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2024年九年级学业水平第一次模拟考试
英语试题参考答案 2024.4
一、听力
1-5 CBAAC 6-10AABCB 11-15BAACC 16-20 BAABC
二、阅读理解
21-25 CDBAB 26-30 ADCAD 31-35 ABBDC 36-40 DBDCD
三、七选五
41-45 EDBCG
四、补全对话
46-50 DABAA
五、完形填空
51-55 AABCD 56-60 CBBAA 61-65 BBCDD
六、阅读填空
66-70 my looks walked I'm taking so
71-75 get quickly meaningful silence will make
七、书面表达
A、情景运用
76. How much are the flowers
77. (1) What’s the weather like (in Jinan)
(2) How’s the weather (in Jinan)
78. (1) I have/had/have had a flu.
(2) I have/had/have had a cold.
(3) I have/had/have had a fever.
(4) I’m ill/sick.
(5) I got an illness.
79. I was waiting for a bus.
80. (1) Did Bert use to wear glasses
(2) Did Bert wear glasses in the past
情景运用题评分标准:
每小题2分。符合本答案者给分。 给分点：0；1；2。
每个句子完全正确给2分；有错误但关键信息正确给1分；关键信息错误给0分。
书面表达
【答案】例文：
Dear friends
Welcome to our school and wish you a good time here. Today I want to share something about traditional Chinese culture with you. There are many kinds of traditional Chinese culture. Some of them have a long history. They have influenced many people.
Beijing Opera comes first. As one of Chinese national treasures, Beijing Opera comes from "Huiban" and it has three parts, including singing, dancing, and speaking. It's full of famous stories, and it is loved by Chinese people of all ages.
The next one is about paper cuttings. Paper cuttings are in all kinds of shapes like animals, flowers or characters from Chinese folk stories. During the Spring Festival, paper cuttings are put on windows, doors and walls. Chinese people believe that they are symbols of wishes for good luck.
Thanks for your listening.
评分标准：
(1)本题共25分。
(2)卷面书写潦草不工整，以致影响理解，可酌情扣1-2分。
(3)拼写错误酌情扣分(0.5一1分)。同样错误不重复计算。
(4)写作可分为五个等级：
1)21-25分：短文覆盖所有内容要点，语句自然流畅，全文结构紧凑，语言丰富地道，书写清晰工整，字数符合要求，语法错误较少(1-3处)，表现出较强的语言运用能力，完全达到预期写作目的。
2)16-20分：短文基本覆盖所有内容要点，语句较流畅，全文结构较紧凑，语言准确，书写工整，字数符合要求，语法错误较少(4-5处)，表现出一定的语言运用能力，达到预期写作目的。
3)11-15分：短文覆盖主要内容，语句尚通顺，内容较连贯，书写较工整，语法错误较多，字数在60词左右，基本达到预期写作目的。
4)6-10分：短文漏掉一些内容要点，有些内容与主题无关，语句不够通顺，语法错误较多，影响了对写作内容的理解，书写一般，字数在40词以下，信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
5)5分以下：明显遗漏要点，写了一些无关的内容，偏离主题，语法结构或词汇方面的错误较多，词不达意，信息未能传达给读者。2024年九年级学业水平第一次模拟考试
英语试题
本试题共12页, 满分150分, 考试用时120分钟。
答卷前, 考生务必将自己的班级、姓名、考场、考号填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。
回答选择题时, 选出每小题答案后, 用2B 铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案 标号涂黑。如需改动, 用橡皮擦干净后, 再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题部时, 用0. 5mm黑色签字笔将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
考试结束后, 将本试题和答题卡一并交回。
一、听力(共20小题；每小题1. 5分, 满分30分)
