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沈北新区2023—2024学年度上学期期末试题
八年级英语试卷
（考试时间110分钟，试卷满分120分）
一、听力（共两节；满分30分）
第一节（共8小题；每小题1.5分，共12分）
听下面8段对话。每段对话后有一道小题，从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你将有5秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. Which subject does Sam like best
A. English. B. Math. C. Chinese.
2. Where will Linda go on Sunday
A. To America. B. To Britain. C. To Indian.
3. When will Emily go to see the film
A. This evening. B. Tomorrow evening. C. Next evening.
4. What is the time now
A. 8 a.m. B. 8:10 a.m. C. 7:50 a.m.
5. How does the man feel before the singing competition
A. Nervous. B. Easy. C. Confident.
6. Where is the man now
A. In a library. B. In a restaurant. C. In a hospital.
7. When does the dialogue take place
A. In the morning. B. In the afternoon. C. In the evening.
8. What will Emma do this evening
A. Watch the show. B. Do her homework. C. Do her housework.
第二节（共12小题；每小题1.5分,共18分）
听下面4段对话。每段对话后有三道小题，从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你将有5秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
听第9段材料，回答第9至11题。
9. Why did Tom go to France
A. To learn French. B. To go shopping. C. To go sightseeing.
10. Where did Tom spend most of his time staying in France
A. In the capital. B. In some small towns. C. In the countryside.
11. What was the weather like during Tom’s stay in France
A. Hot. B. Sunny. C. Windy.
听第10段材料，回答第12至14题。
12. Where is the painting Mona Lisa now
A. In France. B. In Italy. C. In America.
13. When was Leonardo da vinci born
A. In 1452. B. In 1425. C. In 1542.
14. What drawings can you see in his notebooks
A. Washing machines. B. Painting machines. C. Flying machines.
听第11段材料，回答第15至17题。
15. What is Harry’s dream
A. To be a writer. B. To be a teacher. C. To be a singer.
16. What activity is Doris interested in
A. A singing competition. B. A speaking competition. C. An English play.
17. When will the English play be
A. Next Monday. B. Next Tuesday. C. Next Friday.
听第12段材料，回答第18至20题。
18. What can they see in the Palace Museum
A. Modern culture. B. Works of art. C. Natural beauty.
19. How long will it take them to get to the palace Museum by underground
A. 20 minutes. B. 12 minutes. C. 21 minutes.
20. When will they meet
A. At 8 p.m. tomorrow. B. At 8 p.m. today. C. At 8 a.m. tomorrow.
二、阅读理解（共两节；满分40分）
第一节（共16小题；每小题2分，共32分）
阅读下列四篇短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Science Week is Coming! From January 8 to January 12
Black Holes On December 10, people around the world got their first look at a real black hole. Want to know more Come and enjoy a film about black holes at 3p.m.on Thursday in the school hall. 5G is coming! Come and experience what it is like! Time: 2: 30p.m.-4: 30p.m. Day: Monday Place: Science Center Teachers: Miss Yang.
Why can’t we grow to be 3 meters Time: 9: 00a.m.-11: 00a.m. Day: Friday Place: Biology Lab Two Speaker: Doctor Hu 3D-printed products fair Time: 8: 20a.m.-10: 20a.m. Day: Tuesday Place: Computer Room Four Teacher: Mr Wang, Mr Zhu
21. How long will the Science Week last
A. For 4 days. B. For 5 days. C. For 6 days. D. For 7 days.
22. In which place can you enjoy a film according to the text
A. School hall. B. Science Center. C. Biology Lab Two. D. Computer Room Four.
23. What can you learn during Science Week
①Plants ②Black Holes ③5G ④ Computer fair ⑤3D-printed products
A. ①②③ B. ①④⑤ C. ②③④ D. ②③⑤
24. In which part of the school newspaper can you read the text
A. Sports. B. Language. C. Science. D. Nature.
B
My mother told me a good friend is like a mirror. I’m quieter and more serious than most kids. That’s why I like reading books and I study harder in class. My best friend Yuan Li is quiet too, so we enjoy studying together. I’m shy so it’s not easy for me to make friends. But I think friends are like books -- you don’t need a lot of them as long as they’re good.
