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2023～2024学年第一学期期末调研考试
高一英语试题
说明：1．本试卷共12页，满分150分，考试时间120分钟。
2．请将所有答案填涂或填写在答题卡相应的答题处，否则不得分。
第一部分：听力（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例：How much is the shirt A． 19.15. B． 9.18. C． 9.15. 答案是C。
1．When will the speakers go out for dinner
A．At 6:30. B．At 7:30. C．At 8:00.
2．Who is sick
A．David. B．Jake. C．Sue.
3．What did the woman do last week
A．She cooked food. B．She went to a restaurant. C．She helped her grandma.
4．What does the woman decide to do
A．Change her diet. B．Do more sports. C．Drink warm milk.
5．What are the speakers talking about
A．The man’s course. B．The man’s father. C．The man’s future job.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。
6．Why does the woman come to the man
A．To book a hotel. B．To buy a car. C．To ask the way.
7．How will the woman go to the hotel
A．By car. B．On foot. C．By taxi.
听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。
8．What are the speakers mainly talking about
A．Their current situations. B．Tough job market. C．News about Mike.
9．What do we know about the woman
A．She works at Microsoft.
B．She left school one year ago.
C．She is studying computer science.
10．What does the man think of Mike’s decision
A．It’s encouraging. B．It’s surprising. C．It’s challenging.
听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。
11．What is the show about
A．Traditional techniques. B．Classical posters. C．World paintings.
12．How long will the show last
A．A week. B．A month. C．Two months.
13．How much is the admission for local students
A．None. B.$5. C.$10.
听第9段材料，回答第14至17题。
14．Why is the man interested in this job
A．To challenge himself. B．To work abroad. C．To stay in Seattle.
15．What is good customer service according to the man
A．Being a good listener.
B．Giving suitable suggestions.
C．Visiting customers frequently.
16．How can the man improve his work
A．By being more patient.
B．By doing paperwork quickly.
C．By keeping learning new skills.
17．What will the speakers talk about next
A．Job responsibilities. B．The benefits. C．The pay.
听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。
18．What does the speaker think of his first marathon
A．Boring. B．Satisfying. C．Difficult.
19．Why does the speaker find the race in Kuala Lumpur hardest
A．He was too nervous.
B．He lacked training beforehand.
C．He didn’t take his running shoes.
20．What made the speaker shocked in the race in Russia
A．He got the third place.
B．He completed his challenge.
C．It took place in hot weather.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
has listed the best scenic spots in Europe for an autumn getaway. Here are the top four:
Barcelona, Spain
Barcelona takes first place, with the highest number of cheap restaurants and budget （经济型） hotels. There are many hidden treasures in Barcelona’s Gothic Quarter, so it’s a great city for explorers.
Lisbon, Portugal
Lisbon is listed in second place –also moving up one position from last year’s results. Lisbon has the highest average temperature from September to November out of all cities. The city is famous for its artists and its Fado music, so there’s plenty for people looking for culture.
Berlin, Germany
In third place is Berlin, offering a range of different experiences. If you are travelling to party, then the world famous clubs that call Berlin home could be for you. If you are looking for history, then few cities have been at the heart of world politics（政治） in the same way that Berlin has.
Budapest, Hungary
In fourth place is Budapest. Budapest has an average of 56mm of rainfall during the Autumn months, the second lowest out of all cities. Buda, famous for being quiet and beautiful and Pest, for its nightlife and tourist attractions, form two halves of Budapest and are separated by the Danube River.
21．Which city has the lowest cost of food and hotel stay
A．Barcelona, Spain. B．Lisbon, Portugal.
C．Berlin, Germany. D．Budapest, Hungary.
22．Which cities would attract people who enjoy social life
A．Barcelona and Lisbon. B．Lisbon and Berlin.
C．Berlin and Budapest. D．Budapest and Barcelona.
23．Which part of a magazine is this text probably taken from
A．Music. B．Business. C．Technology. D．Tourism.
B
The announcement that Indhu Rubasingham is to be the artist director of the Royal National Theatre （NT） in 2025 has been met with cheers, within the industry and without.
Workmates at the Kiln theatre in Brent, where Rubasingham has been director since 2012, describe her as inspiring, risk-taking and tough. Rufus Norris has called her “an exceptional artist who I respect and admire hugely”.