A) 听录音, 从每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子读一遍。
1. A. Be on time next time! B. Happy birthday! C. Be quiet in the library!
2. A. My favorite month is March. B. I go to school by bus.
C. My brother goes camping every year.
3. A. Is this his green schoolbag
B. Does your mother like pears
C. Have you ever been to Hong Kong
4. A. The books aren't mine. B. I don't have a pet.
C. I won't eat too much junk food.
5. A. Where is the computer B. Why do you like pandas
C. What color is the bag
B) 在录音中, 你将听到五段对话, 每段对话后有一个小题, 从每小题A 、B 、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话读两遍。
6. What did Helen get
A. A sweater. B. A T-shirt. C. A bike.
7. What are they talking about
A. Food. B. Music. C. Color.
8. What time does Gina usually get to school
A. At 7:00. B. At 7:30. C. At 8:00.
9. How does Lisa learn English
A. By working with friends. B. By watching videos.
C. By reading English books.
10. Where are the speakers
A. In the hospital. B. In the restaurant. C. In the classroom.
C) 在录音中, 你将听到一段对话, 对话后有五个小题, 从每小题A、B、C 中选出能
回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前, 你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后, 你将
有40秒钟的答题时间。对话读两遍。
11. Why is Peter unhappy
A. His teacher can't help him.
B. He failed his Chinese test.
C. He has a lot of work to do.
12. Which subject is easy for Peter
A. Math. B. Chinese. C. Science.
13. When are they both free
A. On Thursday afternoon. B. On Saturday morning. C. On Sunday afternoon,
14. Where will they study together
A. In the library: B. At school. C. At Peter's house:
15. What do you think of Ann
A. Lazy; B. Brave. C. Kind.
D) 在录音中, 你将听到一篇短文, 短文后有五个小题, 从每小题A、B、C 中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前, 你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后, 你将有40秒钟的答题时间。短文读两遍。
16. What happened to Emily's father
A. He fell down. B. He got a serious illness. C. He got up late.
17. Why did Emily start a book drive
A. To help others. B. To make money. C. To read books.
18. Who can get the books
A. The kids B. The adults. C. The nurses.
19. How did Emily's father feel after he knew her plan for the book drive
A. Sorry B. Peaceful. C. Excited.
20. What do her parents help her to do
A. Clean the rooms. B. Cook the meals. C. Drive the car.
二 、阅读理解 阅读下列短文, 从每题A 、B 、C 、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。(40分)
A
The Mina Town School is holding a fun run. This is the information that is taken home with
the students.
Run Race Time: Saturday, 1:30 pm, 3rd June Entry Fee Adults $8 Schoolchildren $4 Family no more than 3 $14 Registration: 8:00 am to 1:00 pm Prizes include a Gold Coast Holiday
21. What does the underlined word “Entry Fee” mean in Chinese
A. 出行方式 B. 行程安排 C. 报名费 D. 必需品
22. If Peter and his two daughters enter the race, how much should he pay
A. $4 B. $8 C. $12 D. $14
23. Which of the following is NOT true about the race
A. The race will begin at 1:30 pm.
B. Every student has to enter the race with his parents.
C. The winners can take a holiday on the beach.
D. Check point 4 is higher than Check point 1.
24. What do the competitors probably see in the race
① a park ② a lake ③ a farm ④ a school
A. ①②③ B. ②③④ C. ①②④ D. ①③④
25. This text is __________________.
A. a report B. a notice C. an email D. a letter
B
Olga's school was having a big concert tonight. Olga played second flute(长笛), so if the first flute player got sick, Olga could play his or her part
Today Olga went to school early for more practice. Her music teacher Mr. Perez was waiting for her. He told her that Alonso was ill and stayed in hospital. It meant that Olga would play Alonso's part tonight.
After hearing the news, Olga was very nervous. Alonso was one of the best flute players in the school. Olga thought that she couldn't play well. Mr. Perez smiled, “You practise it every day. Alonso plays well, and so do you. Please try, Olga. ”
Olga closed her eyes and began to play, but this morning she still felt nervous. The high notes were hard to reach and the fast notes were difficult to play. The quiet part seemed too loud. When Olga finished, her eyes were filled with tears.
Without saying anything, Mr. Perez played a piece of flute music on his computer. “That's beautiful. I wish I played like that!"Olga said. “Olga, I recorded the music just now. That was you playing!"Mr. Perez said.
“Do my play really sound like that ”Olga was shocked and doubted whether she could play so well. “Sure, that's you!"Mr. Perez told her. “So, don't worry. You work hard and play very well. Never forget to have fun and enjoy the music. You should be confident in yourself. You're a great musician!”
