资源简介

备战 2024 年初中中考英语模拟卷七（浙江专用）
考生须知：
1.本试卷满分为 120 分，考试时间为 100 分钟。
2.答题前，在答题纸写上学校、姓名和准考证号等信息。
3.必须在答题纸的对应答题位置上答题，写在其他地方无效。
4.做听力时， 先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后， 你将有一分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题
纸上。
5.考试结束后，试题卷和答题纸一并上交。
第Ⅰ卷
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分 20 分）
第一节 （共 5 小题，每小题 1 分，满分 5 分）
听下面 5 段对话。每段对话后有一个小题， 从题中所给的 A 、B 、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项， 并标在 试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后， 你都有 10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读
一遍。
1. Whose model plane is it
A. Alice’s. B. Lucy’s. C. Alan’s.
2. What’s wrong with Mary
A. She has a toothache. B. She has a headache. C. She has a stomachache.
3. How often does Kathy play badminton
A. Once a week. B. Twice a week. C. Every day.
4. What are the speakers going to do in the park
A. Play a game. B. Read a book. C. Ride a bike.
5. Where does the conversation probably take place
A. In a shop. B. In a restaurant. C. In a library.
第二节 （共 10 小题，每小题 1.5 分，满分 15 分）
听下面 3 段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题， 从题中所给的 A 、B 、C 三个选项中选出最佳 选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你有时间阅读各小题，每小题 5 秒钟。听完后，各
小题将给出 5 秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段较长对话，回答两个小题。
6. Where will the speakers go
A. To the supermarket. B. To the cinema. C. To the gym.
7. When will the speakers meet
A. At 6:00. B. At 6:15. C. At 6:30.
听下面一段较长对话，回答三个小题。
8. What can the woman help with
A. Cleaning up the parks. B. Working for old people. C. Teaching kids to read.
9. When is the interview
A. In May. B. In June. C. In July.
10. Where is the center
A. On Main Street. B. Next to the library. C. Across from the bank.
听独白，从题中所给的 A 、B 、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项，回答问题。
11. Who found the birdwatchers
A. A reporter. B. A farmer. C. An expert.
12. Why did the birdwatchers get lost
A. Because of following a gold fish.
B. Because of following a golden bird.
C. Because of following a big dog.
13. What did the birdwatchers survive on
A. Plants and animals. B. Bread and milk. C. Plants and berries.
14. How were the birdwatchers when they were found
A. Hungry and tired. B. Tired and asleep. C. Hungry but excited.
15. Are there any golden eagles in England
A. Yes, there are some. B. Yes, but there’s only one. C. No, there isn’t any.
第二部分 阅读理解 (共两节，满分 40 分)
第一节 (共 15 小题，每小题 2 分，满分 30 分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的四个选项(A 、B 、C 和 D)中选出最佳选项。
A
It’s important to keep safe while doing outdoor sports. We want you to have a nice experience without
accidents. To learn about your awareness of outdoor sports safety, we’d like you to fill out this survey.
Please tick( √ ) or write down your answers in the blanks.
Part I Basic information 1. You are a √ Boy □Girl 2. You study in □Middle School √ High School □University Part Ⅱ Personal safety during outdoor sports 1. What kind of outdoor sport do you enjoy most □Hiking √ Running □Climbing □Surfing Others 2. Where do you usually do your favourite outdoor sport □Park □Beach □Mountain □Lake Others Country road. 3. Who do you prefer to do outdoor sports with √ Alone □With others □Either 4. Have you ever got hurt in outdoor sports □Yes, badly hurt √ Yes, not serious □Never 5. What do you do to keep safe （multiple choice） √ Wear proper clothes √ Make a specific plan √ Warm up before starting □Keep in touch with others Others Others 6. If you get hurt during outdoor sports, what will you do I will keep calm and give first aid to myself.
16. What’s the questionnaire about
A. Health problems. B. Accidents in school.
C. Learning experiences. D. Outdoor sports safety.
17. Who is the questionnaire for
A. Students. B. Teachers. C. Drivers. D. Doctors.
18. According to the questionnaire, the person who completed it .
A. likes hiking best B. prepares well before cycling
C. often hurts badly D. waits for help after getting hurt
B
“Volunteering makes you look at the world differently. You can also see how little things can change a
person’s life for the better, which makes everyone a better person.” Mason, a volunteer said.
