四川省泸县第一中学2023-2024学年高二下学期开学英语试题(含答案和听力音频及原文)

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四川省泸县第一中学2023-2024学年高二下学期开学英语试题(含答案和听力音频及原文)

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泸县一中高2022级高二下期开学考试
英语试题
第I卷 选择题(100分)
第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分)
做题时,先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后,你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1.What are the speakers mainly talking about
A.A travel experience. B.A capital city. C.A trip plan.
2.Why does the woman call the man
A.To put off an appointment. B.To make an apology. C.To cancel a flight.
3.What is the man doing
A.Talking to a new neighbour. B.Enjoying classical music. C.Giving a warning.
4.What is the probable relationship between the speakers
A.Relatives. B.Colleagues. C.Doctor and patient.
5.What is the original price of the conditioner
A.$5. B.$10. C.$20.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段对话,回答以下6-7小题。
6.How long is the woman going to stay at the hotel
A.2 nights. B.3 nights. C.4 nights.
7.Why are the prices for the two double rooms different
A.They have different views. B.They are different in sizes. C.They are of different shapes.
听第7段对话,回答以下8-9小题。
8.Where does the woman come from
A.Canada. B.The UK. C.America.
9.What kind of tea does the woman like best
A.Oolong tea. B.Longjing tea. C.Pu’er tea.
听第8段对话,回答以下10-12小题。
10.How long has the man been in college
A.For less than one year. B.For about two years. C.For almost three years.
11.What does the man want to study right now
A.Art. B.Medicine. C.Chemistry.
12.How does the woman probably feel in the end
A.Worried. B.Happy. C.Angry.
听第9段对话,回答以下13-16小题。
13.Why did the man come back late
A.He went to a pub with Linda. B.He hurt his hands and knees.
C.He waited a long time for the bus.
14.What happened to Linda
A.She was fined. B.She got injured. C.She had an accident.
15.Where was the witness
A.Outside the pub. B.At a bus stop. C.In his car.
16.What was the old lady doing in the middle of the road
A.Looking for something. B.Struggling to stand up. C.Trying to seek help.
听下面一段独白,回答以下17-20小题。
17.Why did the group settle in a new place
A.To spread the beliefs of the Church of England.
B.To separate from the Church of England.
C.To explore the state of Massachusetts.
18.Who taught the Americans how to grow corn
A.The farmers. B.The religious group. C.The local Indians.
19.What happened in 1621
A.The European harvested their crops.
B.The European declared independence.
C.The European arrived in a New World.
20.When did the whole America begin to celebrate Thanksgiving Day
A.About 150 years ago. B.About 250 years ago. C.About 400 years ago.
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出最佳选项。
A
Advance Africa Volunteers in Kenya offers opportunities to international volunteers in schools, hospitals and community medical clinics.
Kenya Volunteer Program Schedule
You can volunteer for any duration and stay as long as you wish. You can arrive at any time during the month and the volunteer work starts the following day. You will typically work between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m. Monday to Friday. You will spend your spare time shopping, eating out, seeing movies, chatting with other volunteers or swimming.
Kenya Volunteer Program is open to:
We invite individuals, couples, families, students, researchers, and groups (churches, colleges, and student associations).
Volunteering in Kenya Costs
Cost for 2 weeks or less $500.00
Cost for 1 month $700.00
Cost for 6 weeks $900.00
Cost for 2 months $1,100.00
$200 more for every extra two weeks.
No refunds (退款) will be paid to any volunteer who has arrived in the country and started on their program due to program change, early departures etc.
Our Volunteer in Kenya Program Offers
We have volunteers all year round. This gives you plenty of company to enjoy exciting travel adventures. Some of our volunteer travel projects do not require specific skills. Everyone can participate regardless of age or gender. Other projects require particular skills, education or interest.
The volunteer in Kenya program fee covers communication, airport pick-up, local support, in-country orientation, training, accommodation and two meals per day (three meals over the weekends if you are at the provided accommodation).
The volunteer in Kenya costs you need to meet are: your flight to and from the country, visa fees, work permits, travel insurance, in-country transport and return trip to the airport.
Typical Living Arrangements: Advance Africa Volunteers’ house and home-stays.
