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甘肃省华池县第一中学2023 -2024学年度第一学期期末考试
高一英语
注意事项：
1.本试卷分四部分。满分150分，考试时间120分钟。
2.考生作答时，请将答案答在答题卡上。选择题每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑；主观题请用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔在答题卡上各题的答题区域内作答，超出答题区域书写的答案无效，在试题卷、草稿纸上作答无效。
3.本试卷命题范围：必修第一册~必修第二册Unit4。
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5 分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What does the man want in his soup
A. Beef. B. Fish. C. Pork.
2. Who is getting married
A. The man. B. The man’s sister. C. The man’s brother.
3. What is the man going to do for the woman
A. Take her to the hospital.
B. Hold her hand still.
C. Check her hand.
4. What does the woman want the boy to do
A. Bring Andrew home. B. Get ready for school. C. Have lunch.
5. What is the main topic of the conversation
A. The scenery. B. A plan. C. The weather.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白，每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. How long has the woman been skiing
A. For 5 years. B. For 3 years. C. For 2 years.
7. What’s the Season in the man’s country when he goes to Australia
A. Winter. B. Summer. C. Spring.
听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。
8. What do the speakers have in common
A. They both have windows without curtains.
B. They both like being in nature.
C. They both live in apartments.
9. Where does the woman live
A. in a forest. B. Next to the sea. C. In the most crowded area.
听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。
10. Where might the speakers be
A. At school. B. At home. C. At an office.
11. What will the boy do this weekend
A. Go skiing. B. Visit a zoo. C. Study with his classmates.
12. Where will the woman go this weekend
A. To Washington D. C. B. To Los Angeles. C. To London.
听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。
13. What’s the relationship between the speakers
A. Co-workers. B. Husband and wife. C. Waitress and customer.
14. What will the man drink
A. Cola. B. Lemonade. C. Wine.
15. What do we know about the man
A. He is a vegetarian.
B. He hates noodles.
C. He wants something cheap.
16. Which food will the man bring home
A. Corn soup. B. Beef noodles. C. Fried fish.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. What kind of lessons did Florence Nightingale take in her early years
A. Music lessons. B. English lessons. C. Medical lessons.
18. Where did Florence Nightingale start a nursing home for women
A. In Germany. B. In Britain. C. In France.
19. What did Florence Nightingale do in 1854
A. She went to learn nursing abroad.
B. She built a hospital in a war field.
C. She looked after soldiers at the front hospitals.
20. When did Florence Nightingale write a book on public health
A. Before the Crimean War. B. During the Crimean War.
C. After the Crimean War.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Universal Beijing Resort（度假区） This is a fascinating theme park with the best universal rides, shows and attractions from around the world.
You can play in these areas: The Magic World of Harry Potter, Transformers, Kung Fu Panda Land, Hollywood, Water World, Minion Land（小黄人）and Jurassic Word（侏罗纪世界）. Its one-day ticket will follow a four-tiered pricing（四级票价）way: ·Low Season tickets 418 RMB: weekdays in Spring, Fall and Winter; ·Mid-Season tickets 528 RMB: weekends in Spring, Fall and Winter; ·High Season tickets 638 RMB: Opening Month, some holidays; ·Special Season tickets 748 RMB: May Day, National Day, Spring Festival and Summer Holiday. ·Opening time: 9:00a. m. -9:00 p. m. You can click here https:// www. / for more information.
21. How many areas can you play in the Universal Beijing Resort
A. Six. B. Seven. C. Eight. D. Nine.
22. If Cindy wants to go to the resort during the Spring Festival with her parents, she should pay ______.
A.748 RMB B.1,496 RMB C.1,914 RMB D.2,244 RMB
23. When can you visit the Universal Beijing Resort
A. At 8:00 a. m. B. At 8:30 a. m. C. At 1:00 p. m. D. At 10:00 p. m.
B
How do you address（称呼）people in English when you want to talk to them The following may be some simple rules the beginners should follow.