National Volunteer Week started in 1974 and is held every April. It is a time to thank volunteers for their achievements. It is also a perfect opportunity（机会） to encourage others to take their first step toward becoming a volunteer. Making the decision to take the first step can be the biggest problem, because they often wonder if they will be able to meet the organization’s expectations. Some people fear not knowing anyone else in the group. Not
having enough time also prevents some from sharing their abilities.
The following tips can help if you have some of these worries.
★ Start out slowly, don’t add too much pressure. Even a few hours a month can make a big difference in
someone’s life.
★ Choose an organization with the same interests and common values.
★ Take part in a training meeting for new volunteers, even if it is not asked.
★ Work with a veteran volunteer. He volunteered a lot, he can help you increase the confidence （自信）
and completely understand the organization’s expectations.
★ Invite a friend or family member to serve. It is a good experience to volunteer with them.
★ Finally, it is most important to enjoy the volunteer experience and to remember that not all volunteer
experiences are perfect. If one experience doesn’t work, don’t give up and you’ll surely find the right opportunity.
Spend some time on volunteer work and you will see great changes in people’s lives. As Mason discovered
during his volunteer experience, “little things can change a person’s life for the better.”
19. What can volunteering help people with
A. Making a decision. B. Seeing the world clearly.
C. Thanking other people. D. Making people’s life better.
20. Which of the following can help people to be a volunteer
A. Start out quickly. B. Organize a training meeting.
C. Invite a friend to be with them. D. Join in a group with different values.
21. What does the underlined word “veteran” in Paragraph 7 mean
A. experienced B. strict C. young D. polite
22. Why does the author write this passage
A. To encourage people to start their volunteering.
B. To tell people to make changes in their lives.
C. To introduce how to make achievements in volunteering.
D. To tell people how to keep on volunteering.
C
In many movies, there are sometimes characters who have chips(芯片) put in their heads. This might come
true very soon.
Neuralink, US businessman Elon Musk’s company, has developed a chip that was implanted into the head of a
pig. On Aug 28, Musk did a livestream on how it works by showing the signal transmission.
The chip is the size of a coin. It has over 3,000 electrodes(电极) that can monitor about 1000 neurons(神经元). So in the livestream while the pig was breathing, people could see its brain activity on a large screen. If this technology is used on humans, after the chip picks up signals in the brain, these signals will be sent to nearby
computers or APPs and then be translated into actions, such as moving an arm or leg.
It’s not a dream for people to use a small chip to change their life with their minds. For now the goal is to use it to help disabled people. They could control artificial limbs(假肢) with their minds and move around more easily.
People could even use the technology to play video games or drive cars.
However, there is still a long way to make these things happen. The chip can send signals from about 500 neurons in the pig’s brain. However, the human brain has 80 billion neurons. Also, it is not safe to implant the chip
yet, it could harm the brain. Hackers(黑客) could also hack into the chip and control others’ thoughts and feelings.
There is another problem, too. When humans are connected to computers, are they still humans
23 ．What was Musk’s livestreaming about
A ．How the chip works in many movies. B ．How the chip in the pig’s head works.
C ．How to implant a chip into a pig’s head. D ．How to use a chip to control a pig.
24 ．What is the right process of signal transmission according to Paragraph 3
A ．brain→chip→computer B ．brain→action→computer
C ．chip→brain→action D ．chip→computer→brain
25 ．What does Paragraph 4 mainly tell us about the technology
A ．The ability that it has to control brain activity. B ．The effects that it will have on people’s life.
C ．The problems that it might bring to humans. D ．The way that it works.
26 ．How does the writer feel about the development of the chip according to the last paragraph
A ．Hopeful. B ．Excited. C ．Pleased. D ．Doubtful.
D
I first met Paul Newman in 1968, when George Roy Hill, the director of Butch Cassidy and the Sundance Kid, introduced us in New York City. When the studio didn’t want me for the film—it wanted somebody as well known
as Paul—he stood up for me. I don’t know how many people would have done that; they would have listened to
their agents or the studio powers.
