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四川省成都市2024届高三下学期二诊考试
英语试题
本试卷分选择题和非选择题两部分。第I卷（选择题）1至8页, 第Ⅱ卷（非选择题）9至10页, 共10页, 满分150分, 考试时间120分钟。
注意事项：
1. 答题前, 务必将自己的姓名、考籍号填写在答题卡规定的位置上。
2. 答选择题时, 必须使用2B铅笔将答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑, 如需改动, 用橡皮擦擦干净后, 再选涂其它答案标号。
3. 答非选择题时, 必须使用0. 5毫米黑色笔迹的签字笔, 将答案书写在答题卡规定的位置上。
4. 所有题目必须在答题卡上作答, 在试题卷上答题无效。
5. 考试结束后, 只将答题卡交回。
第I卷（100分）
第一部分听力（共两节, 满分30分）
做题时, 先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后, 你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节（共5小题；每小题1. 5分, 满分7. 5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题, 从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项, 并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后, 你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. Why will the man be late
A. He’s got up late. B. He is sick. C. The train is delayed.
2. What is the woman doing
A. Offering suggestions. B. Making complaints. C. Recommending books.
3. Where does the conversation probably take place
A. On the road. B. At a garage. C. At a petrol station.
4. When is the deadline of the paper
A. Last Friday. B. This Monday. C. This Wednesday.
5. What are the speakers talking about
A. A disease. B. A doctor. C. A teacher.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1. 5分, 满分22. 5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题, 从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项, 并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前, 你将有时间阅读各个小题, 每小题5秒钟。听完后, 各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料, 回答第6至7题。
6. What’s wrong with the woman
A. She feels sick. B. She quarreled with Joe. C. She has trouble with work
7. What is the woman going to do this evening
A. Attend a lecture. B. Make an apology. C. Complete her work.
听第7段材料, 回答第8至10题。
8. What does the woman do
A. A park owner. B. A tutor. C. A student.
9. What does the man advise the woman to do
A. Prepare tools. B. Wear comfortably. C. Watch weather reports.
10. How will the woman get to George Park
A. By bus. B. By car. C. On foot.
听第8段材料, 回答第11至13题。
11. Why did Nathan get promoted
A. He is good at management.
B. He's served long in the company.
C. He has great communication skills.
12. How does the man feel about Nathan's promotion
A. Envious. B. Delighted. C. Uninterested.
13. What's the probable relationship between the speakers
A. Colleagues. B. Boss and employee. C. Salesman and customer.
听第9段材料, 回答第14至16题。
14. What made the woman determine to set up a pipa major in Sydney
A. Her student's experience.
B. The support from the university.
C. The recognition from other people.
15. What troubled the woman most when setting up the pipa major
A. Teaching methods. B. The admissions. C. The curriculum.
16. What is this interview mainly about
A. The music education in Sydney.
B. The woman's experience of teaching pipa.
C. The woman's efforts to promote Chinese pipa.
听第10段材料, 回答第17至20题。
17. Who is probably the speaker
A. A city planner. B. A tour guide. C. A TV host.
18. Why were the canals built
A. To attract visitors. B. To promote economy. C. To ease traffic pressure. 19. What do we know about the houses along the canals
A. They are abandoned.
B. They show the city was rich.
C. They were built by government.
20. Why does the speaker give the talk
A. To describe a tourist attraction.
B. To introduce the history of a city.
C. To explain the functions of canals.
第二部分阅读理解（共两节, 满分40分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2分, 满分30分）
阅读下列短文, 从每题所给的四个选项（A、B、C和D）中, 选出最佳选项, 并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A
The Pritzker Architecture Prize is known as the Nobel Prize for architects. Each year it is awarded to professionals — an individual or team who have made important contributions to the field of architecture and design. Here is a list of some Pritzker winners.
Ieoh Ming Pei
Chinese-born architect Ieoh Ming Pei tended to use large, abstract forms and sharp, geometric designs. His glass-covered structures seem to spring from the high-tech modernist movement. The jury（评委会） noted, “Pei has designed over 50 projects, many of which have been award winners. Two of his most famous designs have included the East Building of the National Gallery of Art in Washington, D. C. , and the extension of the Louvre in Paris, France. "
Kenzō Tange
This master of architecture was one of the most significant architects of the 20th century, combining traditional Japanese styles with modernism. His amazing and visionary concepts of architecture led the Pritzker Jury to award him the Pritzker Prize, making him the first Japanese architect to win this prestigious award.
