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资阳市高中2021级第一次诊断性考试
英语试题
注意事项：
1.本试卷共150分。考试时间120分钟。
2.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考号填写在答题卡上。
3.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上， 写在本试卷上无效。
4.考试结束后，请将答题卡交回。
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分 30 分）
第一节（共 5 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分）
听下面 5 段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有 10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1.What is the weather like now
A. Rainy. B. Bright. C. Grey.
2.When will the man arrive at the party
A. At 8:30. B. At 9:00. C. At 9:30.
3.What does the man plan to do
A. Take a lift. B. Buy a pair of shoes. C. Go to a shopping center.
4.What was Tom doing just now
A. Cleaning the floor. B. Washing the dishes. C. Clearing the table.
5.Where does the conversation probably take place
A. At a restaurant. B. At a gas station. C. At a theater.
第二节（共 15 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 22.5 分）
听下面 5 段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题 5 秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出 5 秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第 6 段材料，回答第 6 至 7 题。
6.What did Jenny forget to do
A.Tell the woman about the man’s call.
B.Make an appointment with the man.
C.Take her cellphone with her.
7.What will the woman do on Saturday
A. Go and visit Jenny. B. Have dinner with the man. C. Make a phone call to her sister.
听第 7 段材料，回答第 8 至 9 题。
8.What do we know about the man
A. He is crazy about cars. B. He loves making things. C. He paid $60 for the bookcase.
9.What does the man do in the end
A. He makes a future plan. B. He tells a joke. C. He asks the woman for help.
听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。
10.What is the date today
A. November 1st. B. November 8th. C. November 10th.
11.Where is Liza now
A. In Brisbane. B. In Adelaide. C. In Sydney.
12.What is Liza studying now
A. Academic English. B. Medicine. C. General English.
听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。
13.When did the man’s boss call Jerry
A. In the morning. B. In the afternoon. C. In the evening.
14.How did Jerry explain everything
A. Over the phone. B. By e-mail. C. In person.
15.Why did Jerry fail to come to the office on Tuesday
A. He was sick. B. He was off the day. C. He was working somewhere else.
16.How does the woman sound in the end
A. Excited. B. Happy. C. Surprised.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17.Why did the speaker go on the tour
A.It was the prize of a competition.
B.James asked her to go with him.
C.It was her travel plan.
18.What did the speaker dislike about the hotel
A. The drinks. B. The food. C. The waiters.
19.How did the speaker find the trip to the museum
A. Disappointing. B. Amazing. C. Frightening.
20.What did the speaker do in the second week
A.She climbed the mountains.
B.She rode an elephant.
C.She relaxed in the hotel.
第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分 40 分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
If you want to learn better, read faster, remember more easily, and being more creative, this list of books might be inspirational to get you started.
Study Skills Handbook
This book does not focus only on learning efficiency but also covers the subjects of memory improvement and mind mapping. It is an absolute must for students of all ages.
Speed Reading
This popular book explains the principles of efficient reading. It allows you to improve your reading and memory skills immediately. The book gets right down to the practical matter of learning to read fast and remember what you have read.
The Mind Map Book
The Mind Map Book is a ground-breaking work on the basics of mind mapping suitable for everyone and introduces revolutionary techniques for planning and note-taking. It is a book that has taken the world by storm, selling more than 250 million copies. This guide will teach you how to use your brain properly and to maximum effect and additionally contains numerous practical exercises.
Use Your Head
Use Your Head is for those of you that feel as if you have not been able to reach your full potential. In this book, you can know how to think and learn from all possible sources of learning. It has been translated into 27 different languages and is one of the most popular and best-selling Tony Buzan’s books on every continent. You will most certainly gain valuable advice on how to achieve your mental potential fully.
21.Which book can help students take better notes
A. The Mind Map Book. B. Speed Reading.
C. Study Skills Handbook. D. Use Your Head.
22.What do we know about the book Use Your Head
A.It helps solve problems by mind mapping.