26. Why did Olga go to school early
A. To play the flute well. B. To look after Alonso.
C. To help her music teacher. D. To record the music.
27. What can we learn from paragraph 4
A. When the concert began.
B. Why Olga played the music instead of Alonso.
C. Alonso was the best flute player in the school.
D. The music was a little difficult for her.
28. What is the right order of the events
① Mr. Perez recorded the music for Olga.
② Alonso got sick.
③ Mr. Perez told Olga the news about Alonso.
④ Olga's eyes were filled with tears.
A. ③②④① B. ③④①② C. ②③①④ D. ②③④①
29. What are the changes of Olga's feelings
A. nervous→ shocked→ confident B. shocked→ nervous→ confident
C. confident→ nervous→ shocked D. nervous→ confident→ shocked
30. What can we learn from the text
A. Alonso doubted himself,
B. Olga's success is up to Mr. Perez.
C. Olga is not good at playing the flute.
D. Mr. Perez's words greatly encouraged Olga.
C
If you had to describe yourself to someone else, what would you say It can be difficult to see yourself from the outside, but realizing who you are can help you understand feelings and make friendships closer.
Self-awareness (自我认知)means knowing your thoughts, feelings and behavior, and understanding how you fit into the world. If you are self-aware, you may know that you love playing basketball because you are good at it, and music makes you happy, or that you prefer watching TV on your own because it helps you relax.
Knowing what you like and dislike, what you are good at and what you find difficult allows you to make better decisions about friendships, schoolwork and even which films to watch. You learn to trust your own feelings more, which builds confidence. The World Health Organization says self-awareness is one of the ten important life skills that help young people lead happier and healthier lives. Being self-aware doesn't mean only thinking of yourself. By understanding your own feelings, you have more understanding for other people, too.
Asking yourself questions is a great way to develop a better understanding of yourself and your actions. When you ask yourself questions, you can start to look at the bigger picture, why you feel a certain way, or why you reacted to something the way you did, etc. You can ask the questions like this:"Why do I avoid this certain thing ", “What am I trying to achieve ”, “How am I feeling right now, and how is that influencing me ", “How do others consider me and feel about my actions ". In doing this, you can start to find out things that perhaps you do not even think twice about in day-to-day life, and this can be a great way to start developing your self-awareness.
Learning to be more self-aware is a skill, which means you learn it as you grow. So try out new things, like playing a new sport or listening to different music. Don't be afraid to dislike something—discovering what you find difficult and challenging is a key part of learning more about yourself.
31. What is paragraph 2 mainly about
A. What self-awareness is. B. Why self-awareness is important.
C. When self-awareness works. D. How to develop self-awareness.
32. How can we develop our self-awareness according to paragraph 4
A. Learn a new skill.
B. Ask ourselves questions.
C. Overcome the difficulties bravely.
D. Make our own decisions by ourselves.
33. What's one of the keys to becoming more self-aware
A. Being in high spirits. B. Discovering your weak points.
C. Having a taste for pleasant music. D. Learning to get along well with others.
34. Who may have an interest in the text
A. The people who love playing basketball.
B. The people who are good at schoolwork.
C. The people who prefer to try out new things.
D. The people who want to learn more about themselves.
35. What's the best title for the text
A. Thinking of Yourself B. Fitting Into the World
C. Getting to Know Yourself D. Asking Yourself Questions
D
① “Mom, I want a cat, ”or “Mom I want a dog, "or “Mom, I want a…, ”are common words that parents may hear from their children more than once. However, there are many arguments for and against children owning pets.
②The first argument that supports pet ownership by children is that they are good company. When children come home from school, pets are always there to greet them. They love children and always love to play. As a result, children won't be lonely. They will also help to keep children active as they will need to be walked and played with every day.
③ ▲ Pets need to be looked after and be taken care of every day. Children will learn different skills that they can use later in life. For example, washing and feeding pets are important skills to learn. Learning these responsibilities will make sure that children will be able to look after themselves, and possibly their children one day.
④On the other hand, some pets can be dangerous. Some dogs, for example, may hurt others, and children may become afraid of animals as a result of this happening to them. Cats also look very soft, but they do have very sharp claws(爪子). If they are treated in the wrong way, cats can use their claws to scratch.
