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全国内地西藏班（校）2023-2024学年第一学期八年级英语
期末考试联考试卷
命题学校：常州西藏民族中学 2023.01
注意事项：
全卷共8页，八大题，满分120分，考试时间为120分钟。
答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。
回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。
一、情景交际：共两节，满分 15 分。
第一节 情景对话（共 10 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 10 分）
根据上下文所表达的意思，从 A、B、C 和 D 四个选项中，选出最佳答案。
( )1. —Thank you for taking us around your school. —________
A.Don’t say that. B.Come on! C.That’s all right. D.The same to you!
( )2. — —It’s Monday the 14th.
A.What day is it today B. What’s the date today
C.What’s today D. What time is it today
( )3. ––I think you'll be a famous singer in the future. ––_________
A.Me, too. B.You’re right. C.I don't think so . D.I hope so.
( )4. —Hi! This is Jim. May I speak to Lucy
— She isn’t in. She is on her way to school.
A.Speaking. B.I am sorry. C.Sure. D.Who are you
( )5. — Next term I’m going to make the soccer team. — ________
A.Sounds like a good plan. B.Sorry to hear that.
C.You’re welcome. D.No way.
( )6. —Don’t ride your bike on the motor way(机动车道). It’ s too dangerous!
—________
A.Yes, I will. B．Sorry, I won’t. C．Thanks, I will. D．No, I don’t.
( )7. —Pingcuo, could you please tell me how to take a taxi through ”Didi”
—
A.I’m busy now. B.Yes, I could.
C.It doesn’t matter. D.No problem, I’ll show you.
( )8. —What do you think of Zhoushen’s songs
— I feel very relaxed when listening to his songs.
A.I don’t mind them. B.I like them very much.
C.I can’t stand them. D.They’re too noisy.
( )9. —Can you go to the space museum with me, Susan
—________ But I’m afraid I can’t. I have to go to a baseball game.
A.Sorry, I can’t. B.Of course. C.I’d love to. D.I don’t agree.
( )10. —Do you mind my borrowing this magazine
—________ But you should return it to me in a week.
A.Of course not. B.Sure. C.You’d better not. D.I’m afraid not.
第二节 补全对话（共 5 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 5 分）
根据对话内容，从所给选项中，选出最佳选项填入空白处。
A: Hi, Frank. Long time no see! 11
B: Yes. I went to Three Gorges（三峡）with my parents.
A: What did you do there
B: We visited Qutang Gorge, Wu Gorge and Xiling Gorge by ship.
A.Sounds Great! B.How did you like it C.I’m sorry to hear that. D.Where did you go E.How’s the weather there F.Did you have a good time this summer vacation G.But when we got to the mountain, it was raining hard.
A: 12
B: How about you, Paul Did you go anywhere special
on vacation
A: Yes. I went to Mount Tai with my family.
B: 13
A: It was terrible.
B: Why didn’t you have fun
A: We rode bicycles there. 14 We were all wet
because we didn’t bring umbrellas.
B: 15
11.___________ 12.___________ 13.___________ 14.___________ 15.___________
二、单项选择: 本题共 20 小题，每小题 1 分，共 20 分。
从 A、B、C 和 D 四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳答案。
( )16.—Do you know _______ girl in yellow
—Yes, she is a student of ________ university.
A.the; an B.the; a C.a; an D.an; a
( )17.Shenzhou-15 flew to space ________ the evening of November 29th, 2022.
A.in B.at C.on D.to
( )18. ________ people are watching the FIFA World Cup Qatar 2022 now.
A.Two hundreds B.Two hundreds of C.Hundred of D.Hundreds of
( )19.I’m busy now. Sam, please help me add ________ to the vegetable soup.
A.two spoon of salt B.two spoons of salt
C.two spoons of salts D.two spoon of salts
( )20. Your music is so loud that I can’t work. Could you please right now
A.turn it off B.turn off it C.turn it up D.turn on it
( )21. _______ exciting football game!
A.How B. What a C. What an D. How an
( )22. — _________ sugar do we need — Just ________. We don’t need much.
A.How many; a few B.How much; a little
C.How many; a little D.How much; a few
( )23.Lu Xun is one of ________ writers of modern China.
A.the great B.the greater C.the greatest D.the most great
( )24.________ a foreign language is not easy. We should use it often.
A.Learn B.Learn to C.Learning D.To learning
( )25. — How often do you go to a concert
— ________. I’m not interested in it at all.