Rubasingham may be the NT’s female artistic director and the first person of colour in the role, but her own achievements contribute to her position. From a theatre with just 292 seats, she has commissioned （委托） and created productions of international quality. There has been Florian Zeller’s trilogy The father, The Mother and the Son and her production of Zadie Smith’s The Wife of Willesden. A recent success is Ryan Calais Cameron’s civil rights story Retrograde.
Rubasingham is not new to National Theatre: as Norris says, “it’s a place she knows well, having directed successfully in each of the three theatres”. However, it’s a big leap from the 292 seats of the Kiln to the challenges of NT, with 2,450 seats, plus outreach, educational and digital programs. All this has to be done against the worst financial（金融的） situations since the NT was founded in 1963．Today, any director of a national arts organization in the UK faces a hard time, with the financial black hole left by the pandemic（疫情）.
Rubasingham, however, is all about the artists: the play-writers and actors and many other creative talents who make her theatre what it is. That’s the special talent she brings to this position. She herself has described it as “the best job in the world”.
24．What can we learn about Rubasingham from the first two paragraphs
A．She is envied by Rufus Norris.
B．She is welcomed to take the position.
C．She doesn’t get along with workmates.
D．She has moved from the Kiln to the NT.
25．Why are Rubasingham’s productions listed in Paragraph 3
A．To praise her success in directing.
B．To promote her works internationally.
C．To introduce her understanding of art.
D．To show her relationship with play-writers.
26．What challenges will Rubasingham face in her new position
A．The pandemic. B．Little experience.
C．Lack of money. D．Technological problems.
27．Which of the following best describes Rubasingham
A．Expert and creative. B．Flexible and generous.
C．Energetic and efficient. D．Well-meaning and well-rounded.
C
Feeling a bit less stable （稳定的） than before Maybe you find yourself holding on to handrails（扶手） more when going down stairs As we get older, our balance gets worse. But how much does it matter
A lot, it turns out. If your balance isn’t great, you’re more likely to fall. That can have serious results as we age, when bones often become weak. Research has also shown that balance is important for how long we will live.
A study of 1,702 people aged 51 to 75 found that people who couldn’t stand on one leg for ten seconds were nearly twice as likely to die in the next ten years. Falls could be one reason why, but that’s unlikely to be the whole story. Individuals who were in worse health were more likely to fail the ten-second test.
There are three parts to balance. The first is the visual system which shows us whether we’re losing balance. Then the vestibular system（前庭系统） in the inner ear sends information to our brain about the move of our head. The third one is our body’s ability to sense its location, movement and actions. People with ear problems that cause dizziness （眩晕）, or muscle weakness are more likely to have balance problems. If you suffer from dizziness, see your doctor to find out the reason. But there’s a lot you can do yourself to improve physical strength.
If you exercise, you’re ahead of the game. One study found that a group that did 32 weeks of aerobic exercise increased their ability to stand on one foot by 31 per cent. Otherwise, improve your balance by walking, cycling or climbing stairs-this will strengthen muscles in the lower body-or by practising yoga or tai chi.
28．What is the function of Paragraph 1
A．To support an idea. B．To make a conclusion.
C．To introduce the topic. D．To give some examples.
29．Why is the study mentioned in Paragraph 3
A．To tell the risk of early death. B．To record people’s living habits.
C．To arouse concern about the senior. D．To prove the importance of balance.
30．In normal cases, who is more likely to fall
A．A short-sighted adult. B．An old man with weak muscle.
C．A well-trained gymnast. D．A teenage boy with hearing loss.
31．What is the last paragraph mainly about
A．How to improve your balance. B．How to strengthen your muscles.
C．How to select proper ways to exercise. D．How to keep yourself ahead of a game.
D
Our future selves used to be a riddle. Now, thanks to social media filters（滤镜）,we can stare them right in the face. People fell in love with TikTok this month to share themselves “aging” in real time using a filter “time travel”. Set to a sad song, the effect shows the user’s face slowly getting older, complete with wrinkles（皱纹）and sunspots.
Camera filters that age you have been around for years. But advancements in AI are making the results more real. Doctor Aleksandra Brown said the TikTok time travel filter does well in guessing how a given face would age.
