山东省济南市2023-2024学年高二上学期1月期末学习质量检测英语试题(含答案)

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山东省济南市2023-2024学年高二上学期1月期末学习质量检测英语试题(含答案)

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济南市2023-2024学年高二上学期1月期末学习质量检测
英语试题
本试卷共12页。满分150分。考试用时120分钟。
注意事项:
1.答题前,考生先将自己的姓名、准考证号码填写清楚,将条形码准确粘贴在考生信息条形码粘贴区。
2.选择题必须使用2B铅笔填涂;非选择题必须使用0.5毫米黑色字迹的签字笔书写,字体工整、笔迹清楚。
3.请按照题号顺序在答题卡各题目的答题区域内作答,超出答题区域书写的答案无效;在草稿纸、试卷上答题无效。
4.保持卡面清洁,不要折叠,不要弄破、弄皱,不准使用涂改液、修正带、刮纸刀。
第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. Where does the woman want to go
A. A garage. B. A school. C. A green land.
2. What was the man asked to focus on
A. Global events. B. His studies. C. terrible things.
3. What does the man advise the woman to do
A. Be more independent.
B. Respect her teacher more.
C. Rely more on her teacher.
4. What are the speakers talking about
A. The guard hiring. B. The woman’s family. C. The man’s employer.
5. What does the man mean
A. He agrees with the woman.
B. The woman should be polite.
C. The woman’s concern is useless.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话,回答第6和第7两个小题。
6. What does the woman offer to.do for the man
A. Pick him up. B. Call him in time. C. Record a program.
7. What will the man be busy doing tonight
A. Preparing for a business trip.
B. Watching a TV program.
C. Holding a meeting.
听下面一段对话,回答第8和第9两个小题。
8. What can we know about the man
A. He majors in literature.
B. He is a college student.
C. He joins a debate team.
9. What will the speakers probably do next
A. Attend a party. B. Do some sports. C. Watch a play.
听下面一段对话,回答第10至第12三个小题。
10.What does the woman want the man to do
A. See a doctor. B. Borrow a disk. C. Fix her computer.
11. What is the matter with the woman’s computer
A. It keeps breaking down.
B. It makes strange sounds.
C. It runs too many programs.
12. What will the man probably do next
A. Fetch a disk. B. Open up a program. C. Turn off the computer.
听下面一段对话,回答第13至第16四个小题。
13. What are the speakers doing
A. Attending a meeting. B. Enjoying a concert. C. Lining up for tickets.
14. What is the woman now
A. A footballer. B.A teacher. C. A boss.
15. Where does Susan work
A. In a hospital. B. In a company. C. In a concert hall.
16. What is the probable relationship between the speakers
A. Husband and wife.
B. Former classmates.
C. Professor and student.
听下面一段独白,回答第17至第20四个小题。
17. When will the swim classes begin
A. On March 1st. B. On May 1st. C. On June 1st.
18. How much does each swim class cost
A. $10. B. $15. C. $20.
19. What must a newcomer do before signing up for classes
A. Get a certificate.
B. Attend a swim skill show.
C. Reach a high swim skill level.
20.Why does the speaker give the talk
A. To discuss an issue. B. To give a presentation. C. To introduce a course.
第二部分 阅读(共两节,满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Every year, national parks are crowded with visitors. Here are the top four named by The National Park Service.
Glacier National Park
In 1910, Glacier was established as the country’s 10th national park. Take advantage of the park’s expansive hiking trails(路线), and be sure to hit traveler favorites like the Trail of the Cedars and Iceberg Lake Trail. What’s more, Glacier National Park hosts plenty of free activities like guided hikes and appealing events ideal for visitors of all ages.
Grand Canyon National Park
First protected in 1893 as a forest reserve, the Grand Canyon became an official US national park in 1919. The park offers endless hiking opportunities with trails of various lengths, as well as the chance to raft(漂流)the Colorado River. And if you’re looking for a different point, consider a helicopter tour to learn more about the park and see it in all its glory from above.
Yellowstone National Park
The world famous site became the first national park in the U. S. on March 1,1872, when President Grant signed the Yellowstone National Park Protection Act into law. Here, hikers can get lost in the beauty of the lakes, mountains, valleys and, of course, its unmatched hot springs. To avoid the crowds that often trouble Yellowstone, plan to visit in April, May, September or October.
Yosemite National Park
First protected in 1864, Yosemite National Park stands out for its impressive waterfalls. The best time to see waterfalls is during spring, when most of the snowmelt occurs. There are also plenty of scenic hiking and camping opportunities. Just keep in mind that campsites sell out quickly after becoming available for booking, so make your reservations in advance.
