资源简介

嘉兴市八年级（上册）学科期末检测
英语 参考答案和听力材料 （2022.01）
Ⅰ. 参考答案
一、听力
第一节：1. A 2. B 3. A 4. C 5. B
第二节：6. B 7. C 8. B 9. A 10. B
第三节：11. B 12. A 13. B 14. C 15. C
二、完形填空
16. B 17.A 18. C 19. B 20. C 21. A 22. D 23. A 24. D 25. A
26. D 27. C 28. C 29. B 30. D
三、阅读理解
31. C 32. D 33. A 34. B 35. D 36. A 37. B 38. C 39. C 40. A
四、词汇运用
41. twice 42. was preparing 43. although 44. mistakes 45. medical
46. local 47. attention 48. afraid/scared 49. finally 50. could
51. grew 52. saved 53. police 54. situation 55. protect
五、语法填空
56. for 57. the most exciting 58. its 59. climbing 60. interested
61. How 62. are studying 63. universities 64. more 65. an
六、任务型阅读
66. animals 67. everything 68. change
69. importance/meaning 70. help/protection
七、书面表达
71. One possible version:
Dear Bruce,
I am glad to hear that you will come to China and visit Jiaxing in February.
I think you can take a train to Jiaxing if you set off from Shanghai. It is cold and sometimes it snows, so a thick sweater will keep you warm. You can stay in a hotel, or stay with my family. As it’s in winter holiday, I can show you around the city. The place you must visit is the South Lake. It’s famous for its history and beautiful sights. Besides, you can spend the Spring Festival together with us, enjoying the delicious local food.
I’m looking forward to your visit to Jiaxing.
Yours,
Li Hua
(93 words)
II.评分标准
●第1-10题，每小题1分；选错答案、多选或不选一律不给分。
●第11-15题，每小题2分；选错答案、多选或不选一律不给分。
●第16-30题，每小题1分；选错答案、多选或不选一律不给分。
●第31-40题，每小题2分；选错答案、多选或不选一律不给分。
●第41-55题，每小题1分；写错答案一律不给分；首字母大小写错误扣0.5分。
●第56-65题，每小题1分；写错答案一律不给分；首字母大小写错误扣0.5分。
●第66-70题，每小题1分；写错答案一律不给分；首字母大小写错误扣0.5分。
●第71小题，共计15分。
采分点 满分 可给分值
1. 内容充实，覆盖要点（内容、要点） 5 5分3~4分1~2分0分 描述了所有要点，内容合理、丰富描述了大部分信息，内容比较合理描述了小部分信息，内容不合理没有作答或描述内容与主题无关
2. 用词适切，语法正确，句型多样（词汇、语法、句型） 5 5分3~4分1~2分0分 用词适切，句型变化多样且有效，完全或基本没有语言错误用词基本适切，句型较为单一，有少量语言错误但不影响理有较多语言错误，一定程度上影响理解有大量语言错误，影响理解
3. 结构紧凑，意思连贯（语意、连词、指代） 3 3分1~2分0分 行文连贯，连接词使用恰当，指代清晰行文不够连贯，连接词使用不够恰当，指代不够清晰 没有连贯的意识
4. 书写规范，词数适宜（标点符号、大小写、词数） 2 2分1分0分 大小写、标点正确，词数达标，书写规范整洁大小写、标点有部分错误，词数达标，书写尚可辨认大小写、标点错误较多，语言应用不规范，词数严重不足，书写难以辨认
III. 听力材料
同学们，你们好！这是2021学年第一学期嘉兴市学科期末检测八年级英语试题卷的听力部分。该部分共有三节。
注意：做题时，请先将答案做在试题卷上。该部分录音内容结束后，你将有1分钟的时间将你的答案转写到答题卷上。（停顿00'02'）
请看听力测试第一节。
第一节
听下面5段小对话。每段对话后有一个小题，请从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。（停顿00'02''）
现在，你有5秒钟的时间阅读第1小题的有关内容。（停顿00'05''）
1. W: Do you come from America, Bob
M: No, I’m from Britain. Cambridge is my hometown.
（停顿00'10''）
2. W: What a sunny day it is!
M: Yes, but it’s a little windy. The weather report says it will rain in the afternoon.
（停顿00'10''）
3. W: David, you’re almost an hour late. What’s wrong
M: Sorry, Miss White. I got up early, but a car nearly hit me on the way and I fell off my bike.
（停顿00'10''）
4. W: The population of my city is 3,600,000.
M: Oh, that’s really large. The population of my city is only half of yours.
