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台州市2024年九年级教学质量评估试题
英 语
亲爱的考生：
欢迎参加考试！请你认真审题，仔细答题，发挥最佳水平。 答题时，请注意以下几点：
1. 全卷共10页。 满分120分。 考试时间100分钟。
2. 答案必须写在答题纸相应的位置上，写在试题卷、 草稿纸上无效。
3. 答题前，请认真阅读答题纸上的“注意事项”，按规定答题。
卷 一
说明：本卷共四大题，50小题，满分75分。
第一部分 听力部分
一、 听力(本题有 15 小题，第一节每小题1分，第二、 三节每小题 1.5分； 共计20分)第一节：听小对话，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，回答问题。
1. How is the weather today
A. Rainy. B. Cloudy. C. Sunny.
2. When did Lisa come to China
A. In 2001. B. In 2008. C. In 2018.
3. What is the woman's favorite fruit
A. Apples. B. Bananas. C. Oranges.
4. Who played the violin at the art festival
A. Joe. B. Sara. C. Ella.
5. Where are the two speakers
A. Athome. B. At school. C. At a shop.
第二节：听较长对话， 从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，回答问题。听下面一段较长对话，回答第6~7两个小题。
6. How often does Jenny practice dancing
A. Once a week. B. Twice a week. C. Three times a week.
7. What does the boy like doing
A. Dancing. B. Playing tennis. C. Swimming.
听下面一段较长对话，回答第8~10三个小题。
8. How long will the speakers stay in Hangzhou
A. For one week. B. For two weeks. C. For three weeks.
9. Which place will the speakers visit on the third day
A. The West Lake. B. Hangzhou Museum. C. Lingyi n Temple,
10. What does Sam think of the high-speed railway
A. Convenient. B. Comfortable. C. Fast.
第三节：听独白，从题中所给的A、 B、 C三个选项中选出最佳选项，回答问题。
11. Why is National Volunteer Week held every April
A. To train new volunteers.
B. To provide jobs for volunteers.
C. To thank volunteers for their help.
12. What does the first tip tell you to do
A. Start slowly. B. Choose a partner. C. Take part in training.
13. What kind of partner is advised to choose
A. A partner of the same age.
B. A partner with the same ideas.
C. A partner with the same interests.
14. How can an experienced partner help you in volunteering
A. Build confidence.
B. Stop feeling stressed.
C. Get used to volunteer work quickly.
15. How many tips are mentioned
A. Three. B. Four. C. Five.
第二部分 笔试部分
二、完形填空(本题有 15 小题，每小题1分； 共计15分)
阅读下面短文，掌握大意，然后从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。
Every Saturday, Bibi hung out at her grandma's laundry and dry-cleaning store. Bibi loved being with her grandma but she wanted to do more than just 16 and read.
Bibi had an idea to write down what people brought and put a number on it. Bein g too short.she couldn't 17 certain tasks. But she still wanted to help.
“Why don't you draw a picture of customers coming in You're such a good 18 Grandma joked.“Maybe that would help!”
Bibi went outside, seeing Stephanie and some high school students painting big letters on 19 up and down the street.
Bibi asked 20 they were doing that on windows, Stephanie explained they were painting for a football game. Bibi wondered if the paint washed off. Stephanie said yes, mentioning it's just cornstarch, soap, and food coloring.
“I can help 21 !”Bibi called to Stephanie, her heart beating.“I can draw!”
“ 22 , Bibi, I run out of paint.”Stephanie said.“I have to get home. Thank you all the same!”
23 , Bibi looked at Grandma's windows. 24 an idea jumped into Bibi's head. Would it work Would Grandma agree
25 asking permission and borrowing a few dollars, Bibi bought materials. She and Grandma 26 ways and made homema de window paint together, then Bibi set to work.
She washed the windows, wrote her 27 , and filled in the letters with different colors.Then came the 28 part. She really enjoyed drawing!