It’s not necessary to be the same. My best friend Larry is quite different from me. He is taller and more outgoing than me. We both like sports, but he plays tennis better, so he always wins. However, Larry often helps to bring out the best in me. So I’m getting better at tennis. Larry is much less hard-working, though. I always get better grades than he does, so maybe I should help him more.
I don’t really care if my friends are the same as me or different. My favorite saying is, “A true friend reaches for your hand and touches you heart.” My best friend Carol is really kind and very funny. In fact, she’s funnier than anyone I know. I broke my arm last year but she made me laugh and feel better. We can talk about and share everything. I know she cares about me because she’s always there to listen.
25. What may be Jeff Green’s opinion on making friends
A. A good friend should like a mirror.
B. It’s quite easy for him to make new friends.
C. It’s necessary for him to make lots of friends.
D. Quality (质量)is more important than quantity(数量).
26. What can you learn about Larry according to the text
A. He is quite the same as Huang Lei.
B. He does better in tennis than Huang Lei.
C. He is more hardworking than Huang Lei.
D. He may help Huang Lei a lot with study.
27. What does Mary Smith think of her best friend Carol
A. The quietest person. B. The funniest person.
C. The shyest person. D. The most hardworking person.
28. What is the text mainly about
A. How to make new friends. B. Good friends should be the same.
C. Different ideas about friends. D. Differences between good friends.
C
Advertisements are almost everywhere in our lives. We see them on smartphone apps, TVs, and big screens in shopping malls. But before there was mass media, how did the ancient Chinese advertise their goods (商品)？
The purpose of advertising, after all, is to attract customers’ attention. This was also true in ancient times. More than 2,000 years ago, Qu Yuan wrote the poem Heavenly Questions. It mentions a man who sells meat in a market. He “knocked his knife on the table to make a sound.” This was an easy way to draw people’s attention. Another simple way to advertise was to shout about the quality (质量) of one’s goods. In the Song Dynasty, sellers used clever rhymes (押韵) to market their goods. They even adapted tunes (改编曲调) and wrote lyrics (歌词) to make it an art form.
In addition, some sellers asked famous people for help. Strategies of the Warring States mentions the story of a horse seller. At first, he brought his horses to the market and shouted to the crowd about the good quality of his horses. However, no one was interested. Later, the man came up with a good idea. He went to Bo Le, a famous local horse expert, and said to him, “Could you visit my stall（摊位）and look at my horses I’ll pay you for it.” Bo Le agreed. He went to the seller’s stall and showed his “interest” in the horses. Other people in the market quickly gathered around. Soon, every horse in the stall had a buyer. How effective this way of advertising was!
29. How does the writer explain his idea in the second paragraph
A. By giving an example. B. By comparing facts.
C. By listing numbers. D. By raising questions.
30. What can we infer from the last paragraph
A. Bo Le helped the horse seller for free.
B. The horse seller sold out all his horses.
C. The horse seller thought of the good idea.
D. Bo Le wrote Strategies of the Warring States.
31. How is the text organized
A. B. C. D.
32. What may be the best title for the text
A. The importance of advertisements. B. Ways of advertising in ancient times.
C. Famous Chinese ancient stories. D. The purpose of the advertisements.
D
Dancing is popular all over the world. People dance in theaters, in parks or in their own living room. But Yang Liu, a woman in Guizhou, dances in an unusual place. Her stage is a single bamboo pole.
Yang is a performer of bamboo drifting (独竹漂). It is a traditional skill in the girl’s hometown. In ancient times, the local people crossed the rivers by riding on a bamboo pole. Now, bamboo drifting has developed into a folk sport.
Yang started to learn bamboo drifting at the age of seven. The bamboo pole is very slippery and it never completely stops moving. Yang fell into the water again and again. But the girl didn’t want to give up. She always got back up on the pole and tried again. She practiced hard every day for three years. Finally, she was able to keep her balance on the pole.
