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应城市（2023－2024）第一学期期末考试八年级
英 语 试 卷
温馨提示：
1．答题前，考生务必将自己所在县（市、区）、学校、姓名、考号填写在试卷上指定的位置。
2．所有题目的答案必须写在答题卡的指定位置，在本卷上答题无效。
3．本试卷满分120分，考试时间100分钟。
选择题(共88分)
一、听力测试（共三节；计25分）
第一节 (共5小题，每小题 1 分，共 5 分）
听句子。从每小题所给的A、B、C、D、E、F六个选项中，选出与所听句子内容相符的图片。听完每个句子后，你将有5秒钟的作答时间。每个句子读两遍。
A B C
D E F
1. 2. 3 . 4 . 5 .
第二节 （共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
听下面6段对话，每段对话后面有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你将有10秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。
听第1段材料，回答第6、7小题。
( ) 6. What will Nick do before cooking the turkey
A. Cut it into pieces. B. Put some gravy. C. Put it in salty water.
( ) 7. How long will it take to cook the turkey in the pot
A. Three hours. B. Two hours. C. One hour.
听第2段材料，回答第8、9小题。
( ) 8. What does Tim think of playing tennis
A. Tiring. B. Relaxing. C. Enjoyable.
( ) 9. How often does Tim play football
A. Once a week. B. Twice a week. C. Twice a month.
听第3段材料，回答第10、11小题。
( ) 10. What is Lucy’s resolution
A. To take more exercise. B. To get better grades. C. To learn to dance.
( ) 11. How is Lucy going to do that
A.Work harder on schoolwork.
B. Keep running every day.
C. Take dance lessons.
听第4段材料，回答第12、13、14小题。
( ) 12. Who can make fruit salad
A. Ann. B. Jim. C. Ann’s mother.
( ) 13. How much yogurt do they need
A. One cup. B. Two cups. C. Two teaspoons.
( ) 14. How many apples do they need
A. Two. B. Three. C. Four.
听第5段材料，回答第15、16、17小题。
( ) 15. Where is the girl going to have her birthday party
A. At school. B. In a restaurant. C. In her house.
( ) 16. When will the girl’s birthday party begin
A. At 4:00 p.m.. B. At 4:30 p.m.. C. At 5:00 p.m..
( ) 17. How will Li Ming go there
A. By bike. B. By bus. C. On foot.
听第6段材料，回答第18、19、20小题。
( ) 18. What does the girl want to be when she grows up
A. A sports star. B. A movie star. C. A TV star.
( ) 19. Why does the girl want to be a star
A. Because she wants to be rich.
B. Because she wants to be famous.
C. Because she wants to help others.
( ) 20. Why doesn’t the boy want to be famous
A. Because he thinks life will be busy.
B. Because he thinks life will be boring.
C. Because he thinks life will be difficult.
第三节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
听下面的一篇短文，请根据你所听到的短文内容，选择能回答所提问题的最佳答案。听完短文之后你将有一分钟的答题时间。短文听两遍。
( ) 21. Bill came from________ .
A. the US B. Canada C. England
( ) 22. Bill couldn’t go to school because ________ .
A. he didn’t like school
B. there was no school near his home
C. his mother wanted to teach him herself
( ) 23. On the farm, most of the time Bill was ________.
A. happy B. unhappy C. worried
( ) 24. Bill’s mother went to town and bought ________ as his birthday present.
A. a book. B. a schoolbag C. a pair of shoes
( ) 25. Bill wants to be a ________ when he is older.
A. scientist B. teacher C. doctor
二、单项选择（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
从题后所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳答案。
( ) 26. —I always feel tired. Can you give me some ________
—Sure. You should take exercise.
A. medicine B. news C. advice D. information
( ) 27. —It’s impossible to get good grades ________ hard work.
—I agree.
A. from B. with C. under D. without
( ) 28. —You’re talking too loudly. I’m afraid you will wake up the baby.
—Sorry, I will speak _________.