Diébédo Francis Kéré
Recognized for "empowering and transforming communities through the process of architecture", Diébédo Francis Kéré has won 2022 Pritzker Architecture Prize, becoming the first African architect to obtain the award. The jury praised him for developing an architectural beauty based on local climatic conditions.
Balkrishna Doshi
Balkrishna Doshi, the first Pritzker Laureate from India, studied in Bombay, today's Mumbai, and furthered his studies in Europe. The Pritzker jury said about his selection, "Balkrishna Doshi constantly demonstrates that all good architecture and urban planning must take into account factors such as climate. "
21. Who is good at combining traditional styles and modernism
A. Diébédo Francis Kéré. B. Ieoh Ming Pei.
C. Balkrishna Doshi. D. Kenzō Tange.
22. What do Diébédo Francis Kéré and Balkrishna Doshi have in common
A. Their nationality. B. Their design philosophy.
C. The communities they serve. D. The educational background.
23. Where can the text be found
A. In a brochure. B. In a biography.
C. In an advertisement. D. In a magazine.
B
“Sticks and stones may break my bones, but words will never harm me, " is an old saying my fourth-grade teacher once told me. I grew up thinking as long as people didn't physically hurt each other, hurtful words were to be tolerated, but I changed my mind after reading Linda O'Connell's story, Two Little Words with a Big Impact. She discussed two words: "and" and "but", and explained how "but" can be one of the most destructive words.
Then I realized I had been hurt by the word "but", and that I had wounded others, too, by using the word thoughtlessly. For example, when I was a teacher and edited my students' stories, I would always say their content was good, but then I would add comments such as" but you need to make your characters more realistic. "I could have said, "Your content is good and making your characters more believable will make it even better.
In setting up guidelines for commenting on writers, I realize we need to praise each other, make helpful remarks, and then praise each other again, without using the word "but. "I remember a college professor who said, "There is no such thing as constructive criticism. Criticism is criticism. She has now passed on, but her words remain with me always.
My fourth-grade teacher's quote was aimed at what she thought was harmless playground teasing, but even teasing hurts. Today, we can read sad news related to many stories where people have been terribly hurt by ugly words and suffered a lot. Now I realize the importance of thinking before speaking, even to avoid seemingly unimportant words like "but. "Sticks and stones break our bones, but thoughtless words also do harm. They can leave marks for a lifetime.
24. What changed the author's attitude to hurtful words
A. A teacher's advice. B. His personal experience.
C. A college professor's words. D. A story by Linda O'Connell.
25. What message does the example in Paragraph 2 convey
A. The author used "but" too often. B. The author could tolerate criticism.
C. The misuse of "but" can hurt others. D. Realistic characters are needed in writing.
26. Which words can best describe the author
A. Honest and warm-hearted. B. Devoted and co-operative.
C. Optimistic and open-minded. D. Caring and self-reflective.
27. What is the text mainly about
A. The benefits of learning from mistakes.
B. The long-lasting effect of hurtful words.
C. The importance of using words thoughtfully.
D. The difference between physical and emotional harm.
C
Two powerful NASA telescopes have detected the oldest and most distant black hole ever found. Data collected via energetic X-rays by the Chandra X-ray Observatory and James Webb Space Telescope has helped astronomers spot the signature of a growing black hole within the early universe just 470 million years after the big bang, which occurred 13. 8 billion years ago. The discovery, described in a study published in Nature Astronomy, may help astronomers figure out how some of the first supermassive black holes formed in the universe.
“We needed Webb to find this remarkably distant galaxy （星系） and Chandra to find its supermassive black hole, " said lead study author Akos Bogdan, in a statement. "We also took advantage of a cosmic magnifying glass（宇宙放大镜） that boosted the amount of light we detected. " He was referring to an effect called gravitational lensing（引力透镜效应）, which occurs when closer objects act like a magnifying glass for distant objects. Gravity essentially twists and strengthens the light of distant galaxies in the background of whatever is doing the magnifying, enabling observations of otherwise invisible features.