B.It offers different language learning sources.
C.It is the best-selling book on every continent.
D.It provides tips on reaching full mental potential.
23.What do the four books mainly focus on
A. Personal development. B. Daily life skills.
C. Learning motivation. D. Memory skills.
B
In the coastal city of Laguna in Brazil, there is a special fishing team. It is made up of human fishers and dolphins! They work together to catch the same fish - mullet (鲻鱼).
Mauricio Cantor from Oregon State University studied this partnership. As he told Science News Explores, the cooperation started more than a century ago.
“The dolphins are really good at finding fish in the dark water and driving them to the coast,” Cantor said. “The fishermen are really good at catching the fish with their nets.” Once the fish are caught in the nets, dolphins can move in and get some for themselves.
Cantor’s study described how fishermen and dolphins give signals to each other during fishing. When dolphins find fish, they drive them to the coast. Then they arch (拱起) their backs in front of the fishermen to tell them to throw nets. Fishermen will then cast the nets right away, or they may lose the best chance. “Fishermen need to be well-trained to understand the signals from dolphins,” said Cantor.
The study found that fishermen are 17 times more likely to catch fish by working with dolphins.At the same time, cooperative dolphins have 13 percent higher survival rates than other dolphins.
Human-animal partnerships have been rare throughout history. “But this partnership gives us an idea of how positive our human interactions can be with nature,” Cantor said.
24.Why is the fishing team special
A. Dolphins help fishers catch fish. B. They only catch mullet.
C. They catch mullet to raise dolphins. D. They mainly catch dolphins.
25.What is the right order of the fishing team
A. a→b→c→d. B. b→a→d→c.
C. b→a→c→d. D. a→d→b→c.
a b c d
26.Which of the following is true when fishers and dolphins work together
A.Fishers are safer to fish on the sea.
B.Dolphins have better chances to survive.
C.Dolphins have 13 percent more food than they usually do.
D.Fishers can get 17 times more fish than they usually catch.
27.What is Cantor’s attitude to human-animal partnerships
A. Favorable. B. Disapproving. C. Uncaring. D. Doubtful.
C
You may have listened to pop star Jay Chou’s song Blue and White Porcelain 《青花瓷》. But its lyrics, according to Fang Wenshan who is the lyricist of the song, were inspired by Ru porcelain.
As the best among the five famous kinds of porcelain of the Song Dynasty, Ru porcelain is known for its pale blue glaze ( 釉 ). In the Song Dynasty, Ru porcelains were produced for a very short period around the year of 1100, so they were very rare. Thanks to efforts of Ru porcelain inheritors, people can now appreciate Ru porcelain close at hand.
Born in Ruzhou, Henan province, Li Chao has spent over a decade making Ru porcelain. The 41-year-old inheritor said that Ru porcelain is made through 72 steps which include making, polishing and firing porcelain. “A small error in any step can ruin all of your efforts,” said Li. For example, if impurities (杂质) in the ingredients aren’t first picked out, then the porcelain will have stains (污点) after firing. “Firing at an incorrect temperature can also deform the porcelain,” Li explained. He stressed that a Ru porcelain inheritor must be able to experiment and have patience. To keep these qualities in mind, Li named his Ru porcelain shop “9 Guan” when he founded it in 2018. “Every artwork should be so delicate that it is worth appreciating many times,” Li said.
Li has not only maintained his passion for crafting Ru porcelain, but also spared no effort in promoting it. “The technique will be lost as old inheritors gradually pass away.” Li said. “So I want to introduce Ru porcelain to young people.” To achieve this goal, Li creatively uses Ru porcelain to make daily things popular among young people, like mugs and portable tea cups. Li also introduces Ru porcelain culture in their product instructions even to Middle Eastern and Western countries.