But Yang didn’t just stop there. She wanted to live out her dream of becoming a dancer on a bamboo pole. The girl practiced many difficult movements on the pole. She failed countless times, but she never stopped trying.
Her hard work finally paid off. Now 26, Yang has made a name for herself as a dancer on a bamboo pole. People can’t believe their eyes whenever they watch her performances. Through Yang’s dances, many people now know about bamboo drifting. They have discovered the beauty of this traditional skill.
33. Where does Yang dance according to the text
A. In the theater. B. In an unusual park.
C. In the living room. D. On a single bamboo pole.
34. What does the underlined word “countless” probably mean in Paragraph 4
A. A small number of. B. A great number of.
C. A few. D. Few.
35. How did people feel when they watch Yang’s performances
A. Excited. B. Worried. C. Surprised. D. Afraid.
36. How does the writer tell Yang’s story
A. In the order of time. B. In the order of place.
C. In the order of distance. D. In the order of importance.
第二节(共4小题，每小题2分；满分8分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后的五个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有一项为多余选项。
Many people find it difficult to love themselves. 37 If so, stop and think about how you interact (互动) with yourself. Here are some tips on how to grow your self-love.
38 . You are special in the world. You should learn to praise your abilities and skills. When you can see your good qualities (品质), you can build a lasting friendship with yourself. Be kind and gentle with yourself.
When you make a mistake, don’t blame(责备) yourself. 39 Forgive (原谅) yourself because no one is perfect. What encouraging words would your friends say to you to help you feel better You also need to hear those same things from yourself!
One last suggestion is to have some “me time” for yourself to do something you love. 40 You can also enjoy your favorite ice cream or go to a museum. When you spend enough time with yourself, you can develop a closer relationship with yourself.
A. We can go for a walk in the park. B. It’s important to accept yourself. C. You can take yourself on a hike. D. Do you have the same problem E. Instead, learn to be accepting and loving.
三、完形填空（共10小题，每小题1分；满分10分）
阅读短文，掌握其大意，然后从A、B、C、D中选出空白处的最佳选项。
Amy was a dear little girl, but she was always wasting time getting prepared to do her tasks, instead of doing them at once as she should do.
In the village, Mr. Thornton kept a shop and sold fruits of all kinds, including berries (莓子) when in season. One 41 he said to Amy, “Well, Amy, I noticed some fine, ripe (成熟的) blackberries on Mr Green’s 42 today. He said that anybody was welcome to them. I will pay you 13 cents a kilogram for all you pick for me.”
Amy was 43 about the thought of making some money to help her mom, so she quickly ran home to get a basket to hold the berries. Then she thought she would like to know how much money she would get if she picked 44 kilograms. After finding out that she would get 65 cents, she 45 to dream big, “Supposing I should pick a dozen kilograms, how much should I make then ”
“Dear me,” she 46 , after calculating a while, “I should make a dollar and fifty-six cents!” It took her some time to dream 47 , and then it was so near lunchtime that she had to stay at home until the afternoon.
As soon as lunch was over, she took her basket and went to the farm 48 . Some boys had been there 49 lunch, and all the ripe blackberries were picked. She could not find half a kilogram to fill her basket. Then she 50 what her teacher often told her: “Do your task at once; then think about it. One doer is worth 100 dreamers.”
41. A. morning B. afternoon C. evening D. night
42. A. house B. farm C. basket D. car
43. A. worried B. angry C. excited D. certain
44. A. two B. three C. four D. five
45. A. promised B. challenged C. started D. advised
46. A. shouted B. suggested C. answered D. asked
47. A. smaller B. harder C. bigger D. earlier
48. A. slowly B. suddenly C. quietly D. quickly
49. A. after B. before C. until D. for
50. A. dreamed of B. thought of C. heard of D. spoke of
四、阅读填空(共10小题，每小题1分；满分10分)
阅读下面短文，然后在空白处填入一个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
During the Mid-Autumn Festival, do you eat mooncakes Do you know that the history of mooncakes is related to two wars
In the Tang Dynasty, there was an emperor (皇帝) named Li Shimin. Once, his army won a war and returned 51 the Mid-Autumn Day. While Li was celebrating with his army, a Tibetan trader (吐蕃商人) gave him some round 52 (cake) as a gift. Li was happy and 53 (send) these cakes to his soldiers. 54 that, these round cakes became popular. Many people ate 55 (they) during the Mid-Autumn Festival. Later, the cakes were named as “mooncakes”.