Astronomers detected the black hole in a galaxy called UHZ1. At first glance, the galaxy appeared in the same direction as a cluster of galaxies known as Abell 2744, which is located about 3. 5 billion light-years from Earth. But data collected by the Webb telescope showed that UHZl is actually much farther away and located beyond the cluster at 13. 2 billion light-years from Earth.
The team used the Chandra Observatory to detect superheated gas releasing X-rays within UHZ1, the obvious sign of a supermassive black hole growing in size. The detection was made possible by the Abell cluster of galaxies, which intensified the light of the UHZ1 galaxy and the X-rays released by the black hole by a factor of four.
Astronomers think the discovery will help them better understand how supermassive black holes appeared and reached their huge masses so soon after the beginning of the universe.
28. What's the possible age of the newly-found black hole
A. 470 million years. B. 13. 33 billion years.
C. 13. 8 billion years. D. 14. 27 billion years.
29. What is Paragraph 2 mainly about
A. The process of the research. B. The significance of the discovery.
C. The contributors to the discovery. D. The background of the research.
30. Which best shows the position of Abell 2744, Earth and UHZ1
31. Which can be a suitable title for the text
A. The Oldest and Most Distant Black Hole Spotted
B. Two Powerful NASA Telescopes Coming into Service
C. New Supporting Evidence of the Big Bang Theory Detected
D. Astronomers Figuring Out How the First Black Holes Formed
D
There's an enormous amount of personal health information people now feed or tap into digital monitors, health apps, search engines and other online tools. If the same information were provided in your doctor's office, your privacy would be safeguarded. But that's not how the digitized health world works.
Instead, we have an ecosystem of abuse in which health technology companies operate largely outside the law that requires doctors and other medical personnel, hospitals and insurers to protect an individual's health information.
That means technology companies can -- and do -- dig your digital data for clues about your health status, accessing information like prescriptions you have purchased and other health services you might have sought, and potentially link this information to your name, address, email address and other personally identifying information. The data can then be used by platforms including Facebook and Google to help advertisers target promotions or other communications to you.
It's a gaping hole in health privacy protections that comes from the privacy law, which protects interactions between patients, medical professionals and insurers but does not, in most cases, protect patient health data that is recorded on new technologies.
Closing the patient privacy gap can- and should -be a priority for lawmakers. The consequences of digital exposure for those seeking reproductive services have drawn significant concern and attention. These worries are reasonable. But reproductive care is only one area of health services where private patient information is digitally disclosed.
Therefore, lawmakers must take action to protect the privacy of people who are now online for all manners of personal, professional and other reasons. Until then, a narrowly targeted approach that protects health privacy may be politically easier to come into effect. The explosion of digital health technology and the dramatic increase in its use in the past few years require it greatly.
32. What can we learn about the present situation of the digitized health world
A. Personal health data is used for other purposes.
B. Personal health information is difficult to identify.
C. Targeted promotions are used to improve people's health.
D. Medical personnel protect the personal health information well.
33. What's the author's attitude towards the present privacy law
A. Approving. B. Critical. C. Cautious. D. Ambiguous.
34. What does the underlined word "it" in Paragraph 6 refer to
A. The spread of health service. B. People's privacy.
C. A narrowly targeted approach. D. The explosion of digital technology.
35. What is the purpose of the text
A. To advocate improvement in the privacy law.
B. To report cases of illegal information exposure.
C. To explain how the digitized health world works.
D. To introduce a debate on the effect of technology.
第二节（共5小题；每小题2分, 满分10分）
根据短文内容, 从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项, 选项中有两项为多余选项。
There's no good reason not to have a meaningful life 36 But through careful thinking and self-reflection, we can take steps to change that.
One thing that can help you find meaning in your life is structured, systematic reflection. 37 Then follow up on that by reflecting on what you'd like to add to your life and what you could get rid of to make it more meaningful. If this proves tricky, try taking a look at the lives of people you respect and thinking about what makes you think their lives are meaningful.
38 Imagine yourself, a few decades from now, finding out that you only have a few months or even only a few days to live. What are you happy to have done and sad not to have done Reminding yourself that life has a limit will help you focus on what truly matters.