The friendship that grew out of the experience of making that film and The Sting four years later had its root in
the fact that although there was an age difference, we both came from a tradition of theater and live TV. We were
respectful of craft (技艺) and focused on digging into the characters we were going to play. Both of us had the
qualities and virtues that are typical of American actors: humorous, aggressive, and making fun of each other—but
always with an underlying affection. Those were also at the core (核心) of our relationship off the screen.
We shared the brief that if you’re fortunate enough to have success, you should put something back—he with his Newman’s Own food and his Hole in the Wall camps for kids who are seriously ill, and me with Sundance and the institute and the festival. Paul and I didn’t see each other all that regularly, but sharing that brought us together.
We supported each other financially and by showing up at events.
I last saw him a few months ago. He’d been in and out of the hospital. He and I both knew what the deal was,
and we didn’t talk about it. Ours was a relationship that didn’t need a lot of words.
27. Why was the studio unwilling to give the role to author at first
A. Paul Newman wanted it. B. The studio powers didn’t like his agent.
C. He wasn’t famous enough. D. The director recommended someone else.
28. Why did Paul and the author have a lasting friendship
A. They were of the same age. B. They worked in the same theater. C. They were both good actors. D. They have similar charactertics.
29. What does the underlined word “that” in paragraph 3 refer to
A. Their belief. B. Their care for children.
C. Their success. D. Their support for each other.
30. What is the author’s purpose in writing the test
A. To show his love of films. B. To remember a friend.
C. To introduce a new movie. D. To share his acting experience.
第二节（共 5 小题，每小题 2 分，满分 10 分）
阅读下面材料，从方框中所给的 A-E 五个选项中选择正确的选项（其中一项是多余选项），将其序号
填入第 31-34 小题，并回答第 35 小题。
Years ago, green was simply a color. Now it’s much more! In the 1970s, some people began to worry about what we did to mother Earth. As a result, green thinking was born. It is a big idea that touches governments all over
the world, and a small idea that touches us all in our homes.
Architects ( 建筑师) and building engineers are thinking about how to make buildings greener. These days,
green architecture is becoming more and more popular. 31
We need to be very careful about the materials (材料) we use. It is better to choose renewable materials-those that the Earth replaces quickly. 32 Also, for those materials that are not renewable, we need to use them
as little as possible. Our mother Earth has offered us many other possibilities, such as wind and solar power.
Planners must think about the needs of those who will spend time in green buildings. In many cases, green energy is more comfortable for people. 33 Natural lighting is often kinder to the eyes than electric
lighting. In fact, many people who live or work in green buildings report feeling happier and healthier.
34 For example, they might try to use as little land as possible. If a building covers a large area, there will be less space for plants and trees. They also have to think about cutting down waste and pollution while
the building work is going on.
Although green buildings are more expensive to build, they are less expensive to run.
A ．Or we can reuse some materials. B ．It might take you some time to do it. C ．To understand it, we have to look at three different areas. D ．For example, natural wind brings people cleaner and fresher air. E ．Architects must consider what the building will do to the environment.
35. Do you like green buildings ，why？ (不超过 15 词)
第三部分 英语知识运用（共两节，满分 25 分）
第一节 完形填空（共 15 小题，每小题 1 分，满分 15 分）
通读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后在各题所给的四个选项（A 、B 、C 和 D）中选出一个最佳选项。
Two years ago, Holmes decided to take part in volunteer work. He 36 to work as a barber（理发师） .
He chose to spend Saturdays giving free haircuts to 37 kids so that they’d look cool on that first day of
classes. But he had a game time. “The kids should receive their free haircut by having to 38 a book to me,”
Holmes said.
The idea was so 39 that he continued it the first Tuesday of every month for the next two years.
Five-to-ten-year-old boys would sit in the barber chair with a book, and read 40 . If they had difficulty
reading it, Holmes was there to 41 . After the haircut, they’d review the book—just like in school, only more
42 .
___
“These poor kids are 43 to learn,” said Holmes. “They want to open their minds.” Holmes, who’s
married and has two sons aged three and four, believes that not every 44 has the time to read with their kids.