21. Which park may attract people interested in water activities
A. Glacier National Park. B. Yosemite National Park.
C. Yellowstone National Park. D. Grand Canyon National Park.
22. What does Yellowstone National Park feature
A. Free activities. B. Popular hotels.
C. Hot springs. D. Air tours.
23. What do the four national parks have in common
A. They provide hiking trails. B. They suit tourists of all ages.
C. They host camping activities. D. They date from the 19th century.
B
For over twenty years, a group of ladies living at a senior living community in Dallas have made thousands of hand-knit(编织) hats and toys, bringing warmth and support to children both in Texas and overseas. And they call themselves the Knit Wits.
Every Friday, they gather around a long table with wool and needles to lend a hand. Their latest project is a cooperation with Children’s Health in Dallas to create homemade caps for babies facing heart problems.
Stover, a member of the Knit Wits got the idea while talking with her daughter, a doctor at the hospital. For the past year, the group has sent dozens of caps for the babies. “The caps are themed around the holidays,” Stover says, “with designs representing Autumn, New Year and Spring. The little caps have become a colorful symbol of hope and joy for the center’s youngest patients and their families.”
The mini hats can help develop the bonding between babies and caregivers, preserving the smell of the adult next to take baby’s skin. Caregivers are able to wear the hat on their body to carry their smell before placing the hat back on the baby, easing the babies’ stress. Throughout the babies’ hospital admission, many holidays have been celebrated, but often the babies are too critical to be dressed up for photos. Thanks to the generosity of the Knit Wits, the baby hat provides the perfect festive touch.
Marianne is 102 years old and still knitting. “Being creative, being busy and having something good to think about make my life colorful.” she said. The Knit Wits also sent knit dolls to children from African countries. They’ve proven that a simple act of kindness can make such a difference in the lives of those facing challenging circumstances.
24. What can we learn about the Knit Wits ladies
A. They attend the children. B. They profit from handiwork.
C. They gift kids with little caps. D. They suffer from heart problems.
25. What is Paragraph 4 mainly about
A. The process of treatments.
B. The celebration of holidays.
C. The role of mini hats to babies.
D. The bonding of babies and caregivers.
26. Which of the following best describes the Knit Wits ladies
A. Patient. B. Caring. C. Humorous. D. Wise.
27. What can be a suitable title for the text
A. The Knit Wits warms the kids B. Handmade caps hit the world
C. The kind act matters in hospital D. Holidays bring families closer
C
The Australian sand octopus(章鱼)was discovered in 1990 and is the only octopus species known to bury itself deep in the sand to hide from enemies. A team of researchers are studying the venom(毒液)of this kind of octopus. They have discovered that the venom may greatly slow cancer growth. And it can also help fight drug resistance in patients with a BRAF-changed skin cancer. BRAF is involved in managing cell growth. A change in it results in abnormal cell growth. These BRAF changes are seen in half of all cases of skin cancers.
“We and other groups have previously discovered that other animals-snakes, spiders, bees-have anticancer properties,” said Dr. Maria, the study’s lead author. “However, in my current knowledge, the anticancer properties of an octopus species have never been studied or confirmed before.”
Current treatments face a few challenges including low response rates, poisoning and side effects, as well as drug resistance. The octopus venom slows the growth of BRAF- changed skin cancer. More importantly, it is safe to be used in large quantities-it is not poisonous. Therefore, in combination with other drugs, the treatments could potentially achieve better and safer patient outcomes.
It is very unlikely that the octopus has specifically developed its venom to contain an. anticancer substance. According to the researching team, the octopus venom contains over 1,000 unique substances with several functions such as reducing pain and anticancer.
“In this study, we have shown that the octopus venom specifically targets BRAF- changed skin cancer. The next step is to examine whether similar promising results are applicable for other BRAF-changed cancers.” said Dr. Maria. “Before it can be used on patients, the team will need to perform several rounds of lab testing and clinical trials to understand how it works and its full potential as a drug against skin cancer.”
28. What can we know about BRAF
A. It is a change in cells. B. It controls cell growth.
C It can cause a deadly illness. D. It helps to cure a skin cancer.
29. What discovery did the team make
A. A medicine to cure cancers. B. A substance contained in animals.
C. The medical value of octopus species. D. The anticancer effect of an octopus venom.
30. What is an advantage of the octopus venom to treat the skin cancer
A. It is of large quantity. B. It has no side effects.
C. It is less expensive. D. It has lower risks.
31. What can we infer from the last paragraph concerning the octopus venom
A. Its application requires further work.
B. It helps treat BRAF-changed cancers.
C. Its safety needs more clinical testings.
D. It has already been put into wide use.
D
Many often find themselves considering jobs below their skill level in worsening employment markets. But it turns out that working in a job below your skill level harms your later chances of getting hired for a better-paying job more appropriate to your qualifications.
