资源简介

河西区 2023-2024 学年度九年级结课质量调查
英 语 试 卷
本试卷分为第Ⅰ卷(选择题)、第Ⅱ卷(非选择题) 两部分。第Ⅰ卷为第1页至第9页,第Ⅱ卷为第 10 页至第12页。试卷满分 120分。考试时间 100 分钟。
答卷前，请你务必将自己的学校、姓名、准考证号填写在“答题卡”上，并在规定位置粘贴考试用条形码。答题时，务必将答案涂写在“答题卡”上，答案答在试卷上无效。考试结束后，请上交“答题卡”。
祝考试顺利！
第Ⅰ卷
注意事项：
1 .每题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把“答题卡”上对应题目的答案标号的信息点涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号的信息点。
2 . 本卷共五大题, 共80分。
一、听力理解(本大题共20小题，每小题1分，共 20分)
A) 在下列每小题内，你将听到一个或两个句子并看到供选择的A、B、C三幅图画。找出与你所听句子内容相匹配的图画。
1.
2.
3.
4.
B) 下面你将听到十组对话，每组对话都有一个问题。根据对话内容，从每组所给的A、B、C三个选项中找出能回答所提问题的最佳选项。
5. What are they talking about
A. The PE class. B. A basketball match. C. Their favourite team.
6. Where does the conversation happen
A. In a bookstore. B. In a hotel. C. In a zoo.
7. What's the weather like now
A. It's snowing. B. It's raining. C. It's sunny.
8. How does the woman usually go to work
A. By bus. B. On foot. C. By bike.
9. What does the woman want
A. computer. B. Books about English. C. Books about computers.
10. What kind of music does the boy like best
A. Traditional music. B. Rap. C. Pop music.
11. What does the girl dream about
A. Going to Australia. B. Eating pizza in Italy.C. Boating in Italy.
12. How long has Mike been in England
A. For two weeks. B. For four weeks. C. For six weeks.
13. What is Lucy going to do in Hong Kong
A. To have a holiday.
B. To take part in a competition.
C. To take lessons.
14. What does Wu Dong want to be
A. A volunteer. B. A greener person. C. A reporter.
C) 听下面长对话或独白。每段长对话或独白后都有几个问题，从题中所给的A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。
听下面一段材料，回答第15 至第17题。
15. Where are the two speakers
A. At the train station. B. At the bus station. C. At the airport.
16. When did the man go to the city last time
A. Ten years ago. B. Eight years ago. C. Five years ago.
17. How many people can the waiting hall hold
A.500. B. 50,000. C.5,000.
听下面一段材料，回答第18至第20题。
18. What was Li Hong afraid to do in the English classes
A. Listen to tape. B. Answer questions. C. Write compositions.
19. When did Li Hong begin to show interest in English
A. Five years ago. B. At the age of 16. C. After going to middle school.
20. How did Li Hong learn English in her free time
A. By reading English stories.
B. By listening to English songs.
C. By going to the English corner.
二、单项填空(本大题共 15 小题, 每小题 1 分, 共 15 分)
从下列每小题所给的 A 、B 、C 、D 四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
21. There is old piano in corner of the living room.
A. an;the B. an; 不填 C. a;the D. a;a
22.—How do you study for a test
—I study asking the teacher help.
A. by; for B. of; with C. by;to D. with;for
23.—Would you like tea or coffee
— . I am not thirsty.
A. None B. Neither C. Either D. Both
24.—Do you have Linda’s I want to post her a card.
——Sorry, I don't know. She moved to another place.
A. number B. email C. address D. age
25. Our village becomes th an before because of"Beautiful Villages" project.
A. cheaper B. longer C. cleaner D. warmer
26.—Is English spoken in Singapore
—Yes, and Chinese is spoken by people there, too.
A. clearly B. quietly C. easily D. widely
27. We should making a noise in the library.
A. avoid B. prefer C. practise D. enjoy
28. Lang Ping is a symbol of courage and success, and we her.
A. come from B. stand for
C. take pride in D. get ready for
29. Lisa is a popular monitor. She her classmates and teachers.
A. takes part in B. gets on well with
C. gets into trouble with D. keeps clear of
30.— will our school have the Open Day
—In a week, I suppose.