A. quietly B. loudly C. clearly D. carefully
( ) 29. —Mary, would you like to go to the movie with me tonight
—I’d love to, but I am not ___________ .I have a piano lesson.
A. possible B. available C. serious D. understanding
( ) 30. —Is the man in a blue T-shirt our new math teacher
—He ________ be. I’m not sure.
A. might B. has to C. need D. must
( ) 31. —There ________ a school sports meeting next Wednesday.
—Thanks for telling me.
A. will have B. are going to be
C. is going to have D. is going to be
( ) 32. —Where did you go on vacation, Beijing or Shanghai
—_________. We spent a week in Beijing and a week in Shanghai.
A. Both B. All C. Neither D. None
( ) 33. —Look, there are more and more trees on the mountain.
—Yes. We _______ many trees on the mountain every spring.
A. send B. dig C. plant D. delete
( ) 34. —Can you come to my birthday party tomorrow
—________ I have to study for the English test.
A. Sounds good! B. Good idea.
C. I’m afraid not. D. Good luck to you!
( ) 35. — When did you __________ yoga as a hobby, Dolly
— Three years ago.
A. take down B. take up C. take back D. take down
( ) 36. — How many birds can you see in the tree
— I can see_______ birds there.
A. hundred B. hundreds C. three hundreds D. hundreds of
( ) 37. — In summer, milk will go bad quickly_______ it is put into a fridge.
— Yes. So I buy a little every time.
A. if B. unless C. though D. until
( ) 38. I ________ to the party if John ________ me an invitation.
A. come; sends B. will come; sends
C. come; will send D. will come; will send
( ) 39. —If people drive ________ cars, there will be ________ air pollution.
—Yes, you’re right.
A. more; less B. less; more C. fewer; less D. less; fewer
( ) 40. —Eric, don’t make noise in class!
— __________
A. Of course, I do. B. Excuse me, I’m wrong.
C. That’s OK. D. Sorry, I won’t do it again.
三、完形填空（每小题1分，共15分）
阅读下面材料，掌握其大意，从各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选择最佳选项。
One day, Tony and his father are fishing by the river. His father catches a fish (41)_______his fishing net (网).
“Wow, that’s cool! The fish is nice,” says Tony (42)_______.
“Yes, Let’s head home right now. I can’t wait to (43)_______ this fish,” His father says.
(44)_______ getting back home, his father puts the fish on the (45)_______ and puts up knife. He wants to (46)_______ the fish and cook it. However, the fish (47)_______ Tony and seems (似乎) to say, “ (48)_______ me.” Tony feels (49)_______ and cries, “Daddy, You (50)_______ kill it. That’s terrible.” his father agrees, “OK, son, let’s do something good today.” Then, they take the fish back to the river and (51)_______ it.
“Off you go!” the son says.
(52)_______the fish is back in the river, it swims happily. In no minute another bigger fish swims to it and opens its (53)_______.
“Oh, no! Poor fish. ” Tony (54)_______.
But to their surprise, the small fish swims into and out of the big fish’s mouth freely. Father smiles to Tony, “Don’t worry. The fish may find his (55)_______. They are like you and me.”
( ) 41. A. in B. with C. on D. at
( ) 42. A. quietly B. clearly C. happily D. sadly
( ) 43. A. have B. like C. get D. sell
( ) 44. A. Before B. On C. After D. In
( ) 45. A. table B. wall C. box D. bag
( ) 46. A. finish B. sell C. kill D. welcome
( ) 47. A. swims at B. looks at C. runs at D. smiles at
( ) 48. A. Eat B. Have C. Kiss D. Help
( ) 49. A. happy B. excited C. busy D. sad
( ) 50. A. can’t B. aren’t C. don’t D. won’t
( ) 51. A. swim B. free C. let D. look
( ) 52. A. When B. Where C. Who D. What
( ) 53. A. legs B. eyes C. mouth D. arms
( ) 54. A. runs out B. calls out C. comes out D. thinks out
( ) 55. A. mother B. father C. brother D. friend
四、阅读理解（共14小题；每小题2分，满分28分）
阅读下面三篇短文，根据短文内容，从所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Egg Fried Rice
Ingredients (原料) Instructions（说明）
◆A bowl of cooked rice; ◆2 eggs; ◆4 spoons of oil; ◆Some green onion slices and carrots; ◆A big teaspoon of mayonnaise (蛋黄酱) ◆Mix rice and mayonnaise really well. ◆Heat the oil. ◆Put the eggs into the oil. Remember not to cook them too long. ◆Add the rice, heat it and mix it well. ◆Add green onion slices and carrots, and cook them for a few minutes.