A.Usually B.Sometimes C.Always D.Hardly ever
( )26.People ________ talk loudly in the library. It’s the rule!
A.should B.mustn’t C.can D.needn’t
( )27.There a concert in our city theater this weekend.
A.was B.will have C.is going to have D.is going to be
( )28. Tina was _______ nervous _______ she couldn’t speak in front of the class.
A.such; that B.too; to C.so; that D.enough; to
( )29. —Can you __________ a funny story for us —Let me have a try.
A. dress up B. put up C. turn up D. make up
( )30.Today’s trains are _________ than before.
A.much faster B.more faster C.much fast D.very faster
( )31.He didn’t read the book ________, although he had ________.
A.careful enough; enough time B.carefully enough; enough time
C.enough careful; time enough D.enough carefully; enough time
( )32. —Do you know if your cousin will come tomorrow
—No. But if he ________, I will call you to have a meal together.
A.come B.comes C.will come D.is coming
( )33. —Would you like some salad or sandwiches , sir
— is OK. I don’t mind.
A.Either B.All C.Neither D.Both
( )34.The shoes in Miller’s aren’t ________ the shoes on the Internet.
A.as cheaper as B.cheap than C.so cheap as D.as cheaply as
( )35. You won’t be good at spoken English ________ you practice more..
A.if B.when C.though D.unless
三、完形填空：共 10 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 15 分。
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Chinese people celebrate the Lantern Festival（元宵节） on the 15th day of the first lunar（农历）month. This festival is held to celebrate the first full moon of the year. It also means the 36 of the Spring Festival holiday.
Making lanterns（灯） and 37 them are popular activities during the Lantern Festival. There are all kinds of 38 . They come in many sizes, colors and shapes such as animals and plants. Rabbit lanterns with wheels（轮子）are popular among children. Children can pull 39 from place to place. Why do children love rabbit lanterns It might have 40 to do with the jade rabbit（玉兔）in a Chinese folk story. According to the story, the jade rabbit 41 on the moon with Chang’e.
People also write riddles（谜语）on the lanterns. It’s very 42 . The riddles are usually short, wise and sometimes humorous. The answer to a riddle can be a Chinese character, a famous person’s name or a place name. On the evening of the Lantern Festival, all the lanterns are hung up. People go outside to enjoy the lanterns and 43 the riddles on them. Often you can see lion and dragon dances.
Another important thing is to eat yuanxiao with 44 flavors（味道）. Yuanxiao, a sweet dumpling made 45 rice flour, is the traditional food eaten during the festival. In Chinese, the festival is named after this food, which is said to represent（代表）family unity and happiness.
( )36.A.symbol B. end C. development D. importance
( )37.A.selling B. learning C. throwing D. enjoying
( )38.A.colors B. animals C. lanterns D. festivals
( )39.A.it B. them C. its D. their
( )40.A.nothing B. anything C. everything D. something
( )41.A.lives B. lies C. flies D. depends
( )42.A.boring B. interesting C. friendly D. dangerous
( )43.A.listen B. read C. write D. guess
( )44.A.same B.different C. special D. strange
( )45.A.of B. from C. in D. with
四、阅读理解：共两节，满分 30 分。
第一节（共 10 小题；每小题 2 分，满分 20 分）
阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的 A、B、C 和 D 四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
Parents usually don’t let their children cook. They think it’s dangerous for children to do it. However, scientists say that it’s good for children to do some easy work about cooking, such as doing the dishes and washing vegetables.
Cooking makes children smart.
In some cooking activities, children can choose and decide what things to put in a dish or how much salt to put in a dish. That’s a great way to make them think actively. At the same time, they can learn how to serve their friends by cooking themselves. They can also learn to eat healthily.
Cooking teaches children to feel how things change.
When helping cook in the kitchen, children can touch some different ingredients（食材） and they can also see how food changes by temperature. So it’s good for them to get life experience.
Cooking makes children confident（自信的）.
When children learn to cook, they usually feel that they have grown up, and they can do something for their family members. Children can cook a great dinner to show their love. So, cooking is well worth（值得）learning.
Cooking teaches children cultures.
Cooking in one culture is quite different from that in another. When cooking different kinds of food, children can also learn about different cultures. Also, children can learn some traditional eating cultures by cooking.