A. How much B. How far C. How soon D. How long
31. You should turn off the lights you leave the room.
A. until B. before C. although D. so
32. Yesterday I basketball with my classmates. We had a good time.
A. will play B. play C. played D. has played
33. To provide children with better education, more schools in our city next year.
A. will build B. are built C. have built D. will be built
34. This famous saying "When I walk along with two others, they may serve me as my teachers" tells us .
A. how should we treat people
B. who we can learn from
C. what did we say in public
D. why we need teachers
35.—I didn't do well in the writing competition.
— . Keep practising and you will do better next time.
A. No way B. Best wishes C. Cheer up D. Well done
50. The reading may come from .
A. a textbook B. a storybook C. a science fiction D. the Internet
B
Many years ago, on my first day of middle school, one of my roommates turned to me for help. He took a bottle of water out of his bag. I opened it for him easily, and he thanked me. But I felt quite shy when he said thanks to me.
A week later, we started to receive military training(军训). We needed to gather at 6:30 a.m. every day. However, I was still in the bed at 6:00 on the first day. My roommate woke me up and I really thanked him. Luckily, neither of us was late for that day's training. Later, I had a talk with him. "Perhaps we don't have to say thanks to each other so often because we have become real friends." I said. He thought over my words and nodded (点头) .
Over the next three years, we continued to help each other, but we almost never said thank you. For many years, I didn't think it was necessary to say thank you out loud. I also felt embarrassed(尴尬的) after I had been thanked for offering someone just a little bit of help.
My attitude(态度) towards saying thanks didn't change until I helped a group of kids. It was a tiring walk when I was on my way home after a day's class. Some little kids threw the ball onto the tree by accident while playing football. They asked me for help, so I did. Then those kids said"Thank you" one by one with big smiles on their faces when I handed the ball to them. I was surprised, but it really made me feel warm at that moment. I realized the importance of expressing thanks from then on.
Showing thanks is a polite way for a conversation. It will let the other side know that you're thankful for his or her action. So next time, when you feel thankful, express your thanks bravely.
51. How did the writer feel when his roommate thanked him
A. Happy. B. Proud. C. Shy. D. Warm.
52. Why didn't the writer often say thanks to his roommate
A. Because he never said thanks.
B. Because he thought real friends needn't say thanks.
C. Because he thought the help was too little to say thanks.
D. Because he thought saying thanks made him embarrassed.
53. What changed the writer's attitude towards saying thanks
A. The advice of the teacher.
B. The help of his roommate.
C. The influence of his parents.
D. The thanks from the little kids.
54. In which order is the text written
A. Space. B. Time. C. Persons. D. Opinions.
55. What is the best title for the text
A. Say thank you aloud.
B. Ask questions actively.
C. Offer help to others.
D. Learn to make changes.
C
April 23 is known as World Book Day. The idea of setting a day to encourage reading came out from UNESCO(联合国教科文组织) in 1995. In fact, it started long before that in Spain.In 1922, Spanish writer Vicente Clavel Andres suggested the idea as a way to honor the famous writer Miguel de Cervantes. Four years later, the first celebration took place on October7, Cervantes' birthday. In 1930, it was moved to April 23, the date of his death.
Every year from 2001, one city around the world is chosen to be the UNESCO World Book Capital for a year. The task of the city is to carry out activities to encourage "a culture of reading and spreading its value in all ages in and out of the country."
Though no Chinese cities have been chosen as the World Book Capital so far, a recent national survey shows a steady(稳定的) rise in reading as a habit in China. According to the survey, each Chinese adult read an average of 4.78 printed books and 3.33 e-books in 2022, both a bit higher than the figures from 2021. Besides, listening to audio books(有声读物) was another popular habit, with 35.5 percent of adults saying they were used to listening to them.