Tips Mayonnaise has all the important ingredients for fried rice—oil, salt and sugar. So try mixing them first.
( ) 56. What do we need if we want to cook a bowl of fried rice
A. One big spoon of honey. B. A spoon of cooked rice.
C. Two spoons of eggs. D. A big teaspoon of mayonnaise.
( ) 57. Which is NOT the ingredient for egg fried rice
A. Green onion slices. B. Yogurt. C. Carrots. D. Rice.
( ) 58. Why is it better to use mayonnaise
A. Because it is one of the ingredients.
B. Because it can be cooked long.
C. Because it has all the important ingredients for fried rice.
D. Because it is a kind of healthy ingredients.
( ) 59. Where may the passage be from
A. A school report. B. A dictionary. C. A cook book. D. An advertisement.
B
In the Western Han Dynasty (西汉时期), there is a boy named Kuang Heng . He is born in a poor family so he doesn’t have enough money to go to school.
Kuang Heng likes reading books very much. But he has to work during the day and can only read books during the night. The only problem is that he has no money to buy a candle. So it often takes him half a month to finish reading a book. He always feels sad and blue.
One day, he finds that his neighbor has candles, But the man lives next to his house and the light from the candles can’t go through his wall. Suddenly, an idea comes to him. “I can make a hole (洞) on the wall so that the light from my neighbor’s house can come to mine,” he says to himself.
From that day on, Kuang Heng reads books every night until the light goes out (熄灭) . Finally, he becomes a great scholar (学者) .
( ) 60. Why does it often take Kuang Heng half a month to finish a book
A. Because he is a slow reader. B. Because he doesn’t like reading.
C. Because he has no money. D. Because he doesn’t have time or light.
( ) 61. Kuang Heng makes a hole on his wall to __________.
A. read with his neighbor’s light B. steal (偷) his neighbor’s candles
C. ask his neighbor to read with him D. show he is good at reading
( ) 62. Kuang Heng might feel __________ when he has the idea.
A. sad B. happy C. worried D. thankful
( ) 63. Which of the following is true
A. Kuang Heng’s parents doesn’t want him to go to school.
B. Kuang Heng’s neighbor is angry when he knows about the hole.
C. Kuang Heng asks his neighbor to keep the light on every night.
D. Kuang Heng loves reading and he finds every way to do it.
( ) 64. What’s the best title of this passage
A. No Money to Read. B. Read through the Hole.
C. Candles Are Important. D. A Rich Neighbor.
C
Have you ever seen people building houses To build a house, you need workers. They use their hands, tools (工具) and machines to put things together. Building the International Space Station (国际空间站) is the same. The difference is that the workers are astronauts. They walk in space and use robots’ arms and hands to do the work.
In the space station, astronauts are comfortable. The temperature there is about 21℃. But outside of the station, it can be too hot or cold for people. In the sunlight, it’s about 120℃. In the shadow (暗处) of the station, it’s about -85℃. So when astronauts walk in space, they have to wear heavy clothes—spacesuits.
These suits also keep astronauts safe from flying rubbish in space. Each time people go into space, they leave rubbish there. So astronauts should be careful because there’s a lot of rubbish, and some rubbish goes many times as fast as a plane!
Space walking is not easy, and it can be dangerous. So getting ready for it takes a lot of time to learn. Astronauts will need to do 160 space walks to finish their work in the space station. That will take about 1,900 man-hour work.