（停顿00'10''）
5. W: Look, the monkeys are climbing trees over there. Let’s give them something to eat.
M: No, we can’t. The zoo doesn’t allow us to give any food or drink to animals.
（停顿00'05''）
第一节到此结束。
第二节
听下面两段较长的对话。每段对话后有2~3个小题。请从各题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听对话前，你将有时间阅读每个小题；听完后，每个小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。对话读两遍。（停顿00'02''）
听下面一段较长的对话，回答第6和第7两个小题。现在，你有10秒钟的时间阅读这两个小题。（停顿00'10''）
W: Which do you like better, football or volleyball
M: Neither. I’m a basketball fan.
W: I don’t like basketball. It’s easy to get hurt.
M: But it’s more interesting than football and volleyball. So, what’s your favorite sport
W: Table Tennis. I want to be a sports star like Zhang Yining.
M: Hope your dream will come true.
（停顿00'02''） （重复）（停顿00'10''）
听下面一段较长的对话，回答第8至第10三个小题。现在，你有15秒钟的时间阅读这三个小题。（停顿00'15''）
W: Hi, Paul. We’ll go on a camp. Would you like to go together with us
M: I’d like to. But I will go to Shanghai with my parents this Saturday.
W: Are you going there for shopping
M: No, my uncle lives there, so we are going to visit him.
W: How will you go there Shanghai is not far away.
M: We’ll take a bus there and come back in a train.
W: Will you come back soon
M: No, we plan to stay for the weekend and my uncle will take us around Shanghai.
W: Wow, that’s wonderful. Have a nice trip. And take care!
M: Thank you.
（停顿00'02''） （重复）（停顿00'15''）
第二节到此结束。
第三节
听下面一段独白。独白后有5个小题。请从各题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听独白前，你将有时间阅读每个小题；听完后，每小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。独白读两遍。（停顿00'02''）
现在，你有25秒钟的时间阅读这5个小题。（停顿00'25''）
Hello, everyone. I’m an English teacher. My name is Zhang Hong. There are thirty students in my class, seventeen girls and thirteen boys. Everyone is good at English. But they learn English in different ways. For example, our PE monitor, Wang Bin learns English by going to an English club every Tuesday. He makes many friends there and they all talk in English. Lin Tao spends an hour watching English movies on TV at weekends. Li Fang learns English by listening to English songs for half an hour before going to bed. She can sing many English songs now. Guo Liang, our English monitor, likes listening to English news every morning.
（停顿00'02''） （重复）（停顿00'25''）
第三节到此结束。
现在，你有1分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转写到答题卷上。
（停顿01'00"）
听力测试到此结束。
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八年级（上册）学科期末检测 英语 参考答案和听力材料 第1页（共4页）嘉兴市八年级（上册）学科期末检测
英语 答题卷 （2022.01）
题号 听力部分 读 写 做 部 分 总 分
一 二 三 四 五 六 七
得分
评卷人
注意：请将所有答案做在答题卷的相应位置上，做在试题卷上无效。请务必看清题号。
一、听力（本题有15小题，第一、二节每小题1分；第三节每小题2分，共计20分）
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
二、完形填空（本题有15小题，每小题1分，共计15分）
16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
21. 22. 23. 24. 25.
26. 27. 28. 29. 30.
三、阅读理解（本题有10小题，每小题2分，共计20分）
31. 32. 33. 34. 35.
36. 37. 38. 39. 40.
四、词汇运用（本题有15小题，每小题1分，共计15分）
41. 42. 43. 44.
45. 46. 47. 48.
49. 50. 51. 52.
53. 54. 55.
五、语法填空（本题有10小题，每小题1分，共计10分）
56. 57. 58. 59.
60. 61. 62. 63.
64. 65.
六、任务型阅读（本题有5小题，每小题1分，共计5分）
66. 67. 68. 69.
70.
七、书面表达（本题有1小题，共计15分）
71.
Dear Bruce,
I am glad to hear that you will come to China and visit Jiaxing in February.
