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宁德市2023-2024学年度第一学期期末八年级质量检测
英语试题
（本试卷共12页，满分100分，完卷时间120分钟）
注意事项：
1.答题前，考生务必在试题卷、答题卡规定位置填写本人准考证号、姓名等信息。考生要认真核对答题卡上粘贴的条形码的“准考证号、姓名”与考生本人准考证号、姓名是否一致。
2.选择题每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑，如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。非选择题答案用0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔在答题卡上相应位置书写作答，在试题卷上答题无效。
3.考试结束，考生必须将试题卷和答题卡一并交回。
Ⅰ. 听力（共三节，20小题；每小题1分，满分20分）
第一节 听下面五个句子，从每小题所给的三幅图中选出与句子内容相符的选项。（每个句子读两遍）
1．A． B． C．
2．A． B． C．
3．A． B． C．
4．A． B． C．
5．A． B． C．
第二节 听下面七段对话，从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案。（每段对话读两遍）
听第1段对话，回答第6小题。
6．Where is Lily’s homework
A．In the office. B．At home. C．In the classroom.
听第2段对话，回答第7小题。
7．How many children will take part in the dinner party
A．3. B．7. C．10.
听第3段对话，回答第8小题。
8．Why can’t the boy use the CD player
A．It’s lost. B．It doesn’t work. C．Mrs. Green borrowed it.
听第4段对话，回答第9小题。
9．What’s the relationship（关系）between the man and the woman
A．Mother and son.
B．Teacher and student.
C．Dentist and patient（病人）.
听第5段对话，回答第10、11小题。
10．Who did Alice watch the concert with
A．Her parents. B．Her friend. C．Her sister.
11．What does the girl think of the concert
A．Interesting. B．Boring. C．Wonderful.
听第6段对话，回答第12、13小题。
12．How often does Jessica have an English lesson
A．Three times a week. B．Twice a week. C．Once a week.
13．How does Michael learn English
A．Read English newspapers.
B．Listen to English songs.
C．Watch English movies.
听第7段对话，回答第14、15小题。
14．What does Ken want to be
A．A writer. B．A dancer. C．A policeman.
15．What is Jane going to do
A．Read novels.
B．Keep writing.
C．Practice dancing.
第三节 听下面短文，根据你所听到的内容，完成以下表格，每空填一词。（短文读三遍）
The popular “Village (/1vIlId /村） BA”
Place Taipan in Guizhou Province.
Items（项目） ★A basketball game. ★16 cultural shows.
Audiences（观众） 17 100 million people.
Players Farmers, cooks, 18 and so on.
Prizes（奖品） ★In the past, farmers gave winners rice. ★Nowadays, they 19 winners with cows....
People are looking forward to the 20 game.
Ⅱ. 选择填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳答案。
21．These days many people have ______ flu.
A．a B．an C．the
22．— Forests are important for us. Do you know the ______
— I know. They’re the lungs of the earth.
A．reason B．person C．suggestion
23．— Did you hear about the level 6.2 earthquake in Gansu Province
— Yes. It was very ______.
A．active B．serious C．modern
24．— Why is “citywalk（城市漫步）” so popular now
— I think it can ______ people a lot of fun.
A．teach B．bring C．pass
25．As we know, people and cars ______ stop when traffic lights are red.
A．can B．may C．must
26．— What does the sheep eat
— It ______ grass, grains（谷物） and so on.
A．looks for B．lives with C．feeds on
27．Many students wear military coats（军大衣） to keep ______ warm this winter.
A．themselves B．yourselves C．ourselves
28．— Would you mind ______ the bus to school
— Of course not.
A．take B．to take C．taking
29．— What does John often do in his free time
— He ______ singing songs. It’s his favorite hobby.
A．is good for B．is afraid of C．is interested in
30．— When will you travel to Xiamen
— It’s hard to say. ______I’ll go there during the holiday.
A．Certainly B．Maybe C．Even
Ⅲ. 完形填（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，从每小题所给的 A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳答案。
On my first day of junior high school, Elizabeth’s beautiful, shining eyes and long hair attracted（吸引） me. What a 31 girl!