( ) 65. What’s the temperature in space station
A. About 21℃. B. About 120℃. C. About -85℃. D. We don’t know.
( ) 66. The astronauts build the space station with ________.
A.scientists’ hands B. some machines
C. robots’ arms and hands D. workers’ hands
( ) 67. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage
A. Space walking is very safe.
B. Space walking is difficult.
C. Space walking is very comfortable.
D. Astronauts needn’t wear spacesuits when walking in space.
( ) 68. What’s the meaning of the underlined word “spacesuits” in the passage
A. 太空服 B. 防弹衣 C. 雨衣 D. 防护服
( ) 69. Why do astronauts need to wear spacesuits when walking in space
①keep astronauts from too hot or cold temperature
②help astronauts flying in space
③keep astronauts safe from flying rubbish in space
④help astronauts take food with them
A. ①② B. ②④ C. ①③ D. ③④
五、补全对话。(共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分)
阅读下面一段对话，根据对话内容，从方框中选择恰当的句子将对话补充完整（选项中有两项是多余的）。(提示：每个选项只用一次，选项中有一项为多余选项)
A：Let’s talk about the future. It always makes us excited.
B：OK. 70___________
A：I think every home will have a car.
B：71___________
A：I disagree with you. Cars in the future will be green ones.
B：72___________ Do you think people will have more free time in the future
A：Yes. That’s because there will be more robots. They’ll help people do most of the work.
B：I think so.73___________
A：No, I think more people will live in the countryside in the future.
B：74___________
A：Because the air in the countryside is very clean. It’s good for people’s health.
B：You are right.
A. Sounds great. B. What’s your prediction about the future C. There will be fewer people on the earth. D. Why do you think so E. But I think more cars will bring more pollution. F. Do you think there will be more people living in the city
70.________ 71.________ 72.________ 73.________ 74.________
非选择题（共32分）
六、综合填空(共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分)
阅读下面短文，根据上下文，所给首字母或括号内单词等提示，在空白处填入适当的单词。（每空不超过两个词。）
Many students have hobbies, such as reading, painting, growing vegetables and looking 75.________animals. Some hobbies are relaxing and others are active. Hobbies can make you grow as person, develop(培养) your interests and help you learn new skills.
David Smith is a student, and one of his 76.________（hobby) is writing. During the summer of 2010, he 77.________(spend) four weeks at a summer camp. As well as the usual activities, such as a sailing and climbing, there was a writing class. “The teacher was a 78._________( write), and she asked us 79._________(talk) about our lives and tell interesting stories. Then she encouraged (鼓励) us to write about our experiences at the camp.”
Back at school, David wrote a story about the life of 80.________sixteen–year–old boy, and it came out as a book in 2012. Many young people love his book, and as a result, David has become 81._______ (success).
David is very lucky because his hobby has brought him pleasure and success. 82.__________writing is not his only hobby. He is also interested 83.__________many other things. “I like playing volleyball, too,” says David. “I spend some of my free time 84.__________(play) volleyball for my school team. Maybe I’ll write about my volleyball team in my future books.”
75.___________76.___________77.___________78.___________79.___________
80.___________81.___________82.___________83.___________84.___________
七、完成句子（共7小题，每小题1分，满分7分）
根据汉语提示完成句子，使句子意思正确、通顺，每空不超过四个词。
85. 明天是星期天，我想和你去商场闲逛。(hang)
Tomorrow is Sunday, I want to ________________ with you in the mall.
86. 我最好的朋友能够帮我激发出自己的所能。（bring）
My best friend helps to ________________ the best in me.
87. 那些机器人能够和孩子们玩游戏。（be）
Those new robots____________________play games with children.
88. 木兰女扮男装，替父从军。(dress)
Mulan _______________like a boy and takes his father’s place to fight.
89. 校长下周将要为这场开幕式做准备。(prepare)
The headmaster _______________ the opening next week.