Zhu Yuanzhang was the first emperor of the Ming Dynasty. He ended the Yuan Dynasty through an uprising (起义). When he organized the uprising, it was difficult to send messages 56 (secret). One of his friends came up with 57 idea. He gave mooncakes with a note hidden inside of them to other people. The note read, “Uprising on the fifteenth night of the 58 (eight) lunar (农历的) month.” After the 59 (success) uprising, Zhu gave mooncakes as gifts to his people. Since then, it 60 (be) a custom to eat mooncakes during the Mid-Autumn Festival. 五、阅读问答(共4小题，61-63每小题2分；64题4分，满分10分)
阅读短文，并根据短文内容回答问题。
EGYPT is home to more than 100 pyramids. Most of them have a history of about 4,500 years. But recently, a new pyramid has appeared in the Egyptian desert. The new pyramid is about 10 meters high and 12 meters wide. Unlike the ancient pyramids, it’s made of one million plastic (塑料) bottles. All these bottles were removed from the Nile. They weigh up to 18,000 kilograms.
Zero Co spent five days building the pyramid. The Australian company finished the work on November 6. Its founder Mike Smith then set up a tent (帐篷) on top of the plastic pyramid. He stayed there alone for three days.
The news quickly spread around the world. But why did Mike try to catch people’s attention In fact, the pyramid was completed on the opening day of this year’s U.N. Climate Change Conference. The conference took place in Egypt. Mike wanted to take this opportunity to present the problem of single-use plastic products to the world. His company had announced a clean-up plan. It promised to deal with the problem. Mike hoped that more people would take action, too.
61. What is the new pyramid made of
62. How long did Mike Smith spend in a tent
63. When was the pyramid completed
64. What should we do with the plastic bottles Why (Write 30 words or more)
六、书面表达(满分20分)
假设你是李辉，你的好朋友Tom写信向你诉说英语成绩不佳的苦恼，请你给他写一封信，向他提供一些英语学习的建议和方法，帮助他提升英语成绩。
内容包括: 1.表达理解和安慰；2.提出建议和方法； 3.表达期待。
要求: 1.词数 80-100,短文的开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数；
2.可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
Dear Tom,
I’m so sorry to hear that you are having trouble in learning English!
Yours,
Li Hui
沈北新区2023-2024学年度上学期期末试题
八年英语参考答案及评分标准
2024.1.5
一、听力（共20小题，每小题1.5分；满分30分）
1. C 2. B 3. A 4. C 5. A
6. B 7. A 8. B 9. A 10. A
11. B 12. A 13. A 14. C 15. C
16. B 17. C 18. B 19. A 20. C
二、阅读理解（共20小题，每小题2分；满分40分）
21. B 22. A 23. D 24. C 25. D
26. B 27. B 28. C 29. A 30. B
31. C 32. B 33. D 34. B 35. C
36. A 37. D 38. B 39. E 40. C
三、完形填空（共10小题，每小题1分；满分10分）
41. A 42. B 43. C 44. D 45. C
46. A 47. C 48. D 49. B 50. B
四、阅读填空（共10小题，每小题1分；满分10分）
51. on 52. cakes 53. sent 54. After 55. them
56. secretly 57. an 58. eighth 59. successful 60. has been
五、阅读问答（共4小题，61-63每小题2分；64题4分，满分10分）
61. One million plastic bottles.
62. Three days. /3 days.（有for扣1分）
63. On the opening day of this year’s U.N. Climate Change Conference./ On November 6. （缺少介词on扣1分）
64. 言之有理均可。
六、书面表达（满分20分）
具体评分细则参考下一文档。

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