Yours,
Li Hua
八年级（上册）学科期末检测 英语 答题卷 第2页（共2页）嘉兴市八年级（上）学科期末检测
英语 试题卷 （2022. 01）
注意：请将所有答案做在答题卷的相应位置上，做在试题卷上无效。请务必看清题号。
第一部分 听力部分
一、听力（本题有15小题，第一、二节每小题1分，第三节每小题2分，共计20分）
第一节：听小对话，从A、B、C三个选项中选择正确的选项，回答问题。
1. Where does Bob come from
A. Britain. B. America. C. Australia.
2. How will the weather be this afternoon
A. Sunny. B. Rainy. C. Windy.
3. Why is David late for school
A. He had an accident. B. He got up late. C. He rode too slowly.
4. What’s the population of the man’s city
A. About 7,200,000. B. About 3,600,000. C. About 1,800,000.
5. Which rule in the zoo are the speakers talking about
A. No touching. B. No feeding. C. No eating.
第二节：听较长对话，从A、B、C三个选项中选择正确的选项，回答问题。
听下面一段较长的对话，回答第6、7两个小题。
6. What does the girl think of playing basketball
A. It’s difficult. B. It’s dangerous. C. It’s enjoyable.
7. Which sport does the girl like best
A. Football. B. Volleyball. C. Table tennis.
听下面一段较长的对话，回答第8～10三个小题。
8. Why is Paul going to Shanghai
A. To go sightseeing. B. To visit his uncle. C. To do some shopping.
9. How will Paul come back
A. By train. B. By car. C. By bus.
10. How long will Paul be away
A. For one day. B. For two days. C. For a week.
第三节：听独白,从A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，回答问题。
11. How many girl students are there in Zhang Hong’s class
A. 13. B. 17. C. 30.
12. What does Wang Bin do in the club every Tuesday
A. He talks with his friends in English.
B. He plays basketball with his classmates.
C. He helps children with their homework.
13. How does Lin Tao learn English
A. By going to an English club.
B. By watching English movies.
C. By listening to English news.
14. When does Li Fang listen to English songs
A. In the morning. B. In the afternoon. C. In the evening.
15. Who is the English monitor in Zhang Hong’s class
A. Wang Bin. B. Li Fang. C. Guo Liang.
第二部分 读写做部分
二、完形填空（本题有15小题，每小题1分；共计15分）
阅读下面短文，掌握大意，然后从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
It was my first year working in a school for kids with special needs. I had no idea what I would see at the coming School Olympics because my 16 had many troubles, from learning difficulties to physical disabilities (残疾).
Mark was one of the latter and he had to get around 17 a wheelchair. But he never thought it was a problem and wore a big 18 all the time.
His classmates loved him, especially Mike, Andy and Lucas. The three boys were all good at 19 . I knew Mark wanted to be like them.
When the day came, Mike, Andy and Lucas 20 well, giving the crowd a lot to cheer about. Mark sat by the sideline, shouting and laughing 21 .
The final game of the day was the 400-meter race. Everybody was asked to 22 it, either walk or run. We watched as they took off. Each of them was trying hard to be the 23 runner.
When Mike, Andy and Lucas reached the finish line, they 24 and turned to look behind them. At the 25 of the crowd was Mark. All the classmates had passed him. He was 26 on the track (跑道) with over 200 meters to cover.
Mike, Andy and Lucas 27 each other. Slowly, they ran back towards their friend, cheering him on as 28 had done for them moments before.
The four friends crossed the finish line together to the 29 cries of their teachers and classmates. Seeing the happy look on Mark’s face, I came to understand 30 the meaning of sports was.
It’s been years, and I’m still cheering them on.
16. A. classmates B. students C. friends D. teachers
17. A. in B. for C. with D. against
18. A. cap B. coat C. smile D. symbol
19. A. art B. sports C. music D. maths
20. A. showed B. scored C. played D. practised
21. A. loudly B. helpfully C. carelessly D. confidently
22. A. win B. report C. watch D. enter
23. A. best B. hardest C. bravest D. prettiest
24. A. fell B. passed C. agreed D. stopped
25. A. back B. center C. bottom D. opposite
26. A. shy B. poor C. calm D. alone
27. A. thought about B. learned from C. looked at D. asked for
28. A. I B. we C. he D. they
29. A. tired B. excited C. relaxed D. worried
30. A. how B. why C. who D. what
三、阅读理解（本题有10小题，每小题2分；共计20分）
阅读下面材料，从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Tea drinking in England can date back to centuries ago. As an English folk song goes, “When the clock strikes four, everything stops for tea.” Here are some interesting facts about afternoon tea and an introduction to classic afternoon tea.
History of Afternoon Tea
Anna Maria Russell, the seventh Duchess(公爵夫人) of Bedford, introduced the idea of afternoon tea one summer in the early 1840s. The duchess became hungry around four o’clock. She began bringing a tray(托盘) of tea, bread, butter and cakes to her room during the late afternoon. Then it became popular all over the country.
High Tea or Low Tea
Afternoon tea is also called “low tea” because it is usually served in the mid-afternoon and was traditionally served on low tables near sofas. “High tea” means dinner. During the Victorian time, working families returned home after work to have dinner served at a high dining table.