( )46．Who thinks cooking is dangerous for children according to the text
A．Scientists. B．Teachers. C．Doctors. D．Parents.
( )47．The underlined word “them” refers to ________.
A．the scientists B．the parents C．the children D．the teachers
( )48．What do you know about cooking from the text
Cooking is good for children to get life experience.
Cooking is the best housework for children.
Children can grow tall and strong by cooking.
D．Cooking can help children buy food cheaply.
( )49．What is cooking according to the last paragraph
Cooking is a necessary subject for children.
Cooking is a way to make money.
Cooking is a kind of culture.
D．Cooking is a kind of sports.
( )50．What’s the main idea of the text
A．How to make children cook. B．Why children need to learn to cook.
C．How to cook well. D．Who can help children learn to cook.
B
Breakdance（霹雳舞）is a kind of street dance coming from the US. The International Olympic Committee （国际奥委会）added the dance to the medal programs of the 2024 Paris Olympics in 2020.
Liu Qingyi is a 16-year-old girl from Huixian, Henan. She won the global（全球的） breakdance competition at the Outbreak Europe 2022 in Slovakia on August 7th, 2022. More than 600 people from over 30 countries around the world joined in the competition. And she becomes the first Chinese B-girl to ever win a gold medal of the world breakdance.
When Liu was 10 years old, she saw street dance for the first time in her hometown. And she became interested in the cool dance. “My parents always support（支持） me,” Liu said. “I had many hobbies and learned many sports, but in the end breakdance is my true love.” Before breakdance, Liu also learned the guitar, wushu, and boxing. And now she finds she is more interested in breakdance.
( )51．Which is Liu Qingyi’s favorite hobby
A．Guitar. B．Wushu. C．Boxing. D．Breakdance.
( )52．Liu Qingyi won the global breakdance competition in .
A．2020 B．2021 C．2022 D．2023
( )53．What did Liu think of breakdance when she first saw it
A．Cool. B．Boring. C．Relaxing. D．Difficult.
( )54．Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage
A．Liu Qingyi is the first breakdance winner of the world.
B．Liu became interested in breakdance six years ago.
C．Liu’s parents disagreed with her on learning breakdance.
D．Breakdance is a kind of street dance coming from Paris.
( )55．What would be the best title for the passage
A．A Chinese Breakdance Girl B．The 2024 Paris Olympics
C．The History of Breakdance D．The Outbreak Europe 2022
第二节（共 5 小题；每小题 2 分，满分 10 分)
阅读短文，根据短文内容判断所给句子正(A)误(B)。
Chinese first artificial intelligence (AI)（人工智能） textbook for high school students has recently come out in Shanghai to start AI lessons. Forty high schools around the country have become experimental bases（实验基地）for having AI education.
The book is mainly about the history of AI and how AI can be used in areas such as facial recognition（人脸识别）, public security（公共安全）and auto driving.
Peng Yu is a teacher at the High School Affiliated to Shanghai Jiao Tong University. He took part in making the textbook and said it would give guide to students. He said, “The book has a good introduction（介绍）to the area so that students can decide if they want to further study AI at college. Students can also find out what they need to learn if they are interested in studying AI. For example, they have to learn math really hard because it is the start of AI.”
Peng said AI has improved the interest of many high school students already, but he still feels that they can learn much more by taking part in project-based learning programs. Peng is sure that everyone should learn something about AI because it will be part of our everyday lives. Although AI in China develops really fast, it is reported that China needs at least 5 million AI teachers to keep up with development in the future.
( )56．Chinese first AI textbook came out in Shanghai.
( )57．The textbook is only about facial recognition, public security and auto driving.
( )58．Peng Yu is a student from Shanghai Jiao Tong University.
( )59．Students must study math hard if they are interested in AI.
( )60．China will need more AI teachers in the future.
五、词汇：共 5 小题，每小题 1 分，每空 0.5 分，满分 5 分。
根据中文提示和句意，写出句中所缺的词汇，一空一词。
61.The floor is quite wet. You must watch your step not to ____ ___ ________(跌倒).
62.I’m so sorry to (拒绝) his invitation, but I’m not available.
63.I read the passage over and over again to (弄清) the main idea of it.
64.Luosang is going to (分担工作) on his uncle’s farm this summer vacation.
65.Kelly likes art a lot, so she wants to (开始做，学着做) painting.
六、用括号中所给单词的正确形式填空：共 10 小题，每小题 1 分，满分 10 分。
66.I want to be a magician in the future, but my parents (agree) with me about my dream job.