When she was finished, Bibi went inside to get Grandma 29 she wanted to show her.
When they came back out, a group of kids were gathered there.
“Great job!”said one girl.
“Perfect,”said another.
AFTER THE GAME, BRING YOUR UNIFORMS HERE! the window said.
Bibi had drawn a picture of the team's uniforms 30 into the water.
Grandma clapped and hugged Bibi. “This just might help,”she said. After the game, it did.
16. A. draw B. sing C. listen D. dance
17. A. talk about B. deal with C. give up D. think about
18. A. customer B. artist C. singer D. player
19. A. grounds B. doors C. walls D. windows
20. A. when B. where. C. why D. how
21. A. you B. him C. her D. them
22. A. Sure B. Sorry C. OK D. Great
23. A. Scared B. Satisfied C. Disappointed D. Proud
24. A. Gradually B. Certainly C. Suddenly D. Carefully
25. A. After B. Without C. Before D. For
26. A. forgot B. refused C. missed D. studied
27. A. homework B. story C. message D. diary
28. A. fun B. traditional C. lucky D. tiring
29. A. though B. because C. until D. or
30. A. digging B. walking C. moving D. jumping
三、阅读理解(本题有 15 小题，每小题2分； 共计30分)
阅读下面材料，从每题所给的A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Hey there, science-loving students! Don't forget that today is the 7th annual National Science Reading Day!
This September 20, kids from ages 3 to 17 are. invited to spend one period of the day reading about science. These readings can be done either individually(个人的) or as a whole classroom.And students can read about science in many different ways. You can read:
·a non-fiction book ·a science-fiction novel
·a scientist's biography ·a science magazine
How to enter
Entering is simple! First, spend one period reading about science. Then visit our contest site:/sciencereadingday!
On the site, you'll be asked to enter information about either yourself or your classroom. Then share either your reading list or photos of your reading. And you're done!
Great prizes
In total, there are about $2,500 worth of prizes to be won. These include:
·Five individual prize packs of books and magazines worth $150
·Five classroom prize packs of books and magazines worth $350
Sounds great! So get out there and enjoy reading about science. We can't wait to see your entries!
31. Who is invited to join in the contest
A. A teacher aged 30. B. My 2-year-old sister.
C. A group of five university students. D. Class 3 from a middle school.
32. What is the correct order to enter the contest
a. Visit the contest site.
b. Spend one period reading about science.
c. Enter personal or classroom information.
d. Sha re the reading list or photos of reading.
A. a-b-c-d B. a-d-c-b C. b-a-c-d D. b-c-a-d
33. What is the text
A. A diary. B. An ad. C. A news report. D. A book review.
B
Who is your favorite poet For many young people, the answer is Shel Silyerstein. Shel's first book Uncle Shelby's Story of Lafcadio the. Lion Who Shot Back was published in the 1960s,. and since then his children's books have sold more than 30 million copies! Young people recognize that Shel really understood his readers.
Shel Silverstein was born in Chicago, Illinois, in 1930. He began writing poems when he was young. Although he was best known for writing children's stories, Shel was creative in many ways. He began his career in the arts as a cartoonist in his twenties. He also was a talented singer, songwriter, composer, and illustrator. In fact, Shel illustrated all of his children's books himself.This is one reason the pictures seem to match the poem so perfectly.
Where the Sidewalk Ends, first published in 1974, is one of the most beloved children's books of all time. But what makes Shel's poetry so timeless and popular His poems are often funny, and young people love Shel's type of humor.
In one poem, he told the story of a girl who refused to take out the garbage. It piled up higher and higher until it almost took over the town. Many kids have experienced the feeling of not wanting to do a chore. They love the feeling of being out of control in the book because they know that it would never happen that way in real life.