“You have kids, you’reworking two jobs, and then sitting down and 45 them read is the last thing you
have time to do. You have to clean the house or cook dinner. So I say bring your kids in and let them read to
46 .”
____
“There was a seven-year-old boy who tried his best to read his book 47 , stuttering（口吃） over words 48 he didn’t have a stutter,” said Holmes. He let the boy take the book home and practice. “When
the child came back a few days later, he read it with no problem. That 49 me,” Holmes said.
“The world today is not so peaceful,” he said, “but the barbershop is a 50 place for the kids. They
can read books and get help from free reading.”
36. A. imagined B. refused C. preferred D. volunteered
37. A. poor B. quiet C. busy D. lazy
38. A. write B. lend C. read D. give
39. A. boring B. popular C. hard D. easy
40. A. secretly B. slowly C. loudly D. nervously
41. A. cut B. move C. stop D. help
42. A. fun B. time C. work D. money
43. A. afraid B. sorry C. quiet D. excited
44. A. teacher B. parent C. student D. worker
45. A. asking for B. looking at C. listening to D. finding out
46. A. me B. you C. us D. them
47. A. difficultly B. differently C. carefully D. honestly
48. A. but B. even though C. because D. so that
49. A. prevented B. worried C. disappointed D. encouraged
50. A. interesting B. safe C. noisy D. small
第 II 卷
注意：将答案写在答题纸上。写在本试卷上无效。
第三部分 英语知识运用（共两节，满分 25 分）
第二节（共 10 小题，每小题 1 分，满分 10 分）
阅读下面材料， 在空白处填入适当的内容（1 个单词） 或括号内单词的正确形式。将答案填写在答题纸
的相应位置。
The Dragon Dance is a kind of traditional dance in China. It has been spread all over China and to the whole
world. Now it is a symbol in 51 (China) culture.
52 (tradition), dragons were made of wood and cloth. However, in the modern times, dragons are much 53 (light) than before because they are made of materials like plastics. The length 54 dragons can be various, and people believe that the longer the dragon is, the more luck it will bring. A small organization cannot run a very long dragon 55 it requires great human power, much money and special
skills.
The Dragon Dance 56 (appear) during the Han Dynasty. During the Song Dynasty, it became 57 popular activity like the Lion Dance. People could often see it during some important 58 (festival). In the Qing Dynasty, the Dragon Dance Team of Fuzhou 59 (invite) to put on a show in Beijing. The emperors of ancient China spoke highly of it, and they considered 60 (they) as the dragons.
第四部分 词汇运用（共两节，满分 15 分）
第一节 （共 5 小题，每小题 1 分，满分 5 分）
用方框中所给词语的适当形式填空，每词仅用一次。
unless draw above hero oversleep
61.Have you your own mind maps yet
62.Look, there is a lot of smoke the trees.
63.I worked late last night, so I this morning.
64.We should respect angels(天使) in white; they are .
65.We'll certainly feel bad we communicate with our parents.
第二节 （共 10 小题，每小题 1 分，满分 10 分）
阅读下面短文，然后根据括号内所给汉语意思或首字母写出单词的正确形式（每空一词）。
In a small store, Li Mei sat on a chair with a pot of boiling sugar beside her. She used a 66 (勺子) to get some sugar from the pot and moved it quickly. Soon, a lively dragon 67 (出现) in front of our eyes.
She was presenting a form of 68 (传统的) Chinese art called sugar painting.
Li Mei has been working as a sugar painter for 69 (十九) years. Her family has been making sugar paintings since several generations ago. After graduating, Li Mei tried various kinds of jobs 70 (积极),
but finally, she chose to return to sugar painting.
Her sugar painting is always popular with kids. Most of the sugar painting patterns are 71 ( 叶子) and animals. However, encouraged by kids, so far, Li Mei 72 (添加) a lot of new patterns to the sugar paintings, such as cartoon characters. “ 73 (交流) with kids makes me feel happy. When I’m with them, I’m also like a kid.” she said with a laugh. “ 74 (没有) them, I can’t be so creative.” She also performs
sugar painting shows at home and even abroad, such as other 75 (亚洲的) and European countries.