When talking to strangers there is often no special form of address in English. Usually, if you want to catch the attention of a stranger it is necessary to use such phrases as “Excuse me”.
In British English “Sir” and “Madam” are considered to be too formal for most situations. They are used mostly to customers in shops or restaurants. While in American English “Sir” and “Madam” are not so formal and are commonly used between strangers, especially with older people whose names you don’t know.
When you talk to some people you know, you can use their names. If you are friends, use their first names; if your relationship is more formal, use “Mr”, “Mrs”, “Ms”, etc, before their family names.
There are many other forms of address which can be used between friends and strangers. However, many of these are limited in use. For example, “pal” and “mate” can be used between strangers, but are usually only used by men talking to other men.
24. According to the passage, “Excuse me” is mainly used to _______.
A. address a person you don’t know B. catch the attention of a stranger
C. apologize to others D. suggest good manners
25. If John Smith is your best friend, according to the passage you should often call him _______.
A. John B. Smith C. Mr John D. Mr Smith
26. In _______ “sir” and “Madam” are considered to be too formal for most situations.
A. American English B. Old English C. British English D. Chinglish
27. The passage is most likely taken from an English _______.
A. storybook B. card C. textbook D. grammar book
C
The Torch Festival （火把节）is a traditional festival which is celebrated among some ethnic groups（少数民族）in southwestern China, such as the Yi, Bai, Hani, Lisu, and Lahu, etc. It usually falls on the 24th or 25th of June, with three days of celebrations. The festival came from worship（崇拜）of fire by ancestors. For some ethnic groups, it’s a tradition in the festival for elders to share farming experience with young people and educate them about taking care of crops.
During the festival, big torches are made to stand in all villages, with small torches placed in front of the door of each house. When night falls, the torches are lit and the villages are bright. At the same time, people walk around the fields and houses, holding small torches and placing the torches in the field corners. Inside the villages, young people are singing and dancing around the big torches that keep burning throughout the night. Other activities like horse races are also held during the festival.
In a horse race of the Yi people in Yunnan, torches are used to form hurdles for riders to get through. The Hani people in Yunnan traditionally tie fruits to torches with strings. When the strings are broken after the torches are lit, people struggle for the fruits for good luck.
For the Lisu people in Sichuan, the festival is an occasion for holding torch parades（游行）. Big torches are carried by teams of people, which is like a fire dragon. If different teams meet, it’s a tradition to exchange the big torches with one another.
28. What can we know about the Torch Festival from the first paragraph
A. I has nothing to do with farming.
B. Its celebrations usually last two days.
C. It is a traditional festival of all China.
D. It is a festival to show worship of fire.
29. What does the underlined word “them” in Paragraph 1 refer to
A. Ancestors. B. Young people. C. Elders. D. Ethnic groups.
30. What is the main idea of the second paragraph
A. Why the festival is enjoyed. B. Where the festival is celebrated.
C. How the festival is celebrated. D. What torches are used for the festival.
31. Which is a way that Lisu people in Sichuan celebrate the festival according to the text
A. Holding torch parades.
B. Tying fruits to torches with strings.
C. Struggling for fruits for good luck.
D. Using torches as hurdles for a horse race.
D
A state in Australia is fixing cameras as part of an effort to reduce the number of people using wireless devices（设备）while they drive. Road safety experts are worried about the growing number of accidents because of drivers using smartphones on the state’s roads. They say drivers who use phones while driving greatly increase their chances of causing an accident.
The units use AI to set aside drivers who are not touching their phones. Human beings then make sure if the pictures show illegal behavior before a notice is sent to the vehicle’s owner. A violation（违反）carries a fine of $232. Some cameras will be set up on roadsides forever. Others will be moved, from time to time, around the state.
Two fixed cameras took photos of 8.5 million vehicles as part of a six-month test earlier this year. The cameras took photos of more than 100,000 drivers with their hands on phones. One driver was using a phone and an Apple iPad at the same time. Another driver had a passenger guide the vehicle while they both held phones.