21.What can we know about Kenya Volunteer Program
A.It has flexible schedule. B.It is targeted at the youth.
C.It offers hotel accommodation. D.It needs previous experience.
22.What are the fees for 10-week volunteering
A.$800.00. B.$1,000.00.
C.$1,100.00. D.$1,300.00.
23.What does Kenya Volunteer Program offer
A.Travel insurance. B.Free transport.
C.Airport pick-up service. D.Financial support.
B
As a kid, I was always around animals and I always enjoyed it. After my senior year of high school, we started renting this farm. Then I went away to Rhode Island School of Design to become an architect. After about two years and a half, I found that was not quite what I wanted to do. I felt I wanted to be an architect and have a hobby farm. But why not just have a farm and make it my career
It’s an exciting business. I think a lot of people don’t realize what’s involved with dairy farming (奶牛业). We took some trips to some progressive farms out in New York when we first started. And it really changed my attitude of what you can do. You can be a successful businessperson with a lot of challenges. And those challenges are part of what makes it very exciting — it’s not just milking cows. There’s nutrition and finances and a lot of big day-to-day decisions.
Well, land is the biggest obstacle. Securing enough land is important. We don’t just need the land for the animals; we also need it to distribute the manure from the cows. And there’s a real balance, a real recycling. You take the feed; you give it to the cows, and the cows give you milk, but they also give you a lot of manure. And the best thing to do is putting it back on the land. You need 2 acres per cow basically, a cow and its calf.
The land that we rent is beautiful and the land that we own is beautiful. If you get half a mile off the road and looking back at scenery across the valley, it’s impressive. You get the rows of grass and the cows in the distance.
24.Which of the following is included in the dairy farming according to the text
A.Designing for the dairy farming.
B.Playing with the cows around the farm.
C.Taking trips around the farm to enjoy life.
D.Milking cows, nutrition, finances and decisions.
25.What’s the biggest challenge that the author faced
A.Huge amounts of money. B.Securing enough land.
C.Highly qualified milk cows. D.Quantities of workers.
26.What’s the meaning of the underlined word in Paragraph 3
A.Milk from the cows. B.Chemical fertilizers.
C.Waste of the cows. D.Food offered to cows.
27.Which one is the best title for this text
A.Building a Successful Dairy Business B.Famous Farmers Around the World
C.Highly Qualified Milk Cows D.The Architecture Designer
C
Many people are fascinated by the idea of being a journalist. They get to travel to different places, meet different people, and share their thoughts with a large audience. Peng Yixuan, studying digital media at the Communication University of China, has been a video journalist at China Daily for almost five years.
Peng is well-known for her vlogs recording big national events and taking the audience along for the ride. But the process of his becoming a famous vlogger was quite accidental. “When I came up with the idea of recording two sessions in the form of a vlog with just my phone in 2019, the others on my team felt unsure about it,” Peng said. “But we decided to give it a try, and it went viral.”
Compared with traditional media journalists, those in new media are “almighty (全能的)”. “From Script (脚本) writing to video editing, we need to be competitive in each step of the video-making process,” Peng said. “We also need to react fast to the latest news and think of what young people are curious about. Bringing the serious-natured national event closer to ordinary people is what I believe to be the reason for success.
Also, it’s important to “care”. Peng said that only when you actually care about the people and the topic you are covering will you make the interviewees open up and touch the hearts of your audience. “I’m an ENFP-an extroverted (外向的) person. I’m always curious about the lives of others and want to engage with them,” she said. Once, Peng tried to interview an ambassador. She saw him reject many journalists before her. “I knew I couldn’t simply ask him to do the interview.” Instead, she said, “Your outfit is so cool! Are these traditional clothes from your country ” That’s what got him to start talking to her.
Peng’s job makes her see the necessity and power of international communication. “I can feel the changes in Chinese media over the past few decades,” Peng said. “We went from telling stories from abroad to telling the world our stories. As a journalist, it’s my honour to be a part of it.”
28.What do we know about Peng Yixuan
A.She starts her journalist career this year. B.She is only good at video editing skills.
C.She always seeks interactions with others. D.She was sure that her vlog would go viral.
29.Which is NOT the reason for Peng’s success
A.News-audience engagement. B.Timely capture of latest news.