Li Mei’s sugar painting can give sweetness and happiness to others. She hopes she will be successful one day.
第五部分 书面表达（共 1 小题，满分 20 分）
做家务其实可以给孩子的成长带来许多好处。假设你是李明， 你的英国笔友 Tony 来信告诉你他的母亲
总是让他做家务，但他很讨厌做家务。请你给他写一封回信。
内容包括:
(1)你的母亲是否会让你做家务 你常做哪些家务
(2)做家务的好处(至少两点)
(3)希望他能从做家务中得到乐趣。
注意：（1）短文必须包含写作要求的所有信息，并适当发挥。
（2）文中不得出现与你身份相关的信息
（3）词数： 90～100，短文开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数。
Dear Tony,
I am sorry to hear that you hate doing chores although your mom requires you to.
Looking forward to hearing from you.
Yours
Li Ming备战 2024 年初中中考英语模拟卷七（浙江专用）答案
考生须知：
1.本试卷满分为 120 分，考试时间为 100 分钟。
2.答题前，在答题纸写上学校、姓名和准考证号等信息。
3.必须在答题纸的对应答题位置上答题，写在其他地方无效。
4.做听力时， 先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后， 你将有一分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题
纸上。
5.考试结束后，试题卷和答题纸一并上交。
第Ⅰ卷
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分 20 分）
第一节 （共 5 小题，每小题 1 分，满分 5 分）
1.B2.A3.B4.C5.B
第二节 （共 5 小题，每小题 1.5 分，满分 15 分）
6. B 7. C8. A 9. C 10. B11. B 12. B 13. C 14. A 15. C
第二部分 阅读理解 (共两节，满分 40 分)
第一节 (共 15 小题，每小题 2 分，满分 30 分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的四个选项(A 、B 、C 和 D)中选出最佳选项。
A
【答案】 16. D 17. A 18. B
B
【答案】 19. D 20. C 21. A 22. A
C
【答案】23 ．B 24 ．A 25 ．B 26 ．D
D
【答案】27. C 28. D 29. A 30. B
第二节（共 5 小题，每小题 2 分，满分 10 分）
阅读下面材料，从方框中所给的 A-E 五个选项中选择正确的选项（其中一项是多余选项），将其序号
填入第 31-34 小题，并回答第 35 小题。
【答案】31 ．C 32 ．A 33 ．D 34 ．E35.言之有理即可
第三部分 英语知识运用（共两节，满分 25 分）
第一节 完形填空（共 15 小题，每小题 1 分，满分 15 分）
【答案】36. D 37. A 38. C 39. B 40. C 41. D 42. A 43. D 44. B 45. C
46. A 47. C 48. B 49. D 50. B
第 II 卷
注意：将答案写在答题纸上。写在本试卷上无效。
第三部分 英语知识运用（共两节，满分 25 分）
第二节（共 10 小题，每小题 1 分，满分 10 分）
51 ．Chinese 52 ．Traditionally 53 ．lighter 54 ．of 55 ．because 56 ．appeared 57 ．a
58 ．festivals 59 ．was invited 60 ．themselves
第四部分 词汇运用（共两节，满分 15 分）
第一节 （共 5 小题，每小题 1 分，满分 5 分）
61.drawn 62.above63.overslept 64.heroes 65.unless
第二节 （共 10 小题，每小题 1 分，满分 10 分）
【答案】66. spoon 67. appeared 68. traditional 69. nineteen 70. actively 71. leaves 72.
has added municating 74. Without 75. Asian
第五部分 书面表达（共 1 小题，满分 20 分）
Dear Tony,
I’m sorry to hear that you hate doing chores although your mom requires you to. My mom also often asks me to help with the housework, but I’m glad to do that. Usually I cook dinner for the family as my parents work late,
and I wash the dishes after dinner. Sometimes I take care of the garden if my mom is busy.
I really enjoy doing the housework because it helps me to learn some life skills and be independent. Besides, a study shows that doing chores can help improve our brainpower, and I feel so. I do better in math than before.
What’s more, my mom has more time to relax herself.
All in all, I think doing chores is good for us. I hope you can enjoy it.
Looking forward to hearing from you.
Yours
Li Ming

展开更多......

收起↑