We have many things in common（共同的）, such as sharing the same ideas, going shopping and reading books. We also help each other. I am not a 32 girl and often forget important things, but Elizabeth helps me out. One day, I forgot to bring my ruler for a math 33 , and I felt very worried. At that time, Elizabeth 34 and said, “I guessed this might happen, so I brought two.” I felt relaxed and did 35 in that match.
I clearly remembered a story that happened between 36 . One cold night, I got a terrible stomachache. I felt so bad that I 37 . Elizabeth put me on her back and went to the doctor’s at once. She carried me downstairs and upstairs. The doctor checked me and gave me some medicine. 38 her help, I wouldn’t have had a good sleep that night.
She has a good eye for clothes. 39 I want to buy clothes, Elizabeth goes with me and helps me choose which clothes look best.
It’s a 40 that we are not in the same school now. But we often chat with each other on QQ or WeChat. I hope that our friendship will last forever（永远）.
31．A．thin B．ugly C．lovely
32．A．careful B．helpful C．friendly
33．A．lesson B．match C．problem
34．A．looked up B．came up C．got up
35．A．quietly B．badly C．well
36．A．them B．me C．us
37．A．laughed B．cried C．cheered
38．A．Without B．Under C．For
39．A．When B．After C．Before
40．A．dream B．surprise C．pity
Ⅳ. 阅读理解（共两节，20小题，满分30分）
第一节 阅读下列短文，根据短文内容，从题中所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳答案。（共15小题，A篇每小题1分，B、C篇每小题2分，满分25分）
A
Many people often have to take care of a lot of things: their work, family and daily life. They seldom have time to look after their own health. The following four apps（应用） can help those people keep healthy and live a healthier life.
Keep is a sports app. This app helps to make an online playground. On this playground, the sports lovers can get stronger and healthier. This app is useful for beginners who want to start their sports trip. The app is free to use.
Sleepzy is a popular sleeping app. It can help you get your good rest. It can also wake you up at the suitable（合适的） time. If you don't get enough sleep, it can also help to build good sleeping habits.
Mooda App can help users to understand themselves better by recording the feelings（感受）. With the help of the app. users can write down their feelings with different emojis（表情） and photos.
Do you drink enough water every day If you don't have time to drink water, the app — Water Tracker can help you. It can tell you to drink water in time. It can also record how much water you drink. Best of all, it is free.
If you want to know more information, you can visit www..
41．If a person wants to do exercise, he can use ______.
A．Sleepzy B．Water Tracker C．Keep D．Mooda
42．What can Sleepzy help users
①Have a good rest. ②Wake you up anytime.
③Go to sleep late. ④Have good sleeping habits.
A．①②. B．①④. C．③④. D．②④.
43．What do we know about the app Mooda
A．It is free for users to use.
B．It takes photos for users.
C．It gives users the same emoji.
D．It helps users know themselves better.
44．The app — Water Tracker is to help people ______.
A．to buy some water online B．to know about your body
C．to drink enough water in time D．to get free water every day
45．The passage most probably（可能） comes from ______.
A．a website B．a letter C．a story book D．a history book
B
The Adventures（冒险） of Tom Sawyer is one of children’s favorite books. It tells us stories about a young boy named Tom Sawyer. Here is a story from the book.
A new Monday morning came. It began another week’s sad life in school for Tom Sawyer. After a happy weekend, he really hated going to school.
Tom lay thinking. He wished to fall ill, then he could stay at home. He checked his body. There was nothing wrong. Suddenly he found one of his teeth was loose（松动的）. This was lucky; he was going to cry. But if his aunt knew something was wrong with his tooth, she would pull（拔） it out, and that would hurt.
So he thought he should keep the tooth and look for another reason. Then remembered a doctor’s words — an illness made a man lie in bed and he could or leave home after two or three weeks.
An idea came to Tom’s mind and he checked his so re toe （脚趾） carefully. The he began to cry. His cry made his cousin worried. However, his aunt knew his to. She pulled the loose tooth out and Tom walked to school slowly after breakfast.
Dear readers, we may make mistakes（错误） sometimes. But remember, making mistakes and learning from them is a part of growing up.