C.High writing and editing skill. D.Curiosity towards young people.
30.Why did Peng Yixuan tell the story of interviewing an ambassador
A.To show she is an outgoing and careful person.
B.To illustrate the importance of care in interviewing.
C.To prove she has more advantages than other journalists.
D.To show she likes communicating and engaging with people.
31.Which can be a suitable title for the text
A.How to become a journalist B.A new journalist and v logger
C.Reporting with her own style D.Peng went viral in new media
D
Robert Chmielewski has had quadriplegia (四肢瘫痪) since his teens. Sensors implanted (植入) in his brain read his thoughts to control two robotic arms, which helps him to perform daily tasks. Now he can use one robotic arm to control a knife and the other a fork.
Modern technology can reach inside someone’s head and pull out what he is thinking. Maybe he intends to move a robotic arm or type something on a computer screen. Such thought-controlled devices can help people who aren’t able to move or perform different tasks and promote the well-being of the disabled.
Decoding (解码) thought usually requires placing sensors directly on or in someone’s brain. Those implanted sensors can catch the electrical signals passing between the person’s brain cells, or neurons. Such signals carry messages that allow brains to think, feel and control the body.
Using brain implants, researchers have picked up electrical signals in the brain linked to certain words or letters. This has allowed brain implants to transform thoughts into text or speech on a computer. Likewise, brain implants have transformed imagined handwriting into text on a screen. Implanted sensors have even allowed scientists to turn the signals they caught that are associated with a song in someone’s head into real music.
In a recent study, scientists decoded full stories from people’s brains using MRI scans (磁共振成像扫描). This did not require any brain implants. But building the thought decoder did require many hours of brain scans for each person. What’s more, the system only worked on the person whose brain scans helped build it and only when that person was willing to have their mind read.
So devices that might let someone secretly read your mind from across the room are still a long, long way off. Still, it’s clear that mind-reading tech is getting more advanced. As it does, scientists are thinking hard about what it would mean to live in a world where not even the inside of your head is completely private.
32.What does the text begin with
A.A suggestion. B.A comparison. C.An argument. D.An example.
33.What is explained in the text
A.What principles a thought decoder should follow.
B.How MRI monitors the work of the implanted sensors.
C.What’s used to catch signals passing through the brain.
D.How robotic arms are designed to satisfy different needs.
34.What is scientists’ attitude towards the future of the technology discussed in the text
A.Concerned. B.Confident. C.Doubtful. D.Indifferent.
35.What can be a suitable title for the text
A.Mind Reading is Stealing Our Privacy B.Mind Reading is Hard, but not Impossible
C.Mind Reading—Good News for Musicians D.Mind Reading—a Brain-scanning Technology
第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)
根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
You should always seek professional medical help as soon as you are able to, but following correct first-aid steps can be the difference between life and death. Here are some suggestions about how to care for an unconscious (不省人事的) person.
Determine responsiveness. If a person is unconscious, try to awake him by gently touching his hands and feet or by speaking to him. 36
Check for breathing and a pulse. If the person is unconscious and unable to be awoken, check for breathing; look for a rise in the chest area. 37 Feel for air using the side of your face. If no signs of breathing are clear, check for a pulse.
If the person remains unresponsive, prepare for CPR (心肺复苏). Unless you suspect a spinal (脊柱的) injury, carefully roll him onto his back and open his airway. 38 If the person begins to vomit, move him over to his side to help prevent choking.
39 Check these three things frequently as you give the person first-aid CPR.
● Airway. Does the person have a clear airway
● Breathing. Is the person breathing
● Circulation. Does the person show a pulse at major pulse points
Make sure the person is warm as you wait for medical help. 40 However, if the person has heatstroke, do not cover him or keep him warm. Instead, try to cool him by fanning him and damping him.
A.Remember your ABCs of CPR.
B.Listen for the sound of air coming in and out.
C.Cover a towel or a blanket over the person if you have one.
D.The ABCs of CPR refer to the three critical things you need to look for.
E.Perform chest compression 30 times and rescue breathing twice as part of CPR.
F.If you suspect a spinal injury, leave the person where he is, provided he is breathing.
G.If he does not respond to any activity, sound, or touch, determine whether he is breathing.