What's more, if you take a closer look, you might realize that your life is already full of meaning. All too often we don't recognize what's important until we are likely to lose it. But there's no need to wait for adversity to help you appreciate the great things in your life. 39
Finally, you can make small changes and create new habits that will help you appreciate the value in your life. 40 This can help you cultivate a deeper sense of gratitude and find joy in the simple pleasures of everyday life.
A. Firstly, try to be more aware of your preference.
B. It can also help to see your life from a new angle.
C. There are usual arguments about how life is meaningless.
D. Sadly, we are always left struggling to find meaning in life.
E. You can always expose yourself to the value that's all around you.
F. Start by making a list of things that are already meaningful in your life.
G. It comes down to trying to see all the small things in your life with fresh eyes.
第三部分 英语知识运用（共两节, 满分45分）
第一节 完形填空（共20小题;每小题1. 5分, 满分30分）
阅读下面短文, 从短文后各题所给的四个选项（A、B、C和D）中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项, 并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
At the age of 16, I went to Australia as an exchange student and lived with a host family. Even though I had made some preparations, the culture shock was still 41 .
During the first months, which is called the "honeymoon phase" of culture shock, I was super 42 to be in a different culture and found everything 43 and exciting. But soon, things started to feel 44 . Differences became more apparent and frustrating 45 populated my head: "I wish people would just be able to speak German for one day!
I wish public transportation would… " These thoughts were of course highly 46 . However, they're part of the "negotiation phase".
Over the next few months, though, feelings of adjustment and belonging gradually 47 . I developed my own routine, learned to adapt to the 48 , and made many new friends. I had slowly and unknowingly 49 the "adjustment phase". I had adapted my own behavior and learned to 50 new ways of thinking and attitudes. My English had improved 51 !
Things started to make sense and I 52 Australian culture better and better! That was a major 53 for me personally. Every day I felt more 54 with my new home. I adopted many new traits （特性） while also 55 earlier ones from my home country. This process is called the "mastery phase". My happiest moment was when my dear friend one day 56 during a conversation: "Jude, you 57 just like us! You're an Australian now!" I had transformed from a silent timid German to an almost accent-free bicultural Australian/German.
The 58 of culture shock are different for everyone and can cause different behaviors and 59 . But one thing is for sure though: Culture shock cannot be avoided and 60 is the first step towards adapting to a foreign culture.
41. A. unavoidable B. unbearable C. unbelievable D. unforgettable
42. A. worried B. lonely C. thrilled D. proud
43. A. similar B. expensive C. advanced D. fresh
44. A. uncontrollable B. odd C. distracting D. worthless
45. A. experiences B. comments C. thoughts D. news
46. A. effortless B. unimportant C. unhelpful D. aimless
47. A. took over B. broke out C. went on D. faded away
48. A. requirements B. trend C. behaviors D. stress
49. A. missed B. entered C. completed D. created
50. A. appreciate B. meet C. ignore D. change
51. A. slowly B. dramatically C. suddenly D. regularly
52. A. memorized B. introduced C. understood D. analyzed
53. A. breakthrough B. barrier C. dilemma D. method
54. A. patient B. familiar C. careful D. comfortable
55. A. keeping B. enjoying C. remembering D. spreading
56. A. complained B. remarked C. declared D. emphasized
57. A. look B. sound C. eat D. dress
58. A. effects B. descriptions C. advantages D. attractions
59. A. understanding B. changes C. feelings D. response
60. A. questioning B. exploration C. imitation D. acceptance
第Ⅱ卷（50分）
注意事项：
用0. 5毫米黑色笔迹的签字笔将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
第三部分英语知识运用
第二节（共10小题；每小题1. 5分, 满分15分）
阅读下面短文, 在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
China is a country rich in tea culture. 61 （add） to the intangible （非物质的） cultural heritage （遗产） list of the UNESCO, China's. traditional tea-making became the country's 43rd on the list. This recognition will make this cultural heritage 62 （visible） to the public than before and help promote respect for cultural diversity and human creativity.