67.I couldn’t see the road (clear) because of the heavy snow.
68.It’s a great pity that we missed the (begin) of the movie.
69.In 2020, scientists in China were (success) to send Chang’e 5 to the moon.
70.Do you think there is (little) pollution than before in your city
71.If the water in the pool (not be) clean, we won’t swim here.
72.Our family are planning ___________ (fly) to Hainan for winter vacation..
73.Our plane (arrive) at Lhasa Kongga International Airport in 30 minutes, please return to
your seat and fasten your safety belt（系紧安全带）.
74.They had lots of fun (visit) Disney world last Friday.
75.He was so angry that he (leave) the room without saying a word just now.
七、句子改错：共 5 小题，每小题 2 分，满分 10 分。
( )___________ 76. Thank you for giving me such a useful advice !
A B C D
( )___________ 77. Both of us were so surprising to hear the exciting news.
A B C D
( )___________ 78. There is much rain in my hometown in summer, so it is too much wet.
A B C D
( )___________ 79. We enjoyed us so much near the Golden Gate Bridge last weekend!
A B C D
( )___________ 80. Betty didn’t buy special anything for herself at last.
A B C D
八、书面表达：共 15 分。
同学们，这学期很快就要结束了，新的一年正走向我们。凡事预则立，不预则废。新的一年里，你有什么新年计划呢？请以 “My New Year’s Plan” 为题，写一篇英语短文。
写作要点：
1.在学业方面，如何提升自己？
2.在健康方面，如何锻炼身体？
3.在业余生活方面，如何发展自己的兴趣爱好？
......
写作要求：
1. 词数不少于80词，短文的标题和开头已给出，不计入总词数；
2. 语句通顺，意思连贯，语法正确，书写规范；
3. 写作要点齐全，可适当发挥；
4. 文中不得出现真实的人名、校名或地名。
My New Year’s Plan
The new year 2024 is coming. It’s a good time to make my plans.
______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________机密★启用前
全国内地西藏班（校）2023-2024学年第一学期八年级英语
期末考试 评分标准
一、情景交际：共两节，满分 15 分。
第一节 情景对话（共 10 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 10 分）
1-5. CCDBA 6-10. BDBCA
第二节 补全对话（共 5 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 5 分）
11-15. FABGC
二、单项选择: 本题共 20 小题，每小题 1 分，共 20 分。
16-20. BCDBA 21-25. CBCCD 26-30. BDCDA 31-35.BBACD
三、完形填空：共 10 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 15 分。
36-40. BDCBD 41-45. ABDBA
四、阅读理解：共两节，满分 30 分。
第一节（共 10 小题；每小题 2 分，满分 20 分）
46-50. DCACB 51-55. DCABA
第二节（共 5 小题；每小题 2 分，满分 10 分)
56-60. ABBAA
五、词汇：共 5 小题，每小题 1 分，每空 0.5 分，满分 5 分。
61. fall down 62. turn down 63. find out 64. help out 65. take up
六、用括号中所给单词的正确形式填空：共 10 小题，每小题 1 分，满分 10 分。
66. disagree 67. clearly 68. beginning 69. successful 70.less
71. isn’t 72. to fly 73. will arrive 74. visiting 75. left
七、句子改错：共 5 小题，每小题 2 分，满分 10 分。
76. D a 去掉 77. C surprised 78. D much too 79. B ourselves 80. B anything special
八、书面表达：共 15 分。
评分标准
类别 内 容 分数
一档文 内容完整，重点描述清楚、合理，表达充分，层次结构清晰，字迹工整，可读性强，语言流畅，仅有1-2处语法或拼写错误；字数符合要求。 13-15分
二档文 内容完整，重点描述比较充分，层次结构比较清晰，语言比较流畅，字迹工整，有3--4处语法或拼写错误；字数符合要求。 10-12分
三档文 内容完整，重点描述合理，但表述不充分，层次结构不合理，语言不够流畅，字迹不够工整，有5--6处语法或拼写错误；字数不足。 7-9分
四档文 写作基本完整，描述合理，但表述不充分，层次结构不合理，语言不够流畅，字迹不够工整，有较多处语法或拼写错误；字数不足。 4-6 分
五档文 内容不完整，语言表述错误较多，没有完整的句子,或不能完整地表达思想。 0-3分

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