⑤Besides, pets require a great deal of care. Many pets need showers, exercise and so on. As a result of this, children. may neglect their studies because they are too busy worrying about their pet and its health.
⑥ A further argument against pet ownership is that pets are costly; buying food and caring them is expensive. Finally, the cost of owning one falls on parents, and as a result, children don't fully understand the responsibility of having one.
⑦ In short, there are many arguments for and against pet ownership. Pets help to keep children company, fit, and they also help them to learn new responsibilities. However, pets can be dangerous, they require a lot of care, and they cost a lot of money to be taken care of properly.
36. Which of the following sentences can be put into ▲ in paragraph 3
A. Some animals are friendly to children.
B. So their children can look after more people at school.
C. All in all, having a pet has a good influence on children.
D. Secondly, owning a pet encourages children to learn new responsibilities.
37. The underlined word "neglect "in paragraph 5 means _________________.
A. put an effort in B. pay little attention to
C. have no influence on D. show great interest in
38. Why are some people against owning a pet
A. Because children can learn some life skills.
B. Because children love to play with pets happily.
C. Because children will have a poorer sense of responsibility.
D. Because they care about children's safety, schoolwork and the cost.
39. What's the structure of the text
40. What's the text mainly about
A. How to take good care of a pet.
B. The problems of owning a pet.
C. The advantages of children owning a pet.
D. Different opinions on children owning a pet.
三、阅读理解七选五 根据短文内容, 从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 (10分)
Reading is a wonderful habit to develop, which can improve your memory. Start from small things to develop the habit by reading for just a few minutes a day. Reading books that you enjoy and want to continue reading is a great way to keep your habit and become a life-long reader. 41________
Find time to read every day. It may be just 5 to 10 minutes, but open a book at least once a day. Try to connect your reading habit with something else you do every day. 42 ________ Reading before bed is also a great way to develop your reading habit. If you travel a lot, read on the plane, bus or train instead of watching a movie or scrolling through social media.
43__________ If you're not interested in the book that you're reading, it can make reading seem like a chore. But, if you really like what you're reading, you won't want to put the book down and reading will be fun.
44_________ Keep a book with you at all times so you can read during any free time you have. If the bus is running late or if you're standing in line or waiting to meet up with a friend, open your book and read.
Set reading goals. Set a goal to read a certain number of books each year and do your best to stick to it. 45________ You could also set a goal to read all the books from a certain book list. The reading goals will help remind you to read every day. Achieving a reading goal is extremely satisfying and will make reading even more fun.
A. Join a book club. B. Read books that interest you. C. Carry a book with you everywhere. D. For example, read while you eat or have a cup of tea. E. Here are some useful ways to develop the habit of reading. F. You can also share what you have read with friends and family. G. You can start with 5 or 10 books, or try your best to read 100 books.
四 、补全对话 阅读对话, 从每题A、B、C、D 四个选项中, 选出一个最佳答案完成对话。(5分)
A:Hi, Brian. Great to see you again.
B:Hey, Jane! You won't believe who I saw yesterday.
A: 46________________
B:Miss Molly, our primary school teacher.
A:Wow, really 47 _____________
B:Me too. She's a great teacher.
A: 48 ______________ I love the way she taught.
B:Yeah, she never directly handed us answers. It was fun.
A: 49 She treated us like her own children.
B:Yeah. Shall we go back to our primary school and visit her next week
A:That's a great idea. 50 ______________
46. A. How's it going B. How old are you
C. What's this D. Who was it
47. A. I miss her so much. B. She is tall.
C. He's listening to music. D. I played basketball.
48. A. She likes pandas. B. I agree with you.
C. They join a club. D. We can swim well.
49. A. I feel really thankful to her. B. It's on Monday.
C. I ride my bike to school. D. I have two sisters.
50. A. How about next Friday B. What did you see there
C. Whose book is it D. How often do you exercise
五 、完形填空 阅读短文, 从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中, 选出一个能填入文章中相
应空白处的最佳答案。(15分)
Peng Jingxuan, a 26-year-old Chinese girl, is now studying in a music university in Paris. While learning 51 , she is also working at spreading traditional Chinese. 52 to the world. She can often be 53 on French streets, wearing a silk Han Dynasty-style dress and playing the guzheng to passers-by.