28.What is the function of the first paragraph
A. To show the popularity of a song. B. To explain the rarity of Ru porcelain.
C. To raise a problem for later solution. D. To introduce the topic of Ru porcelain.
29.What sets Ru porcelain apart from other types of porcelain of the Song Dynasty
A. Its 72 polishing steps. B. Its impurities in the ingredients.
C. Its pale blue glaze. D. Its short production period.
30.Why did Li Chao name his Ru porcelain shop “9 Guan”
A.To show his artworks are delicate and precious.
B.To remind himself to experiment and be patient.
C.To tell people to appreciate Ru porcelain carefully.
D.To indicate the complexity of producing Ru porcelain.
31.What is Li Chao’s goal regarding Ru porcelain
A.To creatively make Ru porcelain in new forms.
B.To promote Ru porcelain among young people.
C.To maintain his passion for making Ru porcelain.
D.To introduce Chinese culture in his product instructions.
D
Li Bai holds a wine cup in his hand, while Du Fu sits in front of a desk, writing poems on the paper in front of him. It’s not that we have traveled to the past. Modern technology has brought ancient poets “back to life”.
The two great poets, along with other humanoid robots were presented at the World Robot Conference 2023 in late August in Beijing. They looked similar to real human beings.
“The skin is made of medical-grade bionic silicone ( 仿生硅胶) which is why the skin looks soft and veins can be seen through it,” CGTN explained in a video about Liaoning-based producer EXROBOTS. Goosebumps (鸡皮疙瘩) and palm lines can also be seen on the arms and hands.
Researchers are also trying hard to create other features of humans on robots. A US robotics company Apptronik brought out its humanoid robot called Apollo on Aug 23. Apollo has around 30 muscles. However, humans have around 300 muscles in our bodies. For now, engineers can only simplify the muscles, allowing them to do basic movements like holding objects and walking.
The robot also contains cameras, helping it map out a 360-degree view of its environment. It also has sensors (传感器) in its head to help keep balance when walking on uncertain surfaces.
Nowadays, bionic human-like robots mostly work with humans, as tour guides or by helping visitors at front desks. There are also robots that share the work of nurses, such as handing out medicine. This could be because people are comfortable living and working with machines that look or act like them. “They can strike a chord (引起共鸣) with people,” a US robotics scientist Marc Raibert told New Yorker.
As more humanoid robots come out, safety will be the key, according to the Robot Report website. When a 70- kilogram robot breaks down and falls, humans nearby may be hurt.
32.What does “brought ancient poets back to life ” mean in Paragraph 1
A.The robots can create better poems than poets.
B.Technology can make ancient poets back to life.
C.Visitors can experience real ancient life with robots.
D.The robots looked and acted like real ancient poets.
33.What does the skin of robots made by EXROBOTS show
A. How human-like their robots are. B. How soft the robots’ skin is.
C. How the robots’ skin should be made. D. How different they are from other robots.
34.What can Apollo do with built-in sensors
A. Wave at humans. B. Walk stably. C. Know human faces. D. See better.
35.What do people worry about with human-like robots
A. People may be at war with the robots. B. Human-like robots look scary.
C. The robots’ weight may cause problems. D. The robots may get out of control.
第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Do you want to do well in your study If your answer is yes, you must know some good time management skills. 36 The skills listed below are quite important.
You should have the ability to say “no”. A party this weekend 37 An overnight trip on Saturday Learning to say “no” can save you a lot of time. But it is not easy to do so. You should develop some good skills in saying “no”. It is very good for your time management.
You shouldn’t spare time for all the fun activities. High schools are amazing because there is always something fun for you. But you cannot spend time on all of the fun activities. Choose the one that you like most. You can go there when you finish your homework. 38
You should avoid putting off your tasks. 39 This is a bad habit. You may end up with too many tasks one day. If you have a task, don’t wait to get started until the last, because you may not know what to do at all if you have too many tasks and you may end up in crisis.
40 Staying up a little too late Maybe not eating a healthy dinner every night of the week In order to keep in good health, you have to check on time so as to be energetic. Practicing a little self-care can really make you have enough passion for your work with your limited time while in school.