Reading books gives people the chance to look into different worlds and meet new people, both real and imagined. Ancient Chinese believed in the saying, "Read ten thousand books and travel ten thousand miles." Reading is a way to learn from the past, understand the world, and get life wisdom(智慧). So make every day World Book Day!
56. When did Spain first hold a celebration to honor Cervantes
A. In1922. B. ln1926. C. In1930. D. In1995.
57. What should a World Book Capital city do
A. Help sell books to people of all ages.
B. Spread UNESCO's value.
C. Organize readers to visit the city.
D. Carry out reading activities.
三、完形填空(本大题共 10 小题, 每小题 1 分, 共 10 分)
阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后从各题所给的 A 、B 、C 、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。
Lisa works in the dining hall of a primary school. Her job is to serve(服务) breakfast and lunch to teachers and 36 . Because Lisa has a hearing problem, the students weren't able to 37 with her effectively (有效地). They just pointed to the 38 they wanted. This year, however, things have changed a lot. It all started with Betty, a new teacher at the school.
Betty has learned sign language (手语) 39 three years. One day, she started a conversation in sign language with Lisa in the dining hall. The students there stopped eating and 40 the sign language conversation with interest.
The next day, Betty asked 41 students, "Would you like to learn how to 42 your hands to‘talk’to Lisa "Everyone in the class said yes. She then began teaching the students some 43 ways to say hello and how to order(点餐) food.
The head teacher of the school heard about this. 44 he decided that the whole school should learn some sign language. Now, all the people at the school are learning sign language 45 . And Lisa is feeling so loved at work!
36. A. students B. parents C. cooks D. people
37. A. work B. check C. communicate D. listen
38. A. chalk B. food C. money D. hall
39. A. after B. of C. for D. by
40. A. watched B. guided C. finished D. talked
41. A. my B. your C. her D. their
42. A. pull B. use C. wash D. turn
43. A. easy B. noisy C. sweet D. difficult
44. A. Or B. And C. But D. Instead
45. A. early B. angrily C. actively D. carelessly
四、阅读理解(本大题共 15 小题, 每小题 2 分, 共 30 分)
阅读下面的材料，从每小题所给的 A 、B 、C 、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Welcometowww.
The Underwater Museum Time:5-10 July Age:8-18 Ticket: 50 You can enjoy fishes in different colours. There are also excellent dolphin shows. If you are brave enough, have a try to swim underwater to see the sea life clearly. Buy some gifts for your family if necessary. The Museum of Movies Time:16-21 July Age:8-15 Ticket: 20 This is a museum about movies and cameras. It has very old cameras and you can learn a lot about the history of them. To relax, you may watch famous movies from all over the world.
The China(瓷器) Museum of the Song dynasty Time:3-8 August Age:12-18 Ticket: free More than 120 china pieces from ancient China are on show here. You can make your clay(陶土) art works in person at a very good e and have fun with your friends! It is open every day except Monday. Science and Technology Museum Time:23-28 August Age: over 6 Ticket: free You may learn something about the space and increase your science knowledge. You can experience wonderful activities such as VR games, driving games, recycling games and so on. Children under 12 must be with at least one adult.
Would you like to join us this summer vacation Here are tours of four amazing museums.You can not only enjoy your life, but also learn something interesting.
46. Jenny is a 7-year-old girl. Which museum can she visit
A. The Underwater Museum.
B. The Museum of Movies.
C. The China Museum of the Song dynasty.
D. Science and Technology Museum.
47. If a boy has an interest in old cameras, he can go to the museum on .
A. 6 July B.5 August C. 18 July D. 24 August
48. Helen wants to visit The Underwater Museum with her classmate Sally. How much do they have to pay
A. 100. B. 50. C. 20. D. 150.
49. At Science and Technology Museum, you can .
A. make clay art pieces
B. swim underwater
C. experience VR games
D. watch movies
58. According to the survey, how many books each Chinese adult read in 2022
A.3.33 printed books and 4.78 e-books.
B.4.78 printed books and 3.33 e-books.
C.3.55 printed books and 4.87 e-books.