Three layers of Afternoon Tea
There are three layers of afternoon tea: small finger-sized sandwiches, traditional English biscuits, and at the top cakes and fruit. People usually taste from the bottom layer to the top layer, from sandwiches to cakes, and from salty(咸的) to sweet.
31. The underlined sentence in Paragraph 1 shows that afternoon tea is in England.
A. magic B. serious C. popular D. natural
32. From the passage we know that afternoon tea .
A. tastes salty at the top layer B. is served at a high dining table
C. appeared in the eighteenth century D. was introduced by Anna Maria Russell
33. We may read this passage in the part of “ ” in a newspaper.
A. Life B. Study C. People D. Business
B
Taylor opened her sleepy eyes and looked out of the window at the field. “No!” she cried, now fully open-eyed. Buttermilk was in Mama’s daisy field.
“I must have forgotten to close the gate last night,” Taylor thought as she pulled a sweater over her head. Mama was planning to sell the daisies at the market next week. But Buttermilk was eating the flowers. Taylor hurried outside and thought hard what to do.
“When I grow up, I’ll be an artist and paint pictures all day,” Taylor thought, “I’ll never keep a cow. Too much trouble.”
Just as Taylor was about to guide the cow out, Red, the family dog suddenly barked(吠). Buttermilk ran across the field, and most of the daisies were eaten or left in pieces.
Mama came out of the house. “What’s going on ” she asked. She looked sadly at her daisies.
“I forgot to close the gate,” Taylor said. “I’m so sorry.”
“I know you are.” Mama gave Taylor a hug. “You learned an important lesson today.”
Taylor’s heart was heavy as she went back into the house. She had to think of a way to make it up. Then a painting on the wall caught Taylor’s eye. “That’s it!” Taylor returned to her bedroom quickly and sat down at her desk, looking at the daisies left over. Soon, daisies came alive on the paper. Taylor made one painting after another.
The morning of the market day, when Mama was getting ready to sell the daisies, Taylor said to Mama, “I have a surprise for you.”
Mama was moved a lot when she saw Taylor’s paintings everywhere in the bedroom, bright and cheerful in the morning light.
“Do you think anyone will buy them ” Taylor asked.
Mama smiled. “Oh, sweetie, yes. I’m sure they will.”
34. Which is the right order of the following events
①Mama hugged Taylor to comfort her.
②Taylor forgot to close the gate of the farm.
③Taylor got an idea from the painting on the wall.
④Buttermilk went into the field and ate the flowers.
A.①③④② B. ②④①③ C. ③①②④ D. ④②③①
35. Taylor drew the pictures of daisies mainly to ______.
A. finish her homework B. keep the daisies safe
C. learn an important lesson D. make up for her mistake
36. Which of the following shows the change of Taylor’s feelings best
A. Worried → Sorry → Relaxed. B. Angry → Moved→ Pleased.
C. Sorry →Excited → Cheerful. D. Surprised → Angry → Hopeless.
C
An ageing population is a world-wide problem. Many countries are looking for ways to give the old better care.
Some developed countries don’t have enough care workers for the old. To solve the problem, Caring Robots have been made in Japan and are playing parts in looking after the old. With development in science, it’s possible for both the young and the old to enjoy life.
Culture also works in its way to care for the old. In China, people share the idea that the old are keepers of wisdom(智慧) and young people should look up to them and take care of them. It is helpful for the old to live together with the young with such idea.
Many old people hope to live independently(独立地) and freely. In Sweden, most of the old live in their own houses and enjoy living by themselves. Old people worked hard and did a lot for the country when they were young. Naturally, they can live the way as they like and get better homecare services to keep healthy.
To improve independent living, Singapore is building more friendly communities(社区) for the old. People doing different jobs like policemen, shopkeepers and students are trained to help the old. They help with the housework such as cooking and cleaning. In this way, old people can stay at home, not in a nursing center.
A society that allows the old to live well is what we are looking for. In our search for the best solution for a fast-increasing ageing population, let us keep in mind that we have to work together as there is no one-size-fits-all solution.
37. “Caring Robots” in Paragraph 2 are used as an example to show helps with the ageing problem.