Sociologist David Pedulla at the University of Texas conducted a study to examine how jobs below a person’s skill level affect future employability. He tailored 2,420 applications and submitted them to 1,210 job listings posted in five major cities across the U.S. He varied the applications by gender, and also by employment status for the previous year. Then he used computer models to analyze and compare the results. The results show that applicants who were positioned as working below their skill level, regardless of gender had the lowest hances f getting called for a job interview.
These results should serve as a warning to anyone considering taking a job below their skill level. While it might pay the bills in the short term, it can significantly hammer one’s ability to return to the relevant skill level and pay grade at a later date.
Why might this be the case Pedulla conducted a follow-up study with 903 employers. He asked them about their ideas of applicants with each kind of employment history, and how likely they would be to recommend each kind of candidate to an interview. The results show that employers believe that men who are employed in positions below their skill level are less committed and less competent than men in other employment situations. Those surveyed also believed that women working below their skill level were less competent than others, but did not believe them to be less committed.
The results of studies suggest that work below skill level signals to employers men’s incompetence and a lack of commitment. This is a disturbing reminder that the sword of gender bias (偏见) does in fact cut both ways.
32. Why do many people choose jobs below their skill level
A. They fear bearing duties. B. They lack-self-confidence.
C. They face a tough economy. D. They pursue better-paying jobs.
33. How do the researchers carry out the first study
A. By conducting interviews. B. By researching examples.
C. By making comparisons. D. By doing surveys.
34. Which of the following can best replace the underlined word “hammer” in Paragraph 3
A. Ensure. B. Weaken. C. Test. D. Exercise.
35. What is the employers’ idea according to the follow-up study
A. Men are more likely to get promoted.
B. Women are more devoted and capable.
C. Women behave better in jobs below skill level.
D. Men show talents in work of the relevant level.
第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Mental health is a critical aspect of overall well-being, yet it is often ignored in our fast- paced society. 36 A well-cared and healthy mind leads to improved emotions, better relationships, and a more positive outlook on life.
37 When we are stressed or upset, it is our mind’s way of reacting to negative stimuli(刺激). Good mental health allows us to cope with these emotions in a positive manner. In addition, when our minds are not clouded by negative thoughts or emotions it is easier to think clearly. 38
Studies have shown that a person with good mental health lives longer and has a higher quality of life. The effects of positive mental health on the body are plenty, including reducing the risk of diseases and improving overall physical well-being.
Our mental state has a significant impact on relationships. People with good mental health are more likely to be kind and understanding. 39 This may further guarantee them with a stable emotional condition.
Mental health is as essential as physical health in maintaining a fulfilling life. If we run into trouble, don’t keep it to yourself. 40 With the right support, we can all enjoy the benefits of a healthy mind.
A. Turn to friends or families.
B. They strongly connect with others.
C. Physical health has been a problem.
D. So ways to keep positive must be found.
E. And a clear mind can help make smart choices.
F. The mind actually needs as much care as the body.
G. Mental health is vital for keeping emotional balance.
第三部分 语言运用(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
“Is everybody ready ”, the teacher asked. I 41 wasn’t. It was the early 1980s and I was in my high school typing class. I had taken it as an elective 42 because the other option-French language seemed too 43 . I was never good at a foreign language. Now I wished I hadn’t picked it. My hands were 44 and my heart was beating fast. I had thought we would just be learning to touch-type, not be 45 on speed and accuracy. I felt too nervous to type at a high speed.
“Hands on home keys. Eyes on book, Ready 46 !” said the teacher. Suddenly the room was alive with electric typewriters’ keys being hit. I tried my best to 47 , but I failed. It was clear that being a 48 wasn’t in my future. I didn’t make that many errors, 49 my typing speed was horribly slow and I knew I wasn’t going to get a good grade. I really 50 taking this class after struggling for so long and 51 I could be learning phrases in French instead.
Now 43 years later, I take it as my 52 that I took that class and learned how to touch-type. It has helped me write countless stories on my 53 , write letters full of love to share with my friends and family, and do what I was meant to do in this life. I feel so 54 . This life is a long and winding road, where we meet different people, learn 55 and share love. May we hug them all with a grateful soul and a happy heart.