A.A cool club to join
B.Some students like putting off things.
C.You should keep your health in check.
D.Try your best to get rid of useless things.
E.Here are some tips to help you learn to say “no”.
F.But what skills are needed for good time management
G.In this way, you needn’t feel guilty about enjoying yourself.
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分 45 分）
第一节 完形填空（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
When I was quite young, I suffered from a serious digestive (消化的) disorder. I 41 several doctors. Then, I 42 some blood test and it showed that I had coeliac disease, a medical condition in which the body cannot 43 food that contains gluten (谷蛋白). I removed all gluten foods. I was advised to stop eating milk products from my 44 for six months. After making these dietary changes, my digestive health 45 . After seeing how food 46 my body and life, I developed a deep interest in 47 .
48 , I went to study nutrition at the College of Naturopathic Medicine (CNM). I was 49 by the practical learning methods suggested by the experienced teachers and the interesting 50 given by them in class. In addition, the 51 in my class were from different countries and backgrounds. I was 52 by how generous everyone was in 53 their knowledge and experience with each other. My time at CNM prepared me for 54 my own business and it was a great 55 for making friends and discovering opportunities.
I now work at the Nordic Clinic in Stockholm three days a week. I see a variety of 56 with a wide range of common illnesses, 57 them to get cured through nutrition. I love my work. I am 58 about what I do as it feels meaningful and I’m making a 59 to other people’s lives. I can’t imagine retiring from work because I know learning never stops and I love 60 expanding my knowledge and helping people in need.
41.A. convinced B. consulted C. recommended D. reminded
42.A. received B. overlooked C. found D. identified
43.A. avoid B. resist C. digest D. gather
44.A. grocery B. treatment C. appetite D. diet
45.A. improved B. remained C. broke D. mattered
46.A. organized B. introduced C. ended D. affected
47.A. medicine B. nutrition C. education D. food
48.A. Therefore B. However C. Otherwise D. Besides
49.A. strengthened B. reported C. corrected D. attracted
50.A. gifts B. changes C. lectures D. operations
51.A. students B. sponsors C. assistants D. patients
52.A. disappointed B. amazed C. bored D. satisfied
53.A. acquiring B. increasing C. applying D. sharing
54.A. giving up B. setting up C. holding back D. cutting down
55.A. difficulty B. building C. platform D. basement
56.A. patients B. nurses C. teachers D. businessmen
57.A. needing B. permitting C. forcing D. helping
58.A. concerned B. passionate C. curious D. indifferent
59.A. promise B. reference C. difference D. donation
60.A. occasionally B. normally C. continually D. finally
第二节 （共10小题，每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
“Exercise for an hour every day, and we can work happily for thirty years.” 61 (similar), if we drink a little more water every day, we will be much 62 (healthy). A healthy diet is made up of water and 63 large number of different kinds of foods. We know that healthy foods like fruit, vegetables and fish 64 (be) important as they provide us with energy and fiber, without giving us too much fat and sugar.
But why is water important The human body needs water 65 (survive). Water is important as it 66 (carry) poisons and waste out of our bodies. Some doctors think water is important for our health 67 all kinds of ways. They believe a great many 68 (ill) and health problems are a result of a lack of water in the body. It is surprising to learn that 69 we feel thirsty, we are already in the first stage of dehydration (脱水). In fact, we 70 (advise) to drink water before we feel thirsty by many doctors.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分 35 分）
第一节 短文改错（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文，请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误，每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改.
增加：在缺词处加一个漏字符号（∧），并在其下面写出该加的词。删除：把多余的词用斜线（\）划掉。
修改：在错的词下画一横线，并在该词下面写出修改后的词。
注意：1．每处错误及其修改均仅限一词；
2．只允许修改10处，多者（从第11处起）不计分。
During my summer vacation, I visited Xi’an but met a kind and caring guide, who left the deep impression on me. In the way, he told us a lot about this old city. Not only we know about the history of the city, but we were also invited to eat various special snack. Unfortunately, I got my left foot seriously injuring. It was terrible painful when I walked. Seeing that I have difficulty walking, he came to my assistance. Accompanied by him, I returned back to the bus to wait for other tourists. I was really grateful for her kindness.