Not everyone agrees with the new program. Peter Khoury is a member of Australia’s National Rosds and Motorists’ Association. He accused（谴责）the government of using secret methods to cut down on phone that does not follow the law. The association supports stricter action against drivers who pay too much attention to their phones. However, the association wants the government to set up signs warning drivers that phone cameras are operating in an area.
Government modeling found that the phone cameras could prevent 100 deaths and serious injuries over five years.
Drivers are allowed to use phones in hands free carriers and through wireless connections（连接）. But it does not follow the law to touch a phone while driving except to pass it to a passenger. Drivers who are sitting at red lights or stopped in heavy traffic should also follow the new law.
32. Why is the Australian state setting up cameras on the roads
A. To protect drivers.
B. To warm drivers of traffic jams.
C. To encourage the use of phones.
D. To reduce traffic accidents.
33. What kind of photos will the cameras store in the system
A. Drivers holding a phone. B. Drivers touching their nose.
C. Passengers talking with the driver.
D. Passengers using two devices at the same time.
34. What is Peter Khoury’s attitude towards the government’s methods
A. Uncaring. B. Against. C. Doubtful. D. Supportive.
35. What can drivers do to avoid being punished
A. Use a passenger’s phone.
B. Touch the phone at red lights.
C. Ask passengers to answer the phone.
D. Make a phone call while trapped in traffic.
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
How to Introduce Yourself in Class
Introducing yourself to a class, whether you are the student or the teacher, can feel frightening. 36
Stand up when it’s your turn to introduce yourself.
This will make you appear more confident. 37 It may feel awkward to stand up, but your introduction will be over more quickly than you think.
Smile when you speak.
Even if you are super nervous, smiling will make your voice sound calmer and will help you mask that nervousness. 38
Speak with confidence.
You want everyone to be able to hear you, so when you introduce yourself, do so in a clear, loud voice. 39 .
Give your name first.
It’s helpful to give your first name, pause, and then give your first and last name, like “Hello, my name is June , June Thompson.” The repetition makes it more likely that others will remember your name.
40
If you are involved in sports or have pets or like to travel, the end of your introduction is a good place to give this information. You could say something like, “When I’m not studying, I like to train for and run in half- marathons.” This gives your classmates and teacher a memorable activity to tie to your name.
A. Share information about your family.
B. Here are some suggestions that can help.
C. Don’t be shy or stare down at the ground.
D. That’s because you are nervous before strangers.
E. Offer personal details, like hobbies or interests you have.
F. This will also help you speak more clearly than if you were to stay seated.
G. It also shows your classmates and your teacher that you are friendly and approachable.
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分45分）
第一节（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
I didn’t expect parenting a teenager to be this hard. Lately, my son and I disagree at every corner. About schoolwork. His attitude. Screen time. On and on. 41 I say is met with an eye roll. My fuse（导火线）is admittedly shorter than normal right now, due to some unrelated 42 and illness.
On a recent 43 home, after picking up my teen from school, we made a quick detour（绕行）for a grocery 44 . As soon as the food was 45 , my child snatched from the trunk a box of individually wrapped and processed snack cakes I’d unwillingly allowed.
As he ate the yellow cake and frosted coating, I silently questioned my decision to 46 him to do so.
But before we’d even 47 the parking lot, he asked me to 48 . I just wanted this errand（差事）to be done. But then my son 49 me: He asked if he could share a few of his treasured treats with a homeless man, who stood coatless outside the store.
Of course, I stopped the car.
Actually, I hadn’t even considered the homeless in my rush to get home, 50 my car was packed with food. Without hesitation, my teenage son 51 the stranger a few little cakes. The man 52 us, and we continued on our way. Actually, my kid seemed 53 : “What if he doesn’t like them ” he said. And a few seconds later, my son 54 , “Mom! He’s already eating one!”
Throughout our journey home, we frankly discussed how difficult it must be for people experiencing 55 . It was a 56 conversation with no quarrel or negotiations. 57 a time to reflect and count how much we have to be thankful for.