D. 4.87 printed books and 3.55 e-books.
59. What does the word“them”in Paragraph 3 refer to
A. Printed books. B. E-books. C. Audio books. D. Cultural books.
60. What does the last paragraph mainly tell us
A. The meaning of a Chinese saying.
B. The importance of reading books.
C. The method of getting life wisdom.
D. The way of looking into different worlds.
五、补全对话(本大题共 5 小题，每小题 1 分，共 5 分)
根据对话内容，从方框内选择恰当的句子将对话补充完整(选项中有两项是多余的)。A：Hi, Mike. 61
B: I got the first prize in the speaking competition.
A:Congratulations! 62
B:I felt very nervous at first but soon I was OK.
A: What will you do
B: 63 I can't wait to do it.
A: 64
B:I think so. By the way, my cousin is flying toBeijing. Would you like to go to the airport to meet him
A:I'd love to. 65
B: He is tall with short hair. He will wear glasses for the trip.
A: OK, I think I'll recognize(认出) him soon.
B:I hope so.
第Ⅱ卷
六、完成句子(本大题共 5 小题, 每小题 2 分, 共 10 分)
根据所给中文意思完成句子，每空限填一词。
66.车及时停下来，孩子们都安全了。
The car stopped and the children were safe.
67. 我要去罗马出差。
I'll go to Rome .
68. 别把废纸扔了，我们可以回收并再次利用它。
Don't the waste paper. We can recycle and reuse it.
69. 与诗歌相比较，故事通常会有较长的章节。
poems, stories usually have longer passages.
70. 你可以在大的或小的组内学习，这取决于你的选择。
You can work in small or large groups. It you r choice.
七、任务型阅读(本大题共 5 小题，每小题 1 分，共 5 分)
阅读下面短文，根据短文内容完成句子。
The poetic dance drama The Journey of a Legendary Landscape Painting(《只此青绿》) has been considered the most amazing program at the CCTV 2022 Spring Festival Gala.
It was inspired by an ancient Chinese painting, A Panorama of Mountains and Rivers( 《千里江山图》) by Wang Ximeng. Wang was a painter from the Song Dynasty. He spent half a year finishing the 11.9-meter long painting when he was only 18. Now it is at the Palace Museum. It has been on show to the public only four times since 1949. The painting is a record of people's lives and the natural scenery including mountains, rivers and villages of that time.
The poetic dance drama tells the story of a researcher from the Palace Museum. He has spent all his time studying the painting. We can follow him to the moment when Wang was about to finish the art work.“It is not to tell people how great the painting is, but to spread traditional Chinese culture,”says Xie Suhao, who plays the role of the researcher in the poetic dance drama.
Since last August, the poetic dance drama has been played more than 50 times in over 18cities in China.“I hope our dance can be performed on more and bigger stages to show more people all over the world a beautiful China with a mix of old and new,”says Meng Qingyang,the lead dancer of the poetic dance drama.
71. The poetic dance drama inspired by .
72. It took Wang Ximeng to finish the painting.
73. The researcher from the Palace Museum has spent all his time .
74. According to Xie Suhao, the aim of the poetic dance drama is to .
75. The writer wants to show that the poetic dance drama is in China in the last paragraph.
八、综合填空(本大题共 10 小题, 每小题 1 分, 共 10 分)
根据短文内容及首字母提示，填写所缺单词，使短文意思完整。每空限填一词。
“Olivia, love is simple. You don't have to do much to make someone happy.”That was what my mother said to me when I was a child. Over a year ago, I had a chance. My good friend Kaylee told me about her t 76 to a small town called Gary, and how it was a life-changing experience. I made up my m 77 to go there myself.
When I told my parents about the decision, they didn't a 78 at first. They said Ididn't know much about the place. They were worried that it was not s 79 for me to go there. Thankfully, after I explained my plan to them in detail, they said yes.
When our group arrived in Gary, I noticed how d 80 the town was from where I lived.There were few stores or restaurants in the town; most had closed. So you would be very1 81 if you could find a place to buy food or drinks. Houses were built on small hills.Many of them had broken doors or windows. My job was to help the local people to r 82 houses. The work days were long and hot, but it was really good to see the houses taking on a new look day by day.