As we get older, our facial skin thins, fat dissolves（溶解） and gravity pulls everything downward. Not everyone is pleased about this. One of Brown’s friends didn’t like watching time fly past. She couldn’t stand watching herself age 50 years in 15 seconds-could life really go by that fast Brown cried herself after using the aging effect on her own young daughter. She won’t live to see her daughter get that old, she pointed out.
For other people, the time travel filter brought up unexpected positive feelings. Actor Jonathan Bennett shared a video saying his own filtered face recalled happy memories of his late father. Nicole Loehle, a 24-year-old in New Jersey, tested the effect with her boyfriend. It gave her a new viewpoint, she said, she could imagine the relationship lasting into their old age.
There’s no correct way to age. But it’s important to remember that no one can stop time or undo its effects. “I keep trying to view aging as a gift.” Brown said, “Some people don’t get to age, unfortunately ”
32．What can people do with the filter “time travel”
A．Find their partners. B．See their aging faces.
C．Experience others’ lives. D．Guess their future success.
33．What are Paragraph 3 and Paragraph 4 mainly about
A．Reminders of the good old days. B．Reasons for using the aging effect.
C．Reflections on close personal relationships. D．Responses to the aging effect of “time travel”.
34．Which of the following would Brown probably agree with
A．It’s good to watch time fly past. B．The “time travel” needs advancements.
C．Not everyone is fortunate enough to get old. D．TickTok invented the first app with aging effect.
35．What can be the best title for the text
A．TikTok’s “time travel”: slowly or quickly B．TikTok’s “time travel”: backward or forward
C．TikTok’s “time travel”: to enjoy or to suffer D．TikTok’s “time travel”: to develop or to drop
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Anyone who has an idea worth sharing is able to give a powerful talk. The only important thing in public speaking is not confidence, stage presence, or smooth talking. 36
I am using the word “idea” quite generally here. 37 It can be a simple how-to. Or a beautiful picture that has meaning. Or perhaps just a reminder of what matters most in life. An idea is anything that can change how people see the world.
Do you have ideas that are worth a wider audience 38 A lot of speakers are happy to talk for hours without sharing anything much of value. But there are also many people who think little of the value of their work, their learning, and their deep understandings.
More likely, you have far more in you worth sharing than you’re even aware of. You don’t have to have invented lion lights. You’ve led a life that is yours and yours only. 39 There are lessons to be drawn from some of those experiences that are definitely worth sharing. You just have to know which ones.
40 What are the two or three things you’ve done that you’re most proud of If you could wave a magic stick, what is the one idea you’d most love to spread to other people’s minds
A．Are you stressed about this
B．It is having something worth saying.
C．It doesn’t have to be a great invention.
D．The lesson you might draw from the story is familiar.
E．There are experiences you’ve had that are unique to you.
F．Think back over your work of the last three or four years.
G．It’s amazing how bad we are at judging an answer to that question.
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
It was Grandpa’s 70th birthday. The whole 41 had been preparing for it for quite some time.
Early in the morning, I woke up excited. First I got dressed 42 . Then I headed downstairs to 43 . Mum was already preparing Grandpa’s special birthday lunch. Dad was 44 to be seen. After a quick breakfast, I checked the special gift I had made for Grandpa, a 45 of his life story - for the last time. For weeks I had been working on this, listening to Grandpa’s stories, selecting his favourite music and 46 photos from the family album （相册）.
Just before lunchtime, Dad came in with some 47 . Surprisingly, they were Grandpa’s best friends from secondary school, all in their seventies. Grandpa couldn’t believe his 48 and it took quite a long time for them to 49 . As soon as the guests took their 50 , Grandpa’s favourite music began to fill the room with 51 of the old days. With each old photo, the guests saw how Grandpa 52 from a handsome boy to a kind old gentleman. When Grandpa and his friends appeared in an old photo in their school uniforms（校服）, there was a lot of 53 in the room, and quite a few tears in their eyes.
Towards the end of the party, Grandpa said 54 , “It is a wonderful birthday celebration and I’ve got the best 55 I have ever received. Now I am looking forward to my eightieth, ninetieth and even one hundredth birthdays already!”