The traditional tea-making in China is a whole system 63 （involve）knowledge, skills, and practices about the 64 （manage）of tea plantations, picking of tea leaves, manual processing, drinking, and sharing of tea. The history of Chinese tea 65 （date） from over 3, 000 years ago. Since then, Chinese people have been planting, picking, making, and drinking tea. Tea producers in China have successfully developed six categories of tea: green, yellow, dark, white, oolong, and black teas, each 66 its own flavor and health benefits. For instance, green tea is famous for its health benefits, 67 black tea is known for its strong flavor. Together with processed teas, such as flower-scented teas, there are 68 （total）over 2, 000 tea products in China.
Tea is an essential part of Chinese culture and tradition. 69 is common in Chinese people's daily life, as steeped （浸泡的） or boiled tea 70 （serve）in families, workplaces, tea houses, and restaurants, to name a few. It's also important for socialization and ceremonies such as weddings.
第四部分写作（共两节, 满分35分）
第一节短文改错（共10小题；每小题1分, 满分10分）
假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文, 请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误, 每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。
增加：在缺词处加一个漏字符号（∧）, 并在其下面写出该加的词。
删除：把多余的词用斜线（\）划掉。
修改：在错的词下划一横线, 并在该词下面写出修改后的词。
注意：1. 每处错误及修改均仅限一词。
2. 只允许修改10处, 多者（从第11处起）不计分。
Last Friday, I was playing basketball with the friend on the court when I accidentally hit a passed student with the ball. I felt terribly and immediately apologized him. He was in pain and I knew I have to do something to help him. I offered to walk him to the nurse office and waited with him until he felt well than before. I was also carried his books and accompanied him for the rest of the day. I learned that in the. future however happens, 'we should take responsibility for their actions and make things right.
第二节书面表达（满分25分）
你校英文报正举办以“ThePowerof Smile”为题的征文比赛, 请结合自身经历写一篇短文投稿, 内容包括：
1. 自身经历；
2. 你的感悟。
注意：
1. 词数100左右；
2. 题目已为你写好。
The Power of Smile成都市2021级高中毕业班第二次诊断性检测
英语参考答案及评分意见
第一部分听力（满分30分）
1-5 AABCC 6-10 BACBC 11-15 CBAAB 16-20 CCBBA
评分标准：1-20小题，每小题1.5分。
第二部分阅读理解（满分40分）
第一节（满分30分）
21-25DBDDC 26-30 DCBCB 31-35 AABCA
评分标准：21-35小题，每小题2分。
第二节（满分10分）36-40DFBEG
评分标准：36-40小题，每小题2分。
第三部分英语知识运用（满分45分）
第一节完形填空（满分30分）
41-45 ACDBC 46-50 CADBA 51-55 BCADA
56-60 BBACD
评分标准：41-60小题，每小题1.5分。
第二节（满分15分）
61. Added/Having been added 62. more visible 63.involving 64.management
65.dates 66. With 67. while/and 68.totally 69. It 70. is served
评分标准：61~70小题.每小题1.5分。有任何错误，包括用词错误、单词拼写错误（含大小写）或语法形式错误，均不给分。
第四部分写作（满分35分）
第一节短文改错（满分10分）
评分标准：有任何错误，包括用词错误、单词拼写错误（含大小写）或语法形式错误，均不给分。
第二节书面表达（满分25分）
一、各档次语言要点配分参考标准
二、内容要点认定及计分参考标准
1.引人主题（阐述清楚、表达正确，计3分）；
2.自身经历（阐述清楚、表达正确，计11分）；
3.你的感悟（阐述清楚、表达正确，计11分）。
三、扣分参考依据
1.其表达未能达成正确句意的，不给分，如：写出了主语或谓语等关键词，但未能达成符合要点要求、意义正确的句子；
2.句子结构完整、但关键点出现错误或漏掉部分关键词，扣半个要点分，如：主谓一致错误，或关键词拼写错误（如主语，关键性名词等），或谓语动词时态/语态错误等；
3.凡使用铅笔答题、或答题中使用了涂改液或不干胶条，一律不给分；
4.凡多次出现非关键性单词拼写错误或其它同类错误，原则上每4处扣1分；
5.文章内容要点全面，但写出了一些多余内容（连接或过渡词句不在此列），原则上不扣分；
6.凡书写超出规定的答题区域，全卷不给分；
7.书写潦草凌乱，但基本不影响阅卷的，酌情扣卷面分1~2分。
四、参考答案（略）

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