Shel also liked to play with language in his poetry. He often used skills like Alliteration in his work. Alliteration is the use of words that begin with the same sounds. In the poem about the girl who refused to take out the garbage, the character's name is Sarah Cynthia Sylvia Stout. This type of Alliteration can make poetry fun to read aloud.
In1999, Shel Silverstein died in his home in Key West Florida: Children and adults will miss his special humor and incredible imagination. As the media's words go,“Where there is a library,there are Shel's books.”
34. When did Shel Silverstein become a cartoonist
A. In the 1940s. B. In the 1950s. C. In the 1960s. D. In the 1970s!
35. What kind of person is Shel Silverstein
A. Fun and talkative. B. Kind and creative.
C. Talented and humorous. D. Clever and friendly.
36. What does the underlined word“illustrate”in Paragraph 2 probably mean
A. Draw pictures. B. Read stories. C. Write songs. D. Tell jokes.
37. Which of the following sentence is an example of Allileration
A. Tell me I'm clever. Tell me I'm kind.
B. Mandy's mo m made mouthwatering mooncakes.
C. I made myself a snowball as perfect as could be.
D. The garbage reached across the state from New York to the Golden Gate.
C
①That future is almost here.“I think it's going to happen. Definitely in ten years... and hopefully much, much faster,”said Sebastian Thrun in 2021. At that time, his young company Kitty Hawk Corporation was working on developing a flying car known as eVTOL, or Electronic Vertical Take-Off and Landing vehicle(车辆).
②Flying to work or school sounds unbelievable. Not only is it fun to fly, but “there would never be traffic again, because the sky is very, very large,”says Thrun. He also thinks eVTOLs could be greener than common cars.“We go much faster, we go in a straight line, we fly on less energy,”he says.
③So far, though, flying cars haven't taken off as a product. Will their day come There are still many problems to solve. Their high price means most people won't be able to afford one. So,some companies are developing them as air taxis that people could pay to ride. The main problem with flying cars is safety. Accidents in the air are dangerous to both the passengers and anyone on the ground beneath. To make eVTOLs safer, many developers are aiming to make them self-flying——no human pilot required.
④Another problem is space. Most aircraft need long runways to take off and land. Lifting straight up and down like a helicopter solves this problem. But eVTOLs still need special spaces,called vertiports, for take-off and landing. Finding places to put these could be tricky, especially in crowded cities. But maybe some could go on top of buildings.
⑤What do you think Would you enjoy riding to school or to visit a friend in a self-flying taxi Are flying cars a good idea, or should we find other ways to get around in the near future
38. What is Sebastian Thrun's opinion about the future of flying cars
A. He thinks it will never happen.
B. He thinks it will happen in the next century.
C. He is not sure about the future of flying cars.
D. He believes it will happen in ten years and faster.
39. Why are some companies developing Mying cars as air taxis
A. To solve safety problems. B. To make them choapor.
C. To provide rides for people. D. To compete with common cars.
40. What is the possible structure of the passage
41. What is probably the best title of the passage
A. Is a Flying Car Your Dream Car B. WI II Future Flying Cars Need Drivers
C. The Exclting World of Electric Taxls D. The History of Alr Travel Technologles
D
Should I go for a hamburger or a piece of bread Do I paint my room blue or pink People make choices ev ery day but it can sometimes lead to feeling scarcd and unsure. When you're able to make decisions, accept and learn from them. This can give you a sense of calm.
Some decisions, like what to buy or when you go out, aren't very serious, but others can influence your health, school and relationships. It is important to take time to make a decision,especially when choosing makes you feel nervous. However, if you ignore(忽视) decision-making,you will be in trouble. As you grow up, making decisions becomes an important part of life.
When it comes to making difficult decisions, it can be helpful to break down your thinking.You could start by listing the different choices, then weigh up the good and bad sides of each choice.