41．A．community B．company C．family D．neighborhood
42．A．anxiously B．quickly C．slowly D．lazily
43．A．study B．work C．play D．help
44．A．somewhere B．everywhere C．anywhere D．nowhere
45．A．book B．video C．painting D．photo
46．A．collecting B．sorting C．taking D．sharing
47．A．neighbors B．guests C．relatives D．audience
48．A．senses B．feelings C．eyes D．ears
49．A．make out B．calm down C．back down D．cheer up
50．A．seats B．turns C．place D．break
51．A．memories B．events C．ideas D．fantasies
52．A．adapted B．moved C．grew D．went
53．A．sighs B．noises C．whispers D．laughters
54．A．nervously B．excitedly C．confidently D．uneasily
55．A．wishes B．reward C．regards D．gift
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
As a new school year begins, 56 （open） your mind to new people and experiences will help you make friends and discover new interests. Being open-minded means trying to understand other people’s thoughts and ideas, trying new experiences and 57 （explore） different ways of doing things.
There are lots of benefits to having 58 open mind. It enables you to learn new things about the world and the people around you. This makes you feel more positive and 59 （confidence） about facing challenges. Besides, having an interest in other people 60 （help） you understand and share their feelings. Being open to fresh ideas can also help develop exciting new ones of your own.
Then 61 can you be more curious and open-minded Start by asking questions. So if you’re unsure about joining a new club, ask 62 （you） what’s stopping you. 63 （imagine） how it feels to learn a new skill, meet new people and make friends. Don’t jump to a sudden decision but give yourself time to think about it first. If someone says something with 64 you disagree, then instead of deciding they are wrong or arguing back, take a moment to consider why they have that opinion. Finally, open your mind to new ideas. Even if you think you’re an expert on a subject, there is always 65 （much） you can learn.
第三节（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，从方框中选择适当的词或短语，并用其适当形式填空。每个词或短语只用一次。
value courage strong honest give up positive prepare effort focus on in return
If I Were a Boy Again
If I were a boy again, I would try hard to talk to myself 66 to learn about my own weaknesses and 67 , and I would begin early enough, before faults（缺点） had time to become habits.
If I were a boy again, I would practise perseverance （毅力）, and never 68 because it was hard to do something. If we want light, we must beat darkness. There is nothing more 69 than perseverance when the right thing needs to be done.
If I were a boy again, I would build a habit of attention, and I would let nothing come between me and my goals. When we are young, one of our great mistakes is that we do not strictly 70 what we are doing at that particular moment. If we begin early and put a lot of 71 , it is easy to learn how to pay attention.
If I were a boy again, I would try to become a brave person. I would consider 72 as one of the highest achievements of life. Dangers will appear in any place, at any time, but staying calm will often get over the worst danger. Be 73 for any potential danger and show your bravery.
If I were a boy again, I would look on the 74 side of everything. Life is like a mirror; if you smile upon it, it smiles back again on you, but if you frown（皱眉）, you will be sure to get a similar look 75 . Inner sunshine warms not only the heart of the owner, but all who come in contact with it.
第四部分 书面表达（共两节，满分30分）
第一节 应用文写作（满分15分）
假定你是李华，你校太极拳社团（TaiChiClub）开始招募新成员了。请给你的朋友，交换生Micheal，写封邮件邀请他加入。内容包括：
1．太极拳简介；
2．社团活动安排；
3．发出邀请。
注意：
1．写作词数应为80 左右；
2．请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Dear Micheal, Yours sincerely, Li Hua
第二节 阅读表达（满分15分）
阅读下面材料，根据文后各题目的具体要求完成阅读后的表达任务。
Silent friends in a life storm
Dear Annalisa,
My dad died unexpectedly a few months ago and I feel angry with some of my oldest friends, who have hardly contacted me since it happened.
Three months on, I’ve finally heard from some of them through text about other matters. I didn’t mention my sad stories, and they didn’t ask.
I understand that death is a frightening subject and that people might worry about saying the wrong thing. Yet I still feel a bit hurt by their lack of contact after my dad’s funeral （葬礼）.
Now I don’t want to face them because I don’t want to make them feel guilty（内疚的）. Normally they are extremely good friends who I love very much. I have other friends, so I can manage this without their support. I just want to let go of the anger so I can get through this sadness. Hope to receive your advice.
