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2024届山西省运城市高三下学期第二次模拟调研测试
英语
试卷类型：A
考生注意：
1．本试卷分选择题和非选择题两部分。满分150分，考试时间120分钟。
2．答题前，考生务必用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔将密封线内项目填写清楚。
3．考生作答时，请将答案答在答题卡上。选择题每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑；非选择题请用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔在答题卡上各题的答题区域内作答，超出答题区域书写的答案无效，在试题卷、草稿纸上作答无效。
4．本卷命题范围：高考范围。
第一部分听力（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1．What does the woman want to buy
A．Two bunches of flowers. B．Three bags of nuts. C．Four small cakes.
2．What are the speakers mainly talking about
A．A weather report. B．What to wear for the man. C．Tips on buying proper clothes.
3．What will the man buy for his parents this month
A．A washing machine. B．A television. C．A refrigerator.
4．Who saw people waving from the boat
A．Colin. B．Dave. C．Jane.
5．Why does the woman come to the company
A．To meet someone. B．To make an apology. C．To cancel a schedule.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6．What does the man say about the food in the restaurant
A．It’s expensive. B．It’s unhealthy. C．It’s delicious.
7．What is the man’s request
A．To taste the woman’s food. B．To order some carrot sticks.
C．To have burgers without salad.
听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。
8．When will the woman set off for her trip
A．In two days. B．In three weeks. C．In four months.
9．What makes the woman worried most
A．Stopping off in the United States.
B．Encountering wild animals at night.
C．Getting on with her fellow travelers.
听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。
10．What does the woman think causes the traffic problem in London
A．The heavy rain. B．A football match. C．The road under repair.
11．Where will the man probably go
A．The airport. B．The bus station. C．The grocery store.
12．What is the relationship between the speakers
A．Husband and wife. B．Father and daughter. C．Brother and sister.
听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。
13．Who is Peter
A．The man’s friend. B．The woman’s leader. C．The speakers’ client.
14．Which artist does the man like best
A．Botticelli. B．Rembrandt. C．Van Gogh.
15．What is the man’s budget
A．Less than $1 million. B．About $50 million. C．Over $450 million.
16．Where does the conversation take place
A．In the first gallery space. B．At the entrance of a gallery.
C．At the exit of a gallery.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17．Who is the speaker speaking to
A．His team players. B．His former associates. C．His team managers.
18．What has the team’s performance been like so far
A．Satisfactory. B．Disappointing. C．Excellent.
19．What does the speaker expect the listeners to do
A．Reflect on the past. B．Ignore personal talent. C．Believe in themselves.
20．Why does the speaker quote his old manager’s words
A．To look back on his achievements.
B．To demonstrate the games to come soon.
C．To encourage the listeners to do their best.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Four Best Music Festivals Worth Attending This Year
Big Ears
When: March 21-24
Where: Knoxville, Tennessee
Named for the open-minded approach to listening it asks attendees to have, Big Ears regularly hosts contemporary classical music performances along with adventurous rock, jazz, metal and electronic music. For four days, Big Ears transforms the city into a paradise（天堂） for music of all kinds, taking over music halls, clubs and churches, all of which are centrally located and within walking distance.
Ultra Music Festival
When: March 22-24
Where: Miami, Florida
Considered as one of the best electric music events in the world, Ultra Music Festival features electronic dance music（EDM）, techno and house music. Attendees are referred to as “Ultranauts” and come from around the globe to party in downtown Miami. This year’s line-up includes Calvin Harris, Afrojack, David Guetta and Zeds Dead.
Jazz & Heritage Festival
When: April 25-May 5
Where: New Orleans, Louisiana
Held annually since 1970, Jazz Fest is also one of the biggest. Nearly half a million people show up to take in a massive bill of jazz, blues and rock music. While most festivals are content to book the same handful of reunited alt-rock（另类摇滚） bands making the rounds, Jazz Fest always takes pride in hall-of-fame headliners. This year’s line-up goes well beyond jazz with names like the Foo Fighters, Chris Stapleton, Hozier and Earth, Wind & Fire.
SXSW
When: March 8—16
Where: Austin, Texas
The first SXSW was held in 1987 and since then the festival has grown both in terms of attendance—by some counts, 280,000 people attended the festival in 2019—and in terms of influence: SXSW is Austin’s biggest profit-producing event and one of the most important gatherings on the nation’s entertainment calendar. The event is broken down into several parts, including SXSW Music, SXSW Film and SXSW Comedy.
21．What can you do at the festival of Big Ears
A．Listen to various kinds of music. B．Enjoy comedy shows every day.
C．Watch classical films in a church. D．Explore a paradise for nature lovers.
22．Where should you go to attend one of the world’s best electric music events
A．Knoxville, Tennessee. B．Miami, Florida.
C．New Orleans, Louisiana. D．Austin, Texas.
23．Which festival lasts the longest this year
A．Big Ears. B．Ultra Music Festival. C．Jazz &Heritage Festival. D．SXSW.
B
29-year-old Dim Nang Lao is a mother of a six-year-old boy in a mountainous and remote region in northeastern Cambodia. Like many other parents in her village who marry and have children at a young age, she used to have little knowledge about how she should look after her child to ensure he can grow healthy and strong and reach his full potential.
But everything changed when she received Nurturing Care Parenting training from village volunteers. Nurturing Care Parenting aims to help every child get the best possible start in life, including through healthcare, early education and play. It also helps parents avoid violence or punishment to discipline their children.