Teacher and health expert, Anita Garai says:“Listen to your body, especially if your thoughts are not clear or you feel worried.”Garai says people should follow their true feelings and listening to their hearts can help a lot,“Try to catch your first excitement, before your mind questions things,”she says. Although considering other people's feelings can be a part of decision-making, Garai says you shouldn't make wrong decisions in order to please others.
Many people worry if they can make the “right” decision. Garai says, “There's not always a right choice and a wrong choice. Different ways lead to different experiences.”
If your choice leads to disappointment, try to think about whether you would make a different decision in the future.
42. How does the writer lead into the topic
A. By telling stories. B. By giving examples.
C. By asking questions. D. By sharing experiences.
43. What is Paragraph 2 mainly about
A. Why decision-making is important.
B. How long it takes to make decisions.
C. How you feel when making decisions.
D. What decisions you make when going out.
44. What does Expert Garai advise you to do when making decisions
A. To keep yourself excited B. To please others around you.
C. To follow your own feelings. D. To listen to to your best friends.
45. What is the main purpose of the passage
A. To help readers learn how to make decisions.
B. To encourage readers to make right decisions.
C. To share different feelings of making decisions.
D. To introduce different kinds of decisions in our daily life.
四、任务型阅读(本题有5小题，每小题2分； 共计10分)
阅读下面材料，从方框中所给的 A-B 五个选项中选择正确的选项(其中一项是多余选项) , 将其序号填入46-49题, 并回答第 50题。
Why not find a new friend in 2024——yourself! Being treated with kindness, respect and love are things you would expect from a good friendship and you shouldn't have to go far to find them. 46
What does self-love mean 47 . Imagine your best friend is worried or upset, then think about how you'd support them and try to make them feel better. Speaking to yourself with kindness. Be as kind to yourself as you are to others.
48 Because learning to love who you are improves your self-respect. The mental health charity Young Minds says this makes you believe in yourself and feel that you deserve(值得)having good things——such as kind friends and fun experiences.
49 Start to be kind, especially if you make a mistake. Instead of being angry, tell yourself that everyone gets things wrong sometimes. Try not to compare yourself to others. Focus on yourself instead. Writing down your strengths and asking your family and friends for their thoughts.This will help you see the positives in your life.
A. Why does it matter
B. How to better yourself
C. Start by being your own friend.
D. Self-love can help schoolwork.
E. It means taking really good care of your body and mind.
50. How will you better yourself in 2024 (Answer in no more than 15 words)
卷 二
说明：本卷共三大题，26小题； 满分45分。
五、词汇运用(本题有 15 小题，每小题1分； 共计15分)
A. 根据下刻句子及所给首字母或汉语注释，写出空缺处各单词的正确形式，每空只写一词。
51. National Day is on the first day of O .
52. Jack was l for school. He explained to his teacher that he didn't catch the bus.
53. During our vísit to the zoo, we learned interesting facts of animals and enjoyed o .
54. On Mid-Autumn Festival, families get together to a the moon and share mooncakes.
55. On a clear night, you could see thousands of s shining in the sky and dancing on the water below.
56. (无论什么) you do, do it a hundred percent.
57. He (明智地) chose to listen to his parents' advice.
58. I am going to be a (医生) when I finish my college.
59. I like all fruits (除了) for bananas because they taste too sweet for me.
60. Eric made sure to have (足够的) exercise every day by running around.
B. 根据短文内容，用方框中所给词的适当形式填空，每词限用一次。
big piece take care of patiently grow
Community gardens are special places where people gather to grow vegetables, fruits, and flowers. A garden might be 61 than a football field, or it might fit on a rooftop. Big or small,community gardens are often divided into small 62 of land, one for each gardener or family.These gardens can be great for families who don't have room for 63 plants at home, or who just like gardening with other people. It's fun to see how others 64 their small garden s and what they like to eat!. There's so much for new gardeners to learn. It takes many weeks for a garden to grow 65 . But by the end of the season, community gardeners can pick delicious vegetables with their new friends!