第二节 书面表达（满分25分）
假定你是李华，请给你给学校英语报投稿，介绍你班上周举办的乒乓球比赛。内容包括：
1.比赛目的及过程；
2.你的感受。
注意：
1.词数100左右；
2.可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
1资阳市高中2021级第一次诊断性考试
英语参考答案及评分标准
第一部分 听力（每小题 1.5 分，满分 30 分）
1-5 CCBBC 6-10 ABBAC 11-15 CAABC 16-20 CABAC
第二部分 阅读理解（每小题 2分，满分 40 分）
21-25 ADAAC 26-30 BADCB 31-35 BDABC 36-40 FAGBC
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分 45 分）
第一节 完形填空（共 20 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 30 分）
41-45 BACDA 46-50 DBADC 51-55 ABDBC 56-60 ADBCC
第二节 （共 10 小题，每小题 1.5 分，满分 15 分）
61. Similarly 62. healthier 63. a 64. are 65. to survive
66. carries 67. in 68. illnesses 69. when/if/once/as 70. are advised
评分标准：有任何错误，包括用词错误、单词拼写错误（含大小写）或语法形式错误，均不给分。
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分 35 分）
第一节 短文改错（满分 10 分）
During my summer vacation, I visited Xi’an but met a kind and caring guide, who left the deep
and a
impression on me. In the way, he told us a lot about this old city. Not only∧we know about the history of
On did
the city, but we were also invited to eat various special snack. Unfortunately, I got my left foot seriously
snacks
injuring. It was terrible painful when I walked. Seeing that I have difficulty walking, he came to my
injured terribly had
assistance. Accompanied by him, I returned back to the bus to wait for other tourists. I was really grateful
for her kindness.
his
评分标准：有任何错误，包括用词错误、单词拼写错误（含大小写）或语法形式错误等，均不给分。
第二节 书面表达（满分 25 分）
一、评分原则
1. 本题总分为25分，按5个档次给分。
2. 评分保持整体评分原则，即先根据文章所表达的内容完整性和语言质量初步确定其所属档次，然后以
该档的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
3. 词数明显少于80或多于120，扣2分。
4. 要点齐全，句子表达清楚，但只有要点，无任何阐述，按相应要点的最低档得分。
5. 评分时，应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的数量和准确性及上下文的连贯性。
6. 拼写和标点是语言准确表达的必要条件，评分时应视其对交际影响程度予以考虑，英美拼写均可接受。
7. 内容与试题无关或空白卷，不给分。
二、内容要点：1.目的；2.过程；3.感受。
三、归档与打分
资阳市一诊英语答案 第 1 页 共 2 页
1. 要点齐全，语言质量好，在五档给分(21-25)， 如语言质量一般，在四档给分(16-20)， 语言质量差，
三档给分(11-15)。
2. 少一个要点，语言质量好，在四档给分(16-20)，如语言质量一般，在三档给分(11-15)， 语言质量差，
二档给分(6-10)。
3. 少两个要点，语言质量好，在三档给分(11-15)，如语言质量一般，在二档给分(6-10)，语言质量差，
一档给分(1-5)。
4. 一个或两个要点，只能在一档二档给分(1-5)、 (6-10)。
第五档：（21-25分）
1. 表达出所有内容要点，表述充分，完全达到了预期的写作目的。
2. 很好的语言能力，意义表达准确流畅，词汇丰富，句子结构多样，语言地道。有个别小的语言错误，
但不影响意义表达。
3. 语篇结构完整,有效地使用了衔接手段，全文连贯。
第四档：（16-20分）
1. 表述出所有内容要点，表述较为完整充分，基本达到了预期的写作目的。
2. 较好的语言能力，意义表达基本准确流畅。用词和句法有一定的变化，有少数语言错误，但不影响主
要意义的表达。
3. 语篇结构基本完整,能较好地运用街接手段，全文连贯。
第三档：（11-15分）
1. 基本表达出语言要点,表述基本清楚,基本达到了预期的写作目的。
2. 语言能力一般，句法结构单一，词汇使用有限，语言错误较多,在一定程度上影响了意义表达。但要
点的关键意义能表达出来。
3. 语篇不够连贯，意义街接有明显问题。
4. 如果考生表达出所有要点，且有简单阐述,有一些语法和语义正确的语句，原则上不降入第二档。
第二档：（6-10分）
1. 部分表达出内容要点，表述不请楚,不充分，未达到预期表达以获得帮助或者指导的基本目的。
2. 语言能力较差，语言错误较多，严重影响了意义表达,仅少数句子能基本表达意义。