46．Why was Tom Sawyer sad on Monday mornings
A．Because he had to stay at home.
B．Because he had a very sad weekend.
C．Because he didn’t like going to school.
D．Because he wasn’t able to go to school.
47．What was wrong with Tom
A．He had a toothache. B．He had a loose tooth.
C．He had a terrible so re toe. D．He had a special headache.
48．What does the underlined word “he” refer to（指代）
A．The man. B．The doctor. C．Tom Sawyer. D．His cousin.
49．What is Tom Sawyer like in the story
A．Kind but stupid. B．Brave but lazy.
C．Helpful but noisy. D．Smart but naughty（淘气的）.
50．What does the writer want to tell us
A．Don’t stay at school from home.
B．Don’t make our parents worried.
C．Have lots of fun in our childhood.
D．Learn from our mistakes to grow up.
C
A kind of new houses in California is selling quite fast. In a short time, people buy 82 ones and they need 1000 more. And the factories will build them soon — for they are able to build one in less than 24 hours.
Why can they do it so fast Because 3D printing（打印） helps to make it. 3D printing not only builds a house with less time, but also costs less and is more environmentally（环境上） friendly. And there are different styles of 3D printed houses for people to choose.
3D printing is developing（发展） very fast. But there are some problems with 3D printed houses. First, the house “printed” out may not be strong enough. Second, while building houses layer by layer（逐层地）, there may be some differences between layers. Some layers may be a little thinner or thicker than others. Finally, there are now fewer types of 3D printing materials（材料） for us to use.
However, the future of 3D printed houses is promising. In India, there are not enough houses. The country wants to use 3D printing to solve the problem. If successful, buildings by 3D printing may go popular. We can also use it to build offices and other buildings. NASA wants to use 3D printing to build something on Mars and the Moon.
51．How does the writer begin the passage
A．By giving his advice. B．By showing a fact.
C．By telling his story. D．By asking a question.
52．What do we know about 3D printed houses
A．It needs less time to build the houses.
B．It costs too much to build the houses.
C．The style of 3D printed houses is the same.
D．3D printed houses are bad for the environment.
53．We need to solve ______ problems with 3D printed houses.
A．two B．three C．four D．five
54．The underlined word “promising” probably means ______.
A．充满失望的 B．令人担心的 C．令人惊喜的 D．充满希望的
55．What's the best title of the passage
A．Features of 3D Printed Houses B．Uses of 3D Printed Houses
C．Introduction of 3D Printed Houses D．Future of 3D Printed Houses
第二节 阅读下面短文，从短文后所给的五个选项中选出能填入短文空白处的最佳选项，使短文通顺、连贯，意思完整。（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
D
Dogs are cool. They are fun pets and great friends. 56 They learn fast and like to be helpful. Some dogs are trained to help with very special work.
●Hearing Dog
People who can’t hear may miss important sounds. They won’t hear a door bell, or someone calling their name. They wouldn’t hear someone break a window. 57
●Therapy Dog
Therapy dogs help people to feel better. 8 They visit people in hospitals. When someone is sad or ill, or feels lonely, they would stay with them quietly.
● 59
Some people have an illness or a hurt that makes it hard to move. What would you do if you couldn’t open a door by yourself They can help you.
●Water Rescue Dog
Big Newfoundland dogs are strong swimmers. 60 Some can even jump into the water from a helicopter!
In a word, dogs help us do many kinds of jobs. Dogs help to keep us safe, play with us, and make us laugh. Can you think of other great jobs for dogs
A．Service Dog B．They are calm, kind and patient（耐心的）. C．They can hear and smell better than we can. D．A hearing dog is trained to alert（提醒） them to sounds. E．They will jump into the water and get a drowning person to a safe place.
Ⅴ. 情景交际（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
根据情景提示，用英语完成下列各题。
61．你想称赞《长安三万里》是一部好电影，可以这样感叹：
How ______!