六、语法填空(本题有 10 小题，每小题1分； 共计10分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的词，或填入括号中所给单词的正确形式。
Kun Opera is a kind of traditional Chinese opera 66 has been around. for over 600 years. It is considered to be one of 67 (old) forms of Chinese operas. The 68 (one)record of Kun Opera goes back 69 . the 14th century in the Yuan Dynasty. The Kunshan area in Jiangsu Province is the birthplace of Kun Opera. Kun Opera became 70 national art form in the 16th century. In the following 200 years, between the Ming Dynasty and the Qing Dynasty,Kun Opera 71 (welcome) around the country, becoming an important part of Chinese culture. Sadly, Kun Opera 72 fall) little by little since the 18th century. With the rise of other operas such as Peking Opera, Kun Opera started 73 (lose) its ground. In the 20th century, Kun Opera almost died out. Thanks to overseas Chinese Kun Opera groups and 74 (fan), some Kun Opera pieces and skills remained. 75 (recent), the rise of“zhe zi xi”could keep this kind of art alive. Instead of acting the whole piece of one play for a long time, now the artists can perform one or several interesting pieces on their own.
七、书面表达(本题有 1小题； 共计20分)
76. 假设你是李华，寒假期间参与了班级组织的社会实践活动。 请你写一篇英语短文，向校英语报投稿，分享此次活动的经历和感受。文章包括以下内容要点：
When Saturday, February 3rd
Where Taizhou Library
What I did help organize books, make bookmarks...
How I felt a sense of pride
注意：(1) 短文必须包括表格中的所有信息，可适当发挥；
(2) 文中不得出现真实人名、校名等相关信息；
(3) 词数: 80~100。标题和开头已给出, 不计入总词数。
A Day at the Library
During the winter break, I had a great time joining in a special social practice activity.
台州市 2024年九年级教学质量评估试题
英语参考答案和评分标准
一、 听力(1~5 题每小题1分，6~15 题每小题1.5分。 选错答案、 多选或不选一律不给分)
1. A 2. C 3. C 4. B 5. A 6. B 7. B 8. A 9. B
10. A 11. C 12. A 13. C 14. C 15. B
二、完形填空(每小题1分，选错答案、多选或不选一律不给分)
16. A 17. B 18. B 19. D 20. C 21. A 22. B 23. C 24. C
25. A 26. D 27. C 28. A 29. B 30. D
三、阅读理解(每小题2分，选错答案、多选或不选一律不给分)
31. D 32. C 33. B 34. B 35. C 36. A 37. B 38. D 39. B
40. D 41. A 42. C 43. A 44. C 45. A
四、任务型阅读(每小题2分，选错答案、多选或不选一律不给分)
46. C 47. E 48. A 49. B
50. One possible version:
I'm going to do more exercise to keep healthy.
五、词汇运用(每小题1分，写错答案一律不给分，首字母大小写错误扣0.5 分)
51. October 52. late 53. ourselves 54. admire 55. stars
56. Whatever 57. wisely 58. doctor 59. except 60. enough
61. bigger 62. pieces 63. growing 64. take care of 65. patiently
六、语法填空(每小题1分，写错答案一律不给分，首字母大小写错误扣0.5 分)
66. that/which 67. the oldest 68. first 69. to 70. a
71. was welcomed 72. has fallen 73. to lose/losing 74. fans 75. Recently
七、书面表达(20分)
76. One possible version:
A Day at the Library
During the winter break, I had a great time joining in a special social practice activity. Our class organized a visit to Taizhou Library on Saturday, February 3rd, and it was an unforgettable experience!
First, we worked together to organize books on the library shelves. It was like solving a big puzzle, and I enjoyed every moment of it. After that, we made colorful bookmarks which would encourage people to read more books. But the most amazing part was reading stories to young kids. I could see in their eyes that they were going on a different journey with each new book.
This experience gave me a great sense of pride. Our small efforts made a big difference.

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