The children there were also different. They seemed to enjoy every moment in life though they were poor. The smallest things would make these kids happy. I couldn't f 83 any words to describe their joy when they received an ice-cream, a ball or even a kiss. The community was like a big f 84 . Everyone knew each other and was there when someone needed help.
I am so glad that I had this unforgettable experience. I truly learned the m 85 of what my mother said. You don't need to do much to make a difference to others' lives.
九、书面表达 (本大题共15分)
86. 下周学校将举行一次有关个人成长主题的经验交流会，分享同学们成长的过程中遇到的一些 "小烦恼"，说明自身的调节与朋友的建议可以帮助你成为更好的自己。请你根据以下要点和要求用英语写一篇发言稿。
要点提示：
(1) 简要介绍你自己 (如年龄、爱好……)；
(2) 讲述你曾经遇到的问题及感受(如学习中的、同学间的、家庭里的……)；
(3) 分享解决问题的方法 (如多沟通、听音乐、参与活动……)。
要求：
(1) 词数:80-100个(开头已经给出, 不计入总词数);
(2) 根据要点提示，可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
(3) 文中不得出现真实的姓名和校名。
Hello, everyone! I'm a student in Class 2, Grade 9.
河西区2023-2024学年度九年级结课质量调查
评分说明： 英语试题参考答案及评分标准
1. 各题均按参考答案及评分标准评分。2. 若考生的非选择题答案与参考答案不完全相同但言之有理，可酌情评分，但不得超过该题所分配的分数。
一、听力(本大题共 20小题，每小题1分，共20分)
1-5 BCAAB 6-10ABBCA 11-15BCBBA 16-20ACBCA
二、单选(本大题共 15 小题，每小题1分，共15分)
21-25 AABCC 26-30 DACBC 31-35 BCDBC
三、完型(本大题共 10小题，每小题1分，共10分)
36-40 ACBCA 41-45CBABC
四、阅读 (本大题共 15 小题, 每小题1分, 共15分)
46-50 DCACD 51-55 CBDBA 56-60BDBCB
五、补全对话(本大题共5 小题，每小题1分，共 5分)
61-65 FDAGC
六、完成句子(本大题共5 小题，每小题2分，共 10分)
66. in time 67. on business 68. throw away
pared with/to 70. depends on
七、任务型阅读(本大题共5 小题，每小题1分，共5分)
71. an ancient Chinese painting
72. half a year/ six months
73. studying the painting
74. spread traditional Chinese culture
75. popular/ successful
八、综合填空(本大题共 10 小题，每小题1分，共 10分)
76. trip 77. mind 78. agree 79. safe 80. different
81. lucky 82. repair 83. find 84. family 85. meaning
九、书面表达(本大题共 15分)86.
Hello, everyone! I'm a student in Class 2, Grade 9. I am 15 years old. I like doing sports. But I used to hate doing sports. It was my mother who changed me.
Once I spent too much watching TV and playing computer games. So my grades were worse and worse. My mother noticed my changes. She had a long conversation with me.She said that spending too much on them was bad for my eyes. She advised me to relax by listening to music and doing sports. She asked me to run for an hour in the morning every day. A few days later, I found running could make me healthy and happy. I could do everything better.
In my opinion, when you meet some difficulties, you can share them with your parents or teachers. They will give you some useful advice.
各档次的给分范围和要求：
第五档：(13~15 分) 能写明全部或绝大部分内容要点； 语言基本无误； 行文连贯，表达清楚。
第四档：(10~12分) 能写明全部或大部分内容要点； 语言有少量错误； 行文基本连贯，表达基本清楚。
第三档：(7~9分) 能写明大部分内容要点； 语言有较多错误； 尚能达意。
第二档：(4~6分) 只能写出少部分内容要点； 语言错误很多，只有个别句子可读。
第一档：(0~3分) 只能写出与所要求内容有关的一些单词。

展开更多......

收起↑