41. A. temporarily B. certainly C. nearly D. merely
42. A. chance B. hobby C. course D. technique
43. A. strange B. easy C. ordinary D. tough
44. A. dancing B. moving C. shaking D. waving
45. A. decided B. tested C. helped D. selected
46. A. Go B. Stop C. Look D. Read
47. A. run away B. get round C. show off D. keep up
48. A. manager B. director C. secretary D. teacher
49. A. so B. and C. for D. but
50. A. regretted B. appreciated C. disliked D. admitted
51. A. guessed B. predicted C. wished D. believed
52. A. feel B. luck C. recall D. joke
53. A. notebook B. desk C. study D. keyboard
54. A. fresh B. thankful C. secure D. certain
55. A. languages B. theories C. skills D. letters
第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Foshan, a city rich in cultural heritage, celebrates the arrival of autumn with a grand event known as the Foshan Autumn Parade(佛山秋色巡游). This traditional cultural festival holds a special place in the hearts of the 56 (local). The Parade, 57 (feature) various performances, including lion and dragon dances, martial arts, and traditional costumes, takes place 58 (annual) during the autumn season, usually in October or, November.
59 makes the parade most exciting is the lion and dragon dance, representing the spirit of strength. The colorful lion and dragon figures controlled by skilled performers catch the attention and 60 (admire) of the viewers. Traditional Wushu shows are another crowd favorite. With the Wushu artists moving gracefully, the audiences 61 (remind) of the importance of traditional Chinese culture. Traditional costumes can also be seen 62 (wear) by those artists. The designs and colors of these costumes serve 63 a symbol of Foshan’s rich history and cultural diversity.
The Foshan Autumn Parade is more than just a cultural festival. It is a remarkable event 64 the community celebrate the beauty of autumn. By experiencing these ancient traditions, young people can gain 65 deeper understanding of their culture.
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分40分)
第一节
假定你是校剪纸社团的负责人李华,春节来临,社团将举办剪纸作品展。请你在校英文网站上写一则短文推介,内容包括:
1. 时间地点;
2. 展览内容;
3. 号召参观。
注意:1. 写作词数应为80个左右;
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
The Chinese Paper—cutting Exhibition ___________________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________________
第二节(满分25分)
阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。
Last Saturday, I drove back home from a long hard day. It was snowing heavily and the traffic inched slowly forward like snails. I was so hungry because I skipped my lunch that I decided to stop by KFC and had a quick bite before I continued my journey home. It took me a long time to find a place to park my car. With my face buried in my collar, I walked slowly in the snow. Soon my hands were numb(麻木) with cold, so I pulled my gloves out of my coat pocket and put them on.
I ordered some fried chicken and dug into my pocket for my wallet to pay, only to find it was not there! I remembered I did bring it with me before I set out. Embarrassed, I left the chicken on the counter and said I would return in a minute. Deeply worried, I got out of KFC and ran towards my car, wondering where my wallet, with everything in it, was.
Fresh snow was like a blank paper, recording my tracks. My attention fixed on the ground, I expected to find it on my way. Unfortunately, what I found was only the shape of it in the snow. Obviously, I lost it when I pulled my gloves out. Judging from the footprints on the ground, I was not the only one. There was someone else joining my way. But the footprints of this guy were messy. It seemed that he walked back and forth. My heart sank. At a loss of which way he went, I knew I could never claim my wallet back. Bye, fried chicken, not today. I walked towards my car helplessly.
A short, skinny man was standing by my car. He seemed like homeless because he was dressed in oversized worn-out coat and his face was dirty. He was stamping his feet to keep warm. I felt sorry for him because I had nothing to help him, no money, no food.
注意:1. 续写词数应为150左右;
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
The man noticed me and asked if this was my car. ___________________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________________ Refusing my money, he was about to leave. ___________________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________________英语试题参考答案与评分标准
第一部分听力(共两节,满分30分)
1-5 ABBAC
6-10 CABCC 11-15 AACBA
16-20 BBCBC
注意:每小题1.5分,凡是与答案不符者,不给分
第二部分阅读(共两节,满分50分)
第一节(共15小题:每小题2.5,满分37.5分)
21-23DCA
24-27 CCBA
28-31 BDDA
32-35 CCBC
第二节(共5小题:每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)
36-40 FGEBA
注意:每小题2.5分,凡是与答案不符者,不给分。
第三部分语言运用(共两节,满分30分)
第一节完形填空(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
41-45 BCDCB
46-50 ADCDA
51-55 CBDBC
注意:每小题1分,凡是与答案不符者,不给分。
第二节(共10小题:每小题1.5分,满分15分)》
56.brightly 57.or
58.leaving
59.was made
60.awards
61.a
62.agricultural 63.qualification
64.what
65.to grasp
注意:1.每小题1.5分,单复数、词型不正确均不给分。
2.如有其它形式,意义通顺,合乎上下文意义,可以给分。
第四部分写作(共两节,满分40分)
第一节单词拼写(共10小题:每小题1.5分,满分15分)
66.adopted
67.blame
fort
69.stare
70.scientific
71.overcome
72.absent
73.logically/reasonably
74.shadow 75.career
注意:1.每小题1.5分,单复数、词型不正确均不给分。
2.如有其它形式,意义通顺,合乎上下文意义,可以给分。

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