90. 彼得打开了电视机，并开始观看晚间新闻。(turn)
Peter________________ the TV and began to watch the evening news.
91. 客人们正盼望着尼克家的这场乔迁聚会。(look)
Guests are ________________ Nike’s housewarming party.
八、书面表达（本题共15分）
踔厉奋发，笃行不怠。凡事预则立，不预则废。2024年开始了，新的一年你有怎样的计划？为什么要做这样的计划？你怎样最终让计划实现呢？请你围绕新年的一个计划，写一篇文章。
提示：
(1) What do you want to do in the new year
(2) Why do you want to do that
(3) How are you going to do that
(4) ......
要求：
(1)短文必须包括所有提示内容，可适当发挥。
(2)短文中不得出现真实的人名、校名和地名。
(3)词数80个左右。
New Year’s Plans
__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________应城市（2023－2024）第二学期期末考试八年级
英语参考答案
一、听力测试
1—5 CAEDF 6—10 CACBB 11—15 ABAAC
16—20 BABAC 21—25 ABBAC
二、选择填空
26—30 CDABA 31—35 DACCB 36—40 DBBCD
三、完形填空
41—45 BCACA 46—50 CBDDA 51—55 BACBB
四、阅读理解
56—59 DBCC 60—64 DABDB 65—69 ACBAC
五、补全对话
70—74 BEAFD
六、综合填空
75. after 76. hobbies 77. spent 78. writer
79. to talk 80. a 81. successful 82. But
83. in 84. playing
七、完成句子
85. hang out 86. bring out 87. are able to
88. dresses up 89. will prepare for
90. turned on 91. looking forward to
八、书面表达
New Year’s Plans
In the new year, I plan to study harder than before. Last term, I failed my math exam and I felt very sad. So I will try my best to study this year.
Then how am I going to do that First, I will make a daily plan for my study so that I can know what I should do. What’s more, I will ask the teacher for help if I have difficulty in studying. Last but not least, I will review my lessons after class.
I hope I can make great progress in the new year.
完成句子评分标准
评分说明：
1.短语使用错误扣1分；
2.语言结构错误（时态、语态、非谓语动词、从句等）扣0.5分；
3.单复数、单词个别字母拼写错误扣0.5分；
4.未使用所给提示词扣1分。
5.每题最多扣1分；
书面表达评分标准
1.题干解读：本文主要是围绕新年的一个计划展开，题干中给出了相关的问题，写作时可围绕这些问题进行写作，也可适当增加细节，使文章更加顺畅。
2.写作指导：本文以一般将来时和第一人称为主。第一段描述自己的新年计划以及做这个计划的原因；第二段描述应如何做才能让计划实现；最后一段表达愿望。写作时运用不同的句式和连接词使文章层次清晰、逻辑清楚。做到无单词拼写和语法错误。
评分说明：
第一档：(13—15分)：很好地完成了规定的写作任务。文章主题突出，结构完整，语句流畅，意思清楚、连贯。使用较为丰富的语法结构和词汇，语法和词汇错误极少（同一单词的拼写错误不重复计分），格式正确，书写规范，卷面整洁。
第二档：(10—12分)：较好地完成了规定的写作任务。文章有主题，结构较为完整，语句通顺，意思清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较少，格式基本正确，书写较为规范。
第三档：(6—9分)：基本上完成了规定的写作任务。基本按写作要求完成，结构欠完整，少数语句不通顺，意思基本清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较多，格式基本正确，书写基本规范。
第四档：(0—5分)：未能按要求完成规定的写作任务。只写出个别相关内容，结构不完整，多数语句不完整或意思不明，语法结构和词汇错误很多，所写内容难以理解，格式不够正确，书写欠规范。
鼓励分：多写、多发挥。文章立意好，主题突出，结构完整，语句流畅，意思清楚、连贯。使用较为丰富的语法结构和词汇，格式正确，书写规范，卷面整洁的前提下，有“极少语法、拼写之类的错误”的情况下可酌情给满分。

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