3. 语篇结构混乱，意义街接有比较严重问题。
第一档：（0-5分）
虽然努力完成写作任务，但语言能力极差，基本无完整句子，仅有一些单词与试题要求的内容相关。
四、说明
1. 内容要点可用不同方式表达。2. 应紧扣主题，可适当发挥。3．按要点和语言质量给分，不以字取人。
五、范文
Aimed at enriching classmates’ school life, a table-tennis competition was held in my class last
Friday on the school playground.
Bathed in sunshine, our classmates were divided into 8 groups. Classmates played against each
other in groups. All the classmates in a group took part and the winner groups went into the next
round. My classmates cheered wildly for their group members and other classmates. Although there
was only one winner group, the other groups didn’t lose heart. The competition was filled with
excitement and fun, ending in happy laughter.
In my opinion, not only did the competition help relieve our pressure from the heavy academic
load, but it also strengthened our relationship with others.
资阳市一诊英语答案 第 2 页 共 2 页
（音乐 00’15”）
这是资阳市高中 2021 级第一次诊断性考试英语听力部分。该部分分为第一、第二两
节。
注意，回答听力部分时，请先将答案标在试卷上。听力部分结束前你将有两分钟的
时间将你的答案转涂到答题卡上。
请看听力理解部分第一节。
第一节 听下面 5 段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选
项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有 10 秒钟的时间来
回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
pause00’02”
现在，你有 5秒钟的时间阅读第 1 小题的有关内容。
pause00’05”
Text 1
W: Would you like to go for a run together
M: Seriously Look, how dark it is! It may start raining any minute.
W: I know. But I love running in such weather. I hate the strong sunshine.
M: Then, I will take a rain check.
pause00’10”
Text 2
W: What time does the party start
M: It starts at 9 o’clock. I think I’ll arrive half an hour late because I have to work late today.
pause00’10”
Text 3
W: How may I help you
M: I am shopping for a pair of sports shoes. Where is the footwear department
W: Oh, it’s there just opposite the lift.
M: Thank you.
pause00’10”
1
Text 4
M: Watch out, Mom. I dropped a plate and it broke into pieces on the floor. I should have just
cleared the table instead of washing the dishes.
W: Tom, what’s done is done. Now let’s clean it up.
pause00’10”
Text 5
W: Did you get some gas for the car
M: Oh, I forgot. We’d better get some on our way back. Shall we get something to eat outside
the theatre now
W: I’m not hungry now. Let’s go for a mid-night dinner after the play.
pause00’05”
第一节到此结束。
第二节 听下面 5 段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A、
B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有
时间阅读各个小题，每小题 5 秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出 5 秒钟的作答时间。每段对
话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第 6 至第 7小题。现在，你有 10 秒钟的时间阅读这两个小题。
pause00’10”
Text 6
W: Hello, Mary speaking.