第三部分 语言知识运用(共两节,满分25分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
After winning the 100-meter dash at the 2023 World Athletics Championships in August, 26-year-old sprinter (短跑运动员) Noah Lyles was named “World’s Fastest Man”. Now he has his 41 set on winning more medals at the 2024 Paris Olympics.
Lyles, the son of two former runners, grew up in Alexandria, Virginia. He began 42 as a sprinter when he was a teenager and dreamed of going to the Olympics. He 43 for a spot (排名位置) on the US Olympic team in 2016 but did not 44 . Fortunately, in 2021, he 45 the US team for the Tokyo Games and won a bronze medal in the 200-meter race.
Lyles has been 46 with legendary Jamaican sprinter Usain Bolt, who has held the same 47 “World’s Fastest Man”. Bolt won the 100 meter and 200 meter races at the World Championships and still holds the 48 in the 200 meter with a time of 19. 19 seconds, set in 2009. Lyles’ best time for that race is 19.31, and he said his 49 is to run it in 19.10 seconds, which would break Bolt’s record. Lyles said that he did not 50 top runners like Bolt as idols (偶像) while growing up. “I believed in myself and in learning something from 51 people, because everyone has their own advantage,” he said.
After his win, Lyles said he felt that his years of training and patience have finally 52 . In Paris next year, Lyles hopes to win more golds. “If I got three gold medals at the World Championships, maybe I have the 53 to get three gold medals at the Olympics,” he said. His another expectation is to make track and field more 54 and accessible to a large number of people. “I’m trying to make sure that everybody comes and 55 the sport,” he said.
41.A.sights B.opinions C.predictions D.demands
42.A.advertising B.competing C.defending D.debating
43.A.looked B.answered C.accounted D.tried
44.A.quit B.respond C.qualify D.regret
45.A.made B.created C.refused D.recommended
46.A.combined B.replaced C.blessed D.compared
47.A.dream B.standard C.title D.talent
48.A.passion B.record C.feature D.belief
49.A.responsibility B.suggestion C.solution D.goal
50.A.copy B.view C.recall D.serve
51.A.different B.famous C.gifted D.determined.
52.A.ran out B.paid off C.came back D.sped up
53.A.potential B.honor C.pressure D.option
54.A.flexible B.stable C.formal D.popular
55.A.reports B.evaluates C.enjoys D.improves
第II卷 非选择题(50分)
第二节(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
There’s nothing 56 (comforting) than a nice hot meal on a cold winter day, especially 57 you’re out and about. But what if you have no way of heating your lunch or ordering a hot meal That’s where the world’s first microwave bag comes into place.
Made out of an innovative conductive fabric developed by Japanese company Sanki Consys Co. Ltd., the Willtex ‘Willcook’ bag looks like your average laptop bag, but it can heat up whatever you have stored inside 58 a temperature of 80 degrees Celsius in just 5 minutes. The bag 59 (it) weighs just 160 grams, 60 the rechargeable battery pack powering it weighs an extra 120 grams.
The true innovation behind the Willcook microwave bag is the stretchable fabric that generates heat just by drawing power from a battery pack. The revolutionary fabric has the same 61 (flexible) and lightness as regular cloth, yet 62 (provide) quick and uniform heating.
The inside of a Willcook microwave bag reaches 80°C in 5 minutes after 63 (power) on, but users can set the temperature between 40°C and 250°C via a smartphone app 64 (call) Hotopia. The included battery pack lasts for 8 hours on a full charge and has 65 small, dedicated pocket on the side of the bag.
第四部分 写作(共两题,满分40分)
66.(15分)假定你是李华,你得知你的交换生朋友Jim对杜甫的诗歌十分感兴趣,请给他写封邮件邀请他来参加你校的杜甫诗歌选修课。内容包括:
1. 上课的时间和地点;2. 课程的内容;3. 课前的准备。
参考词汇:optional course 选修课
注意:
1. 写作词数应为80左右;
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
67.读后续写(满分25分)
阅读下面材料, 根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段, 使之构成一篇完整的短文。
It all started at tea-time. Mrs. Bendall, Dicky’s mother, and Mrs. Spears, who was spending the afternoon with her, were quietly sitting and sewing (做针线活)in the drawing room. The children were eating their bread and butter nicely and quietly, and the servant girl had just poured out the milk and water, when Dicky suddenly took the bread plate, put it upside down on his head, and held the bread knife tightly.