When we eventually turned into our garage, that same teenager expressing 58 for my recent illness- announced “You’re not unloading any of these bags. I got this, Mom.”
Yes, parenting a teen is harder than I 59 . But it’s also 60 : And, in that moment, you realize you’ve actually raised a pretty awesome human being.
41. A. Something B. Nothing C. Everything D. That
42. A. disability B. worries C. challenges D. tricks
43. A. subway B. bike C. bus D. drive
44. A. pickup B. checkout C. workout D. overuse
45. A. packed B. loaded C. created D. delivered
46. A. addict B. accommodate C. allow D. survive
47. A. entered B. escaped C. explored D. exited
48. A. pull over B. breath in C. try out D. run out
49. A. frightened B. disappointed C. surprised D. struck
50. A.as if B. if only C. even though D. in case
51. A. threw B. showed C. applied D. handed
52. A. refused B. thanked C. greeted D. cheated
53. A. joyful B. worried C. amazed D. eager
54. A. cheered B. added C. stressed D. inspired
55. A. disease B. homelessness C. independence D. crash
56. A. rare B. beneficial C. responsible D. shallow
57. A. Immediately B. Partly C. Often D. Simply
58. A. shock B. desire C. suffering D. concern
59. A. expected B. attempted C. appeared D. explored
60. A. tougher B. more curious C. sweeter D. more admirable
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
So far, the village soccer super league（联赛）in Rongjiang county , Southwest China’s Guizhou province, has become 61 popular that it has caught the attention of famous figures such as former soccer player Michael Owen.
On June 12, former national soccer player Fan Zhiyi responded 62 an invitation from players from Guizhou’s villager soccer super league. Fan expressed his 63 （excite）and promised to join them on June 22 in Rongjiang, where he will also bring his team to play a match with them on June 23
Before this, Hong Kong movie star Natalis Chan also 64 （challenge）the village soccer super league and promised to bring his celebrity（名人）soccer team for a 65 （friend）match. The celebrity football team includes many famous 66 （star）such as Alan Tam, Eric Tsang, Andy Lau, Hacken Lee, and Jacky Cheung.
The Guizhou village soccer super league’s players, 67 come from all walks of life, include truck drivers, carpenters, shopkeepers, construction workers, farmers, and more. They all share 68 same passion for soccer and are devoted to 69 （put）on an exciting show.
Following the final match of the village soccer super league on July 29 , Rongjiang will launch a national invitation competition, inviting teams from all over China 70 （participate）in the event.
第四部分 应用文写作（满分25分）
假设你是新华中学高一学生李华，你的英国朋友Peter在给你的邮件中提到他对中国传统节日很感兴趣。请你给他回复邮件，给Peter介绍一个你最熟悉或最喜欢的中国传统节日。
内容包括：
1.节日名称及时间；
2.节日庆贺方式；
3.邀请对方来华感受节日氛围；
注意：1.词数100词左右；
2.开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数。
Dear Peter,
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Hua.
甘肃省华池县第一中学2023 -2024学年度第一学期期末考试·高一英语参考答案、提示及评分细则
听力部分录音稿
（Text 1）
W: What kind of meat would you like, sir We have pork, beef, and fish.
M: Fish for the soup and beef with the vegetables, please.
（Text 2）
M: Mom, I want to buy a suit for my brother’s wedding. Do we have enough extra money
W: Not really. But you could ask your father to pay for it. He offered to buy a dress for your sister.
（Text 3）
W: I hurt my hand yesterday, and now it becomes worse.
M: Okay, stay calm and hold it still for now. I’ll drive you over to the hospital to get it checked.
（Text 4）
W: You’re still eating You have to meet Andrew at the bus stop and bring him home. Hurry up and get ready, or you’ll be late!
M: Aw, Mom! Can’t he walk home by himself
（Text 5）
W: Do you think the river will come up soon It has been raining so much these past few days.
M: No, it’s supposed to stop this evening. I’ll be sunny tomorrow.
