fact, it was a fish pond before, but my grandpa made it a swimming pond after all
the fish 65.(die)___________.
Another memory of my childhood was about my fifth birthday. My parents held a party for me.
My friends and I sang and danced 66._________ (happy) at the party. I got a lot of 67._______
(present) too. Then my dad told me to take something out of the car. I opened the car boot (汽车行李
箱) and saw 68.______ bike. I thanked my parents for 69._________ (give) me the present that I
wanted to have so much. I didn’t want to ask for something, 70.________sometimes my parents did
a lot for me. I thanked them very much.
六、任务型阅读（本题有 5 小题；每小题 1 分，共 5 分）
阅读下面的短文，将方框内的句子还原到文中空白处，使短文完整、通顺。
ChatGPT has been in the news since it shows on November 30th, 2022. It can talk with humans
freely. ChatGPT is developed by Open AI, which is founded by Elon Musk and Sam Altman. 71 .
Provide help in doing homework
ChatGPT is an AI-powered chatbot(聊天机器人)that can help kids with their homework. It uses
natural language processing(自然语言处理) to understand questions and provide answers to
them.ChatGPT can not only offer step-by-step ways to solve problems and explain concepts (概念).
72 . With ChatGPT, kids can get help with their homework
anytime, anywhere.
Understand the basic(基本的) knowledge
ChatGPT can help kids to learn the basic knowledge and get a
better understanding of how the technology（技术）and AI work.
73 . What’s more, kids can also learn how to use natural language
processing and machine learning algorithms (算法) to make their
chatbot smarter. ChatGPT can also help kids to improve their writing skills.
74
ChatGPT can help kids in learning coding（编码） by offering them with a conversational
interface (对话界面) that can be used to ask questions and receive answers. 75 .What’s more,
ChatGPT can offer useful help and tips by the learning process, making it easier for kids to
understand and use the concepts they are learning.
A . Learn how to code（编码）.
B . It can also help kids find useful text and topics.
C . Now the platform is free and children can do many things with it.
D . This means that kids can play with ChatGPT to get knowledge and understanding of
coding concept.
E. By using ChatGPT, kids can make up their own conversational AI chatbot and join it.
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七、书面表达（本题有 1 小题，共 20 分）
为全面落实大课间体育活动制度，你校每天统一安排 30 分钟的大课间，进行形式多样、内
容丰富的体育活动。请根据下面的思维导图，以“The Sunshine Break”为题，给某英文报“校
园体育”栏目投稿。
How long it takes ----- 30 minutes, every day
Wushu ;
The sports in your school
Volleyball exercises;
The Sunshine Break
running ; rope skipping….
keep healthy and strong
Your opinion on the break
relax ourselves
enjoy the joy of sports…..
要求：1）文中包含所给思维导图要点提示，可适当补充。
2）100 词左右，首句已经给出，不计入词数。
The Sunshine Break
There is a 30-minute break in our school every day._______________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
8八年级期中考试英语参考答案和听力材料
听力材料
第一节：听小对话，选择正确的答案。对话仅读一遍
1. M: Is Kate a careful girl
W: Yes, she is. But she is less careful than Cindy.
2. M: What do you think of sports shows, Sally
W:I don’t mind them. I love watching talent shows. They’re relaxing.
3. M: Did you have a good summer holiday
W: Yes, it was wonderful. The mountain Tai was really beautiful and I climbed to the top.
4. M: Do you have the same hobby as your sister
W: No. She likes drawing but I like reading.
5. M: Lily, the talk show is three times a week. I think it’s boring.
W: Err…,I’m different from you. I think it’s interesting.
第二节: 听较长对话，选择正确的答案，对话读两遍
听第一段对话，回答第6-7两小题。
M: Does Susan hope to go to America’s Got Talent
W: Of course. That is her dream .
M: Well, what special talent does she have
W: She can blow out 20 candles at a time.
M: Oh, that’s really special.
听第二段对话，回答第8-10三小题。
M: Mike, what do you usually do to keep healthy
W: First, I have a good eating habit. I eat fruit and vegetables every day. And I hardly ever eat hamburgers.
M: Second, the good ways to keep healthy is doing exercise.
W: How often do you exercise
M: Every day.
W: What sport do you often do
M: I play basketball.
第三节:听短文，回答问题，对话读两遍。
Dear Emily,
You said you went to Hangzhou on May Day vacation. Now let me talk about my short vacation. I went to Hainan. May 1st was Thursday. It was sunny. I got up early because I wanted to go to the beach. Although the beach was crowded, I had great fun swimming in the water. On May 2nd, it was cloudy. I visited the museum by bus. There, I learned a lot about Chinese history. Do you know what happened on May 3rd It was rainy in the morning. I had to stay in the hotel. Luckily, in the afternoon, it stopped raining. I enjoyed the clean and green park.
Yours,
Sam
参考答案：
听力测试
第一节
1. B 2. C 3. A 4. B 5. B
[评分细则] 第一节共5小题；每小题1分，共5分。
第二节
6. B 7. C 8. C 9. C 10. B
[评分细则] 第二节共5小题；每小题2分，共10分。
第三节
11. A 12. A 13. B 14. C 15. B
[评分细则] 第三节共5小题；每小题2分，共10分。
二、完形填空
16. A 17. B 18. C 19. A 20. D
21. C 22. A 23. B 24. A 25. C
26. D 27. D 28. A 29. B 30. C
[评分细则] 本题共15小题；每小题1分，共15分。
三、阅读理解
31. A 32. B 33. D 34. B 35. C
36. A 37. D 38. C 39. D 40. D
41. A 42. A 43. B 44. A 45. C
[评分细则] 本题共15小题；每小题2分，共30分。
四、词汇运用
46. to look after 47. relaxing 48. twentieth 49. raise 50. closest
51. However 52. chance(s) 53.while\when 54. allows 55.exciting
improve 57. better 58. spend 59. biggest 60.government
[评分细则] 本题共15小题；每小题1分，共15分,每空一词，有拼写或语法错误的不给分；大小写错误不扣分。
五、语法填空
61. with 62. their 63.interesting 64. In 65. died
happily 67. presents 68. a 69. giving 70. but
[评分细则] 本题共10小题；每小题1分，共10分。有拼写或语法错误的不给分；大小写错误不扣分。
六、任务型阅读
71. C 72. B 73.E 74. A 75. D
[评分细则] 本题共5小题；每小题1分，共5分。
七、书面表达
本小题为20分，按6个档次给分。
评分原则：
为了培养学生的创新精神和语言实践能力，促进英语写作教学，要严格按6个档次给分。既要敢于打低分，更要敢于打高分；内容和语言共计20分，在评分时要以作文的整体谋篇和语言水平（看其是否地道）来评判。先确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，微调得分。最后，看其词数和卷面整洁程度。词数太少（不到50个词的）或书写欠整洁的应酌情再扣1—2分。
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