“Look at me!” he shouted.
His shocked sisters looked, and before the servant girl could get there, the bread plate shook, slid to the floor and broke into small pieces. At this awful point the little girls lifted up their voices and shouted their loudest.
“Mother, come and look what he’s done!”
“Dicky’s broken a great plate!”
“Come and stop him, mother!”
Can you imagine how mother came running But she was too late. Dicky had jumped out of his chair, run through the window on to the veranda(走廊), and, well—there she stood—helpless. What could she do She couldn’t chase after the child. She couldn’t hunt for Dicky through the apple trees. That would be undignified (不 体面的).
“Very well, Dicky, ” she cried, “I shall have to think of some way of punishing you.”
Seeing this, Mrs. Spears said, “Oh, my dear. I’m sure you make a great mistake in trying to bring up children without beating them. Nothing really takes its place.” “Believe me. There is nothing like handing the naughty kid to his father,” she added.
Mrs. Bendall, deep inside, was terribly shocked to hear the advice. But Mrs. Spears seemed to take it as a normal thing, so she did it too.
The children had gone to bed before Dicky’s father Edward came back. Mrs. Bendall rushed to him, “You have to beat Dicky.”
“But why on earth should I start beating him ” responded Edward. “We’ve never done it before.”
注意:
1.续写词数应为150左右;
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
After he heard the reason, a burst of anger went through him.
__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Instead of beating him, Edward decided to talk openly with Dicky.
__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________泸县一中高2022级高二下期开学考试
英语参考答案:
一.听力
1.A 2.A 3.C 4.B 5.C 6.B 7.A 8.B 9.C 10.B 11.C 12.A 13.A 14.C 15.B 16.A 17.B 18.C 19.A 20.B
二.阅读理解
21.A 22.D 23.C 24.D 25.B 26.C 27.A 28.C 29.C 30.B 31.D 32.D 33.C 34.A 35.B 36.G 37.B 38.F 39.A 40.C
三.完形填空
41.A 42.B 43.D 44.C 45.A 46.D 47.C 48.B 49.D 50.B 51.A 52.B 53.A 54.D 55.C
四.语法填空
56.more comforting 57.when 58.to 59.itself 60.while/but 61.flexibility 62.provides 63.being powered 64.called 65.a
五:书面表达
66.One possible version:
Dear Jim,
Knowing that you are interested in Du Fu’s poems, I am more than pleased to invite you to join our optional course related to them.
As scheduled, we start at 10 a.m. every Saturday in our school library lounge. The topic will be Du Fu’s poems covering a wide range of themes, which can further enhance your understanding of the great poet. To fully prepare for the course, you are suggested to go through the materials attached to this email. Also, please remember to read the history of Tang Dynasty, which would be helpful to understand the background of the poems.
I’d appreciate it if you could accept my invitation and have fun.
Yours,
Li Hua
67.After he heard the reason, a burst of anger went through him. Edward couldn’t believe that Dicky had been so uncontrollable. He had always believed in gentle and understanding parenting. Edward sat down with Dicky and asked him to explain his actions. Dicky, feeling regretful, admitted that he had acted foolishly. He explained that he had done it to get attention, as he often felt left out when his mother was busy with guests or his sisters. Edward realized Dicky’s need for more attention and guidance.
Instead of beating him, Edward decided to talk openly with Dicky. He explained how his actions affected the family. He also promised to spend more quality time with him and make him feel valued. This incident became a turning point in their relationship. Dicky learned the importance of expressing his feelings and needs in a more appropriate way while Edward understood the significance of being a patient and attentive father. They both grew closer through communication, proving that violence was not necessary to teach important life lessons.
听力原文
Text1:
W: I believe your trip to France must be amazing.
M: Yes. We saw many interesting things.
W: Which city was your first stop
M: Our flight landed in Paris. It is the capital of France.
Text2:
W: Hello, Mr. Smith. I’m afraid Dr. Brown won’t be able to see you today. He’s still waiting for a flight out of New York. He said he would meet you tomorrow afternoon. Is it OK
M: Sounds good. Thanks for calling.