A. public service B. modern science
C. homecare research D. housing development
38. How does Chinese culture work in caring for old people according to Paragraph 3
A. It teaches the young to live like the old.
B. It warns the old not to live with the young.
C. It lets the young believe they can learn from the old.
D. It makes the old think they are clever and hardworking.
39. According to the passage, in friendly communities people get trained to .
A. offer first aid to the old B. search for better living ways
C. help the old live at home D. keep the old healthy in nursing centers
40. What can be the best title for the passage
A. Caring for the Old B. Enjoying Living Together
C. Welcome Growing Old D. Learning to Be Independent
四、词汇运用（本题有15小题，每小题1分；共计15分）
A. 用方框中所给单词的适当形式填空，使句子通顺、正确。每词限用一次。
two mistake prepare medical although
41. The story was so interesting that I read it .
42. I some notes for a report when Susan came in.
43. We got to the railway station on time, the traffic was heavy.
44. It’s very important for students to correct the in their exercises every day.
45. Alan studies in a university and he wants to be a doctor in the future.
B. 根据短文内容和所给中文提示，写出短文空白处各单词的正确形式。每空限填一词。
There are big moments in everyone’s lives that show how brave a person is.
As 18-year-old Justin Gavin was walking down a 46 (当地的) street in Waterbury Connecticut, in the US, a passing car caught his 47 (注意力). The car was on fire. He shouted for the driver to stop, but she drove on.
“I was 48 (害怕的) because I didn’t know if the car was going to blow up (爆炸),” Justin said. But that didn’t stop him from giving a hand. When the burning car 49 (最后) came to a stop, Justin ran over as fast as he 50 (能). He broke one of the car’s windows and pulled the driver out. The fire 51 (变得) bigger, but he went on to pull the three children in the back seat to safety. Yes, it was Justin who 52 (救) four lives!
Later that day, the 53 (警察) knew the story and called Justin a hero. But to Justin, he was just doing what he thought he should do. “Life is too short, so I thought if it was me in that 54 (形势；情况), I would want someone to help me,” he said.
Justin showed the world what he was made of. He pushed through his fear to 55 (保护) complete strangers.
五、语法填空（本题有10小题，每小题1分；共计10分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的词，或填入括号中所给单词的正确形式。
Once you decide to study in the US, you should know which city is right 56 you. Let’s look into one of 57 (exciting) and famous cities — Seattle.
Seattle is a large coastal city with about 3.2 million people. Because of 58 (it) evergreen forests, Seattle is a good place to have outdoor activities such as camping, 59 (climb), hiking and so on.
There’s always something to do in Seattle. You’ll be 60 (interest) in film festivals, fan clubs and concerts. Hundreds of films around the world are shown during the Seattle International Film Festival. 61 wonderful!
While you 62 (study) in Seattle, it is important to have a university experience. Seattle is the home to lots of famous 63 (university) which will surely meet your needs.
If you want to learn 64 (much) information about Seattle, search on the Internet. But do remember to take 65 umbrella — it does rain from time to time.
六、任务型阅读（本题有5小题，每小题1分；共计5分）
阅读下面材料，找出文中相关信息补完笔记，使表格内容完整、通顺。（每空限填一词）
Zoology is everything about animals. It is the scientific study related to the entire species of the animal kingdom.An ancient Greek, Aristotle, was the first person to classify(分类) the living things in the 4th century BC. He first divided living things into animals and plants, and then went on with his further classifications. Later the words like biology(生物学), botany and zoology appeared.
People who study zoology are called zoologists. They learn about animals, like where they come from and how they live. There are many different kinds of zoologists. Some try to learn everything about one animal. And some try to understand where new kinds of animals come from.Charles Darwin is probably the most famous zoologist. He showed that animals are all one big family and every kind of animal changes slowly to match the place where they live.
Getting to know animals is important because people are animals. When we study animals, we learn about ourselves. And there are a lot of animals in danger. They are calling for our help. Click here to test your knowledge on zoology.
Zoology
The definition(定义) A subject studying 66 ; Aristotle was the first to classify the living things.
Things to do as zoologists Learning 67 about one animal;Understanding where new kinds of animals come from.
A famous zoologist and his idea Charles Darwin: Animals 68 slowly to match the place where they live.
The 69 of studying animals Learning about humans when studying animals; Lots of animals need 70 .
七、书面表达（本题有1小题，共计15分）
71. 假设你是李华，你的英国笔友Bruce二月份要来嘉兴旅游，请根据以下要点，给他写一封email。
注意： （1）围绕以上五个要点进行介绍，可作适当发挥；
（2）文中不得出现与你身份相关的信息；
（3）词数80左右。短文首句仅供参考，不计入总词数。
Dear Bruce,
I am glad to hear that you will come to China and visit Jiaxing in February.
Yours,
Li Hua
Zoology
Zoologists
Good to know
八年级（上）学科期末检测 英语试题卷 第 8 页（共8页）

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