62．你对同学Mary的观点表示不赞同，可以这样说：
______.
63．“酱香拿铁（coffee)”热售，但你更喜欢喝茶，可以这样说：
______ to coffee.
64．Peter打电话给你哥哥，他不在，你接电话时可以这样说：
______.
65．今天下午你和朋友去野餐，你想知道见面的时间，可以这么问：
______ this afternoon
Ⅵ. 看图写话（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
根据每小题所提供的图画情景和提示词，写出一个与图画情景相符的句子。
66．tomorrow ______ 67．this time, yesterday ______
68．stay, bad ______ 69．than ______
70．ask, not ______
Ⅶ. 短文填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，根据语境、音标或所给单词的提示，在每个空格内填入一个恰当的词，要求所填的词意义准确、形式正确，使短文意思完整、行文连贯。
Do you know about the Jing-Hang Grand Canal（运河） in China This 71 /'feIm s/ waterway is known as
Da Yunhe. The Grand Canal is the earliest and 72 (long) man-made canal in the world. It is about 1800 kilometers long. People first 73 (build) it in 486BC and they used it as a way to transport（运输） food from the south to the north （北方）.
Today, the Grand Canal is 743 /stIl/ an important part of the transport system（系统） in China. Thousands 75 boats use it every day to transport different types of things. Now China is 76 (do) new work on the Grand Canal. It is making parts of it deeper（更深）, 77 bigger ships can use it. There is much rain in the south of China, but not as much in the north. The canal will also help to move water from the south to the north.
In June 2021, the Beijing part of the Grand Canal and its Langfang part in Hebei 78 (be) open to the public. And people can have the 79 /t ɑ ns/ to enjoy the beauty. If possible, you can go on 80 boat trip along some of the oldest parts of the canal.
Ⅷ. 书面表达（满分10分）
81．保护海洋就是保护家园，守护未来。假设你是校报小记者李华，请你根据下列要点提示，以“Protecting the Ocean”为题目写一篇英文报道，介绍你校上周六的活动情况以及同学们的感受。词数80左右。
注意事项：
★必须包含所有提示信息，可适当发挥，开头已给出，不计入总词数；
★意思清楚，表达通顺，行文连贯，书写规范；
★请勿在文中使用真实的姓名、校名和地名。
Protecting the Ocean
Our school held an activity of____________________________________________________________
宁德市2024年初中八年级英语期末质量检测
听力材料
Ⅰ. 听力（共三节，20小题；每小题1分，满分20分）
第一节听下面五个句子，从每小题所给的三幅图中选出与句子内容相符的选项。每个句子读两遍。
We should smile more in life.
I’ll go cycling tomorrow.
3．They are cutting paper happily.
4．He was buying a T-shirt online at 9:00 last night.
5．Maria made a nice model plane for the School Science Week Show.
第二节听对话听下面七段对话，从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案。（每段对话读两遍）
听第1段对话，回答第6小题。
M: Lily, where’s your homework I couldn’t find it in my office.
W: Sorry, Mr. Smith, I left it at home.
听第2段对话，回答第7小题。
W: Dear, how many people will come to the dinner party tonight
M: I think about ten.
W: Do you think we should prepare another table for the three children
M: Yeah, you’re right.
听第3段对话，回答第8小题。
M: Where is the CD player, Mom I want to listen to some music while I’m doing morning exercises.
W: I’m afraid you can’t use it right now.
M: Why Is it missing
W: No, Mrs. Green’s CD player was lost. So I lent it to her.
听第4段对话，回答第9小题。
M: Come this way and sit down here, please. Open your mouth wide.
W: Ouch! One of my teeth is killing me.
M: Don’t worry. I’ll give you some medicine.
听第5段对话，回答第10、11小题。
M: Hi. Alice! What were you doing at eight o’clock yesterday evening
W: I was watching a concert with my friend.
M: What do you think of the concert Is it wonderful
W: No. It is boring.
听第6段对话，回答第12、13小题。
M: How often do you have an English lesson, Jessica？
W: Three times a week. And I like English best.
M: How do you learn English
W: I read English newspapers every day, and listen to English songs twice a week. What about you, Michael
M: I watch English movies once a week.
听第7段对话，回答第14、15小题。
W: What are you reading, Ken
M: The Old Man and the Sea. I love reading novels.
W: Wow, now I know why you’re so good at writing.
M: Yes, I want to be a writer.