Text3:
W: My new neighbor next down is really great. She’s got a fantastic collection of classical music. I mean dozens of composers I’ve never even heard of.
M: Just be careful, Annie. A bobby like that can be expensive.
Text4:
W: Can you take over the post for me here for a while I have a regular customer coming to see me.
M: Well, I kind of have my hands full.
Text5:
M: So what have you bought from the new supermarket
W: A leave-in conditioner. I got it half price, saving 10 dollars.
Text6:
M: Hello, Victoria Hotel. Can I help you
W: Hello. I’d like to make a reservation for July the 1st through the 4th. I’m checking out on the morning of the 4th.
M: OK. Single room or double room
W: I’d like a double room. What’s the rate
M: We have only two double rooms available. One is $180 and the other $200.
W: Why are the prices different
M: Well, they are both standard double rooms, but the 200-dollar room faces the garden.
W: OK, I see.
Text7:
M: When you were in China, did you try any tea
W: Of course. I’m British and we are also a tea-drinking nation, like China and India.
M: Many people in the U. S. and Canada think tea is only for sick people.
W: Then they are missing a treat. However, Chinese tea is different from the tea we have in the UK. We manly have black tea and we add milk and sometimes sugar. The Chinese don’t add milk or sugar; they only use hot water.
M: Don’t you like that
W: I love it after I got used to it. I often drink different kinds of tea, such as Oolong tea, Longjing tea and Pu’er tea. My favorite is the last one because it can help me lose weight.
Text8:
W: Son, it’s time you decided on a course of study. You’ve been in college for almost two years. Haven’t you decided what you want to do with your life
M: That’s a big question, Mom. And I haven’t had any idea yet. But I have been thinking hard about what I want to study. I think I should study chemistry. The major will look good on applications if I want to apply to medical school. It’ll also look good on job applications if I decide to join a big company after I graduate. I could work for a company that makes medicine. Or I could become an artist.
W: Wait a minute — did you say you want to become an artist We aren’t sending you to an art school...
M: I didn’t say that. But if I did want to be an artist, studying chemistry might be useful. Right now, I’m learning about some famous painters who studied chemistry. Some of them created their own paints, using what they learned in their chemistry courses.
W: You’re worrying me, Daniel
Text9:
W: There you are. It’s so late.
M: Oh, mum, I ran into Linda and we went to a pub. She told me something amusing.
W: What was that
M: Well, she was driving home after work, and she saw an old lady on her hands and knees in the middle of the road. Linda was so shocked that she stopped suddenly and the car behind crashed into hers.
W: Was she hurt
M: No. Linda got out of her car and saw the old lady pick up something and walk away.
W: Luckily indeed. Linda didn’t run her over.
M: Then a policeman came, but he didn’t believe what Linda said. Luckily, there was a witness, a man waiting for a bus. He witnessed the whole incident. Guess what the old lady was doing
W: I haven’t the slightest idea.
M: The witness said he heard the old lady saying “Oh, my gold tooth”.
Text10:
M: Now I would like to give you some details about the history of Thanksgiving Day in the United States. In 1620, a boat filled with more than one hundred people sailed across the Atlantic Ocean to settle in the New World. This religious group had begun to question the beliefs of the Church of England and they wanted to separate from it. They settled in what is now the state of Massachusetts. Their first winter in the New World was difficult. They had arrived too late to grow many crops, and without fresh food, half of them died from diseases. The following spring the local Indians taught them how to grow corn, a new food for the colonists. They showed the mother crops to grow in the unfamiliar soil and how to hunt and fish.
In the autumn of 1621, plentiful crops of corn, beans and pumpkins were harvested. The new comers had much to be thankful for, so a feast was planned. They invited the local Indian chief and 90 Indians. The people from Europe roasted turkeys and shared with local Indians. They learned how to cook different kinds of com from the Indians. In the following years, people from Europe began to celebrate the autumn harvest with a feast of thanks. After the Independence Day on July 4th, 1776, Thanksgiving Day officially became an important festival to celebrate. Then in 1863, at the end of a long and bloody civil war, Abraham Lincoln asked all Americans to set aside the last Thursday in November as a day of thanksgiving.
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