M: Hi, Mary. This is Jack. I called you yesterday, but you were not at home. Didn’t your sister
Jenny tell you
W: No, she probably forgot. She is busy preparing for her exams these days.
M: I tried your cellphone, but you didn’t answer.
W: Actually, I didn’t have my cellphone with me. Anyway, what did you want to tell me
M: I wanted to invite you to dinner on Saturday. So do you have any plans then
W: No, not at all, See you then.
2
pause00’02”
repeat
pause00’10”
听下面一段对话，回答第 8至第 9 小题。现在, 你有 10 秒钟的时间阅读这两个小题。
pause00’10”
Text 7
W: What’s this supposed to be
M: It’s my new bookcase. I just have to put it together.
W: Why didn’t you buy one which was ready
M: I like making things.
W: I know, but this is a lot of work. Is it worth it
M: Of course! I saved $60.
W: Wow, I had no idea.
M: You know what The next thing I want to make is a car.
W: What You’re crazy!
M: I’m very serious!
pause 00’02”
repeat
pause00’10”
听下面一段对话，回答第 10 至第 12小题。现在,你有 15 秒钟的时间阅读这三个小题。
pause00’15”
Text 8
M: Liza, I’ve heard that you want to move into a homestay family.
W: Yes. I’ve been staying with my aunt. But my cousin is arriving from Brisbane, and my aunt
needs a room for him.
M: No wonder. When would you like to move out from your aunt’s house
W: My cousin arrives on November 18th, so I’d better be out next Friday.
3
M: Is that the 17th of November
W: That’s right, just a week from today.
M: How long have you been in Australia
W: A year in Adelaide and half a year in Sydney. I prefer Sydney. I’ve got many friends here.
M: What are you studying now
W: I was studying General English in Adelaide and now I’m doing Academic English, because I’m
trying to get into Medicine next year.
M: Sounds good, but it will take you a long time.
pause00’02”
repeat
pause00’15”
听下面一段对话，回答第 13 至第 16 小题。现在,你有 20 秒钟的时间阅读这四个小题。
pause00’20
Text 9
M: Josie, do you remember Jerry in my office
W:Yeah. I have seen him before at your party, and you have told me something about him.
M: He left last week.
W: Left Really Do you know why
M: He didn’t come in by Tuesday, so on Tuesday afternoon I called to see whether he was off the day or he
was sick.
W:And what did he say
M: No answer. I talked to my boss, and it seems that he tried to call Jerry in the morning before me. But he
couldn’t get through either.
W: Strange.
M:Anyway, by the end of the day, Jerry sent an e-mail explaining everything.
W:An e-mail So, why did he leave
M:Well, he found a new job last month, but he forgot to tell us about it.
W:You’re joking! How can anyone do that
pause00’02”
repeat
4
pause00’20”
听下面一段独白，回答第 17 至第 20 小题。现在,你有 20 秒钟的时间阅读这四个小题。
pause00’20”
Text 10
W:Well, my name isAlice and recently, I’ve finished a tour which is not the type of thing I’d usually go for.
But because we won it, we didn’t have to pay anything. We didn’t get off to a good start, though, because
the bus from the airport to the hotel was awful. It took ages. The trip was all-inclusive, so all drinks and
meals were included in the price. The drinks were fantastic! The hotel food was either tasteless or too hot,
but the waiters were all friendly and knowledgeable at least. James decided he wanted to take a trip to a
museum, so I went along. Actually, I didn’t really like it. It was not as good as I expected. I surely preferred
being near the ocean. The beach was amazing and I went there several times. In the second week, James
went off on his own into the mountains, but I stayed in the hotel. I once tried going on an elephant ride, but it
was terrible. Elephants frightened me, so I gave up. The two weeks went by so quickly. We got back last
night and, all in all, I think it was a great trip, really relaxing. I’m so glad we entered the competition.
repeat
pause00’20”
第二节到此结束。听力理解部分到此结束。现在, 你有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案
转涂到答题卡上。
（音乐 00’15”）
5

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