W: Great! What are you going to do to become a writer
M: Well, I’m going to keep writing. What do you want to be, Jane
W: I want to be a dancer. I am going to practice dancing in the club.
听短文根据你所听到的短文内容，完成下面表格，每空填一词。（短文读三遍）
In Taipan village, a small mountain village in Guizhou Province in Southwest China, there was a basketball game. Interestingly, there were also exciting cultural shows during half-time. Over 100 million people watched the game in Taipan and online. Most of the players came from the countryside. They are farmers, cooks, drivers and so on. Also, some players from other places took part in it. People call the game “Village BA” after “NBA”.
The basketball game has a long history in Taipan. In the past, farmers took their own rice and gave it to the winners. Nowadays, they provide something like cows, sheep, and pigs.
“Village BA” is popular in the whole country. People are looking forward to the next game.
英语试题参考答案及评分标准
Ⅰ. 听力（20分）
（每小题1分，共5分）1—5 BABAC
（每小题1分，共10分）6—10BACCB 11—15BACAC
（每小题1分，共5分）
（评分建议：与标准答案不一致的不得分，本题大小写错不扣分）
16．Exciting 17．Over 18．drivers 19．provide 20．next
Ⅱ. 选择填空（每小题1分，共10分）
21—25CABBC 26—30CACCB
Ⅲ. 完形填空（每小题1分，共10分）
31—35 CABBC 36—40 CBAAC
Ⅳ. 阅读理解（30分）
第一节（A）（每小题1分，共5分）41—45 CBDCA
（B）（每小题2分，共10分）46—50 CBADD
（C）（每小题2分，共10分）51—55 BABDC
第二节（D）（每小题1分，共5分）56—60 CDBAE
Ⅴ. 情景交际（每小题1分，共5分）
（评分建议：第61—65题允许多种答案，对不影响交际功能的应尽量减少对非关键性错误的扣分。）
61．How good/wonderful/.... (the movie is)!
62．I don’t think so./I don’t agree with you./I disagree with you./….
63．I prefer tea to coffee.
64．He isn’t in /at home./You can leave a message for him./….
65．When /What time shall we meet this afternoon /….
Ⅵ. 看图写话（每小题1分，共5分）
（评分建议：只要考生按图示和指示词写出意思完整，语法正确的句子即可得分，所给提示词必须用上。允许多种答案，对不影响交际功能的应尽量减少对非关键性错误的扣分。）
66．They are going to /will climb the hills/ mountains tomorrow./….
67．They were planting a tree/trees at this time yesterday./….
68．Staying up late is bad for his health./It is bad for him to stay up late./….
69．Tim is shorter than the man. / The man is taller than Tim.
70．The man /…asked/asks his son/… not to play computer games./….
Ⅶ. 短文填空（每小题1分，共10 分）
（评分建议：与标准答案不一致的不得分。）
71．famous 72．longest 73．built 74．still 75．of
76．doing 77．so/ and 78．were 79．chance 80．a
Ⅷ. 书面表达（10分）
一、评分原则：
1、本题总分为10分，按四个档次给分。评分时，先根据文章内容要点、应用词汇、语法结构的准确性及上下文的连贯性初步确定其所属档次，然后根据拼写、书写和词数等情况调整档次，最后给分。
2、词数少于40词的，从总分中减去3分；
3、短文内容必须包括内容提示。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求：
第一档：（8—10分）能写出全部要点并适当拓展，行文连贯，语言基本无
误，完全达到写作要求。
第二档：（6—7分）能写出基本要点，语言虽有较多错误，尚能达意。
第三档：（3—5分）只能写出二、三个与要点有关的句子，语言错误多未达到写作要求。
第四档：（0—2分）只字未写或表达一点与本题内容有关的信息。
参考范文：
Protecting the Ocean
Our school held an activity of protecting the ocean on the school playground last Saturday. First, we listened to a talk and got much knowledge about the ocean. Then we talked about ways to protect the ocean and made beautiful posters. Last, we showed the posters in the street and told people not to make the ocean home dirty or kill sea animals for their meat.
We think the activity is meaningful. We learn a lot through it. And it also makes us know protecting the ocean is protecting our home. In our daily life, we will do anything we can to protect it.

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