Born in 1995, Peng began to learn the guzheng 54 she was seven years old. After arriving in 55 in late 2017, she saw many people do street performances, but few of them knew about 56 music. So she decided to play the guzheng on the streets.
Peng made her first performance in front of a theater in October, 2018. “I was very 57 at that time, but a lot of people said they enjoyed my performance, "Peng said. Then she started to 58 during weekends and holidays. After being asked plenty of times by local people about the guzheng, Peng now carries a book that explains the 59 to foreigners. Later, she posted her first video of playing the guzheng online and it spread 60 . From then on, Peng has posted many videos of her street performances. The videos have got many likes and made her a very popular guzheng artist. She has millions of 61 on the Internet now.
More and more people show great 62 in the guzheng after watching Peng's performances. “People come to me and. 63 me for the beauty of the guzheng and the music. Every time they ask me which 64 the guzheng comes from, I am very happy to tell them it's from China. ”Peng feels she has more responsibility(责任) to spread traditional culture.
“What is national is universal. I hope to play a 65 role in making Chinese music known by the world. ”said Peng.
51. A. abroad B. inside C. instead D. outside
52. A. culture B. food C. history D. festival
53. A. took B. found C. brought D. sent
54. A. if B. though C. when D. so
55. A. Australia B. China C. Africa D. France
56. A. American B. Canadian C. Chinese D. Russian
57. A. excited B. nervous C. bored D. angry
58. A. paint B. perform C. check D. repair
59. A. instrument B. card C. color D. movie
60. A. quickly B. luckily C. slowly D. carefully
61. A. teachers B. fans C. drivers D. students
62. A. habit B. interest C. ability D. part
63. A. hate B. draw C. praise D. fight
64. A. village B. city C. state D. country
65. A. thinner B. smaller C. worse D. bigger
六 、阅读填空 阅读下面短文, 在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
(15分)
I'm Wang Jun. Every morning, I run by the seaside near 66________ (I) home. I always see a young man there. He walks on the beach and 67______ (look) for something. This morning, I stopped running and 68 __________(walk ) to him. “Hello! I see you here every morning. What are you doing ”I asked.
“I 69________ (take)away the stones on the turtles(海龟). There are always some baby turtles under the stones. The stones can stop them from going to the sea, 70_______ I come to help these turtles every morning, "he replied.
“It's really kind of you. But do you think you can make a difference After all, you can't help all baby turtles under the stones, "I said.
He smiled and said, “When I see them 71_______ (get) out of trouble, I feel so happy. It's my own way of making a difference. ”Then he took away a stone beside him. A baby turtle went towards the sea 72________ (quick). He looked at the turtle and went on, "At least it's. 73________(meaning) to this turtle. ”
I thought about his words in 74_______(silent). It's true that we can't change the whole world at once. But we can help one person, one animal, or one thing at a time. If everyone can do something good, it 75____________ (make)a big difference.
七、书面表达(共两节, 满分35分)
第一节 情境运用 根据所提供的图片, 用一个完整的句子提问或应答。(10分)
76. A: ______________________
B:They are 50 yuan.
77. A: ________________________
B:Oh, it's sunny.
78. A:Can you come to my party on Saturday
B:I'm afraid not. _____________________________.
79.
A:What were you doing at seven yesterday morning
B: ________________________________.
80. A: ______________________________________
B:Yes, he did. But now he doesn't need them.
第二节 写作(25分)
坚定文化自信，弘扬中华优秀传统文化，做中华文明的传播者是新时代中国青少 年的责任与使命。假如你是李华，近期， 一批外国朋友要到你所在的学校参观访问，请用英语写一篇发言稿，向他们介绍中华优秀传统文化。
内容包括：
1.欢迎朋友们的到来；
2. 总体介绍中国传统文化种类多、历史悠久；
3. 列举至少两个中国传统文化的例子，可以从其历史、特点、用途、或受欢迎程度等方面具体介绍。
要求：
1. 必须包含以上要点，可适当发挥；
2. 词数100词左右；
3. 文中不得出现真实的人名、校名等相关信息。
Dear friends,
______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Thanks for your listening.

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