（Text 6）
W: Have you ever been skiing before It’s become my favorite activity recently. My parents began skiing about 5 years ago, and in the last 3 years I have started, too.
M: Yes, and I love skiing. I have family in Australia. When it is summer here, we go to visit them and go skiing there. That only happens about every 2 years, though.
W: That’s amazing! I admire that there is still snow on the ground in Australia in spring, because I can ski longer than usual.
（Text 7）
M: My mornings are filled with light. I love living in a house in the countryside, in a place where I don’t need curtains on my windows!
W: I don’t need them, either, and I live in a big city.
M: How do you do that There are so many buildings around. Do you live right next to the sea
W: No, I live in the most crowded area.
M: Then, other people must be able to see into your apartment.
W: Not at all. I live high up in one of the tallest buildings, and it stands on a hill. No one can look into my windows except the birds!
（Text 8）
M: My classmates Will and Boris are coming over on Saturday to study together. Would you make some snacks for us
W: My dear, I’d love to, but I’ll be gone this weekend to go to a business meeting.
M: The whole weekend Is your meeting in London again
W: No, it’s in Washington DC. I have never met this group before, but I was told they are very nice by my friend Mark in Los Angeles. He often does business with them.
M: That sounds boring. I would like you to stay here with us.
W: I know, but this is an important meeting. Besides, we often do other things like going to the zoo and going skiing together. When I come back, I will bring presents for you, OK
M: All right.
（Text 9）
W: What would you like to drink, sir We have a special on cola during this time of day.
M: I don’t like cola, and it is too early for wine, so I will take lemonade. What are your special meals tonight
W: We have chicken soup, beef noodles and fried fish.
M: I can’t eat any of that. I am a vegetarian. Don’t you have any vegetable dishes
W: Oh, I am sorry. We have com soup, but it is not as cheap as the meals that are on the special menu tonight.
M: That is fine. I will have the com soup. And I will need one order of the beef noodles. It’s to go. It is for my wife at home.
W: No problem. Is there anything else I can help you with
M: I would like to change my seat if that’s possible. I enjoy looking out the window at the park across the street.
W: I’ll check to see if we have a table free.
（Text 10）
Florence Nighingale was born into a rich family. When she was young, she took lessons in music and drawing, and read great books. As a child, she felt that visiting sick people was a duty and a pleasure. She then made up her mind to be a nurse. She went to learn nursing in Germany. When she returned to England, Florence started a nursing home for women. During the Crimean War in 1854, she went with a group of thirty-eight nurses to the front hospitals.
What they saw there was scary. Dirt and death were everywhere to be seen and smelled. The officer there did not want any women to tell him how to run a hospital, either. But the brave nurses went to work. After the war, she was honored for her services by Queen Victoria. She raised money to build the Nightingale Training School in London. Moreover, she wrote a book on public health, which was printed in several Countries.
参考答案
1 ~5 BCAAC 6~10 BBACB 11~15 CACBA 16~20 BABCC
21 -25 BDCBA 26-30 CCDBC 31 -35 ADABC
36-40 BFGCE
41 ~45 CBDAB 46~50 CDACC 51 ~55 DBBAB 56~ 60 ADDAC
61.so 62. to 63. excitement 64. challenged 65. friendly 66. stars 67. who 68. the 69. putting
70. to participate
写作:
One possible version:
Dear Peter,
Knowing that you are interested in traditional Chinese festivals, I’m glad to introduce one of them to you.
Mid-autumn Festival, also known as Mooncake Festival, is held on the 15th day of the eighth month in the Chinese lunar calendar. On that day, family members will try their best to go back home and get together with their family. People usually had a big dinner. Of course, mooncakes are a must. After dinner, people usually go outdoors to appreciate the moon and enjoy the beautiful lanterns in the streets and parks. Mid-autumn Festival, which is a time of family reunion, is highly valued by all the Chinese.
Hope you can come and celebrate the festival with me someday.
Yours,
Li Hua

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