Yours,
Amy
Dear Amy,
I ‘m so sorry to hear about your dad’s death.
Your anger may come from being unable to ask for the help you need. You also seem worried about troubling your friends too much.
It is likely that your friends are very concerned about you. Perhaps their own fear of the subject is too big to comfort you and, just as you say, they are frightened of saying the wrong thing. Also, people often want to “fix” things, but no one can fix death, so they may feel powerless to help you. In these situations, you have to be brave to break the ice and tell them not only what you need, but also how to offer help.
If you really can’t ask your “silent” friends for help, maybe you could count more on those other friends. You might find some psychological （心理的） treatment useful as well. Talking to someone with professional knowledge who understands your situation can help you carry the burden of sadness.
Yours,
Annalisa
Ⅰ．根据文章内容，使用文章中的原词完成下列表格，每空一词。（7分）
Amy’s problem Some of her oldest friends have seldom contacted her since her dad’s death, making her feel angry and 76 .
Annalisa’s analysis（分析） ● Amy’s anger comes from the fact that she is 77 to ask for help. ● The subject of death is so frightening that her friends are at a loss what to say to 78 her. ● Her friends may feel powerless to help her solve the problem so they choose to keep 79 .
Annalisa’s 80 ● Be brave to start a conversation with her friends. ● 81 more on those other friends. ● Seek 82 support.
Ⅱ．假如你是 Amy，请给Annalisa回一封信，表示感谢并告诉她你打算怎么做。写作词数应为40左右。（5分）
Dear Annalisa, Yours, Amy
Ⅲ．假定你是Amy的朋友，得知她的困扰，你将如何提供帮助？请用英语写出你可以做的三件事。（3 分）
（1） （2） （3）
2023～2024学年第一学期期末调研考试
高一英语参考答案
第一部分：听力（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）
1-5 AACBC 6-10 CBACB 11-15CBABA 16-20 BCBCA
第二部分：阅读（共20小题；每小题2.5分，满分50分）
21-25 ACDBA 26-30 CACDB 31-35 ABDCC 36-40 BCGEF
第三部分：语言运用（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
41-45CBDDB 46-50 ABCBA 51-55 ACDBD
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
59．confident 60．helps
56．opening 57．exploring 58．an
61．how 62．yourself 63．Imagine 64．which 65．more
第三节（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
66．honestly 67．strengths 68．give up 69．valuable
70．focus on 71．effort（s） 72．courage 73．prepared
74．positive 75．in return
第四部分：书面表达（共两节，满分30分）
第一节应用文写作（满分15分）
One possible version:
Dear Micheal,
The Tai Chi Club at our school is taking on new members. I’m writing to invite you to join us.
Tai Chi is a traditional Chinese martial art focusing on slow movements and deep breathing. It can improve our physical balance and flexibility. It also helps to reduce anxiety and promote a state of mental peace.
Joining the club is a good chance to exercise, meet people and get a taste of Chinese culture as well. We meet every Friday afternoon at the school hall, practising Tai Chi with the guidance of experienced instructors.
If you’re interested, let me know.
Yours sincerely,
Li Hua
（100 words）
第二节 阅读表达（满分15分）
Ⅰ．（共7小题；每小题1分，满分7分）
76．hurt 77．unable 78．comfort/help 79．silent
80．advice 81．Count 82．psychological/professional/other
Ⅱ．（满分5分）
One possible version:
Dear Annalisa,
Thanks for your understanding and advice.
I have decided get together with my old friends this weekend and tell them my feelings. I guess death is a hard topic for everyone, but we can work together to get through this tough time. After all, that’s what friends are for.
Yours,
Amy
答题要点：
1．内容要点包括表示感谢和说明自己的具体打算；
2．表达的内容要与文章中的建议相关，以示Amy是在读了Annalisa的回信后做出的合情合理的决定，思考要符合逻辑；
3．语言通顺，表达正确。
Ⅲ．（满分3分）
One possible version:
（1）I’ll text or call Amy to tell her that I’m sorry for her loss.
（2）I’ll invite Amy to share her feeling and be ready to listen.
（3）I’ll ask Amy what I can do to help her and be there for her.

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