“I learned a lot from Nurturing Care Parenting,” Dim Nang Lao says. “I learned how to care for my child’s health, nutrition and education. I learned how to talk to him when he is wrong and comfort him when he is sad. I learned that a child is a white paper. If I hit him, he will learn those actions from me.”
Dim Nang Lao is one of many who have benefited from the training. According to a local official named Ang Chenda, the training has reached five villages and has improved the lives of many families. She says she welcomes the training as many parents in the area did not fully understand what they needed to do to fully support their children’s needs and development and often spent most of their time earning an income through farm work.
“After the training, their understanding of raising young children is far different,” Ang Chenda says. “They are more aware of the importance of caring for their children. They take their children to the health center for check-ups, issue birth certificates for their children and send their children to school. They also reduce violence and use positive discipline instead.”
Dim Nang Lao says she is grateful for the opportunity to learn about positive parenting and apply it in her daily life. “I hope that more parents in our country can receive this training and benefit from it as I do,” she adds.
24．What can we learn about many parents in Dim Nang Lao’s village
A．They cared little about their kids’ physical health.
B．They got married and had children at an old age.
C．They couldn’t make a living through farm work.
D．They didn’t know how to care for their kids well.
25．What does Dim Nang Lao focus on in paragraph 3
A．What she learned from her son. B．Her son’s change over the time.
C．What she gained from the training. D．The goal of the parenting program.
26．Why is Ang Chenda mentioned in the text
A．To speak highly of Nurturing Care Parenting.
B．To introduce a harmonious parent-child relationship.
C．To show the popularity of the training outside villages.
D．To highlight the positive influence of parenting on kids.
27．What does Dim Nang Lao expect of Nurturing Care Parenting
A．It will train more than parents. B．It will be promoted extensively.
C．It will offer jobs to more parents. D．It will be well received worldwide.
C
While growing up in California in the 1980s, Winifred Frick never saw a condor（秃鹰） in the wild. The population of North America’s largest bird, Gymnogyps californianus, had declined to nearly zero by 1987 because so many were shot, poisoned or captured.
The few remaining wild condors were brought into zoos in the early 1980s as part of a captive breeding（圈养）program. Gradually, a small group of the birds reproduced, and eventually many of the condors were released back into the wild.
Today, Frick, a conservation biologist, and her 14-year-old son can admire condors flying in the sky while hiking along the Pacific coast. Nearly 350 of the species, whose wings can span nearly 3 meters, once again fly over parts of California and Arizona.
The condors’ happy ending is thanks in large part to the U. S. Endangered Species Act, or ESA, enacted on December 28, 1973．The act currently protects more than 2,300 species. These include more than 900 plants and at least 160 marine species.
“When it comes to preventing plants and animals from going extinct, the ESA is one of the most powerful laws we have,” says Frick. “The ESA is about protecting wildlife for our future generations.”
If a species is thought to be threatened or endangered with going extinct, it goes through a strict process to determine whether it should be added to the endangered species list. Once a species makes the list, government agencies create a plan to help it recover. This might mean describing ways to rest ore its habitat or identifying ways to halt threats to a species. For instance, being listed under the act makes it illegal to use, kill or catch any of these organisms. It also bans the import of any endangered foreign animals, as well as any meat or products made from them.
The ESA has written plenty of success stories over the past half-century. So far, the act has helped keep 99 percent of species under its protection from extinction.
28．Why did the zoos keep wild condors captive in the 1980s
A．To relocate their natural habitat. B．To restore the condor population.
C．To make way for hiking activities. D．To honor a conservation biologist.
29．What are the figures in paragraph 4 intended to tell us
A．The survival rate of the condors is high. B．Many species are faced with extinction.
C．The ESA has been recognized by the public. D．The ESA contributes a lot to species protection.
30．What does the underlined word “halt” in paragraph 6 probably mean
A．Stop. B．Track. C．Transform. D．Replace.
31．What’s the best title for the text
A．The ESA Has Saved Many Species B．Quantities of Species Are Dying Out
C．The ESA Shares the Story of Condors D．Wild Animals Are in Need of Protection
D
The introduction of artificial intelligence（AI） is a significant part of the digital transformation bringing challenges and changes to the job descriptions among management. A study shows that integrating AI systems into service teams increases demands on middle management in the financial services field.
Interviewed in the study were 25 experienced managers employed by a leading Scandinavian financial services company. AI systems have been intensely integrated into the tasks and processes of the company in recent years.
The results showed that the integration of AI systems into service teams is a complex phenomenon, putting new demands on the work of middle management and requiring a balance d act in the face of new challenges.
“The productivity of work grows when routine tasks are passed on to AI. On the other hand, the fast pace of change makes work more demanding, and the integration of AI makes it necessary to learn new things constantly. Surprisingly, new kinds of routine work also increase, because the operations of AI need to be monitored and checked,” says Assistant Professor Jonna Koponen.
According to the results of the research, the social features of middle management also changed, because the AI systems used at work were seen either as technical tools or colleagues, depending on the type of AI that was used. Especially when more developed types of AI, such as chatting robots, were included in the AI systems, they were seen as colleagues.
Integrating AI also poses ethical（道德上的） challenges, and managers devoted more of their time to ethical considerations. For example, they were concerned about the fairness of decisions made by AI. Aspects observed in the study showed that managing service teams with integrated AI requires new skills and knowledge of middle management, such as technological understanding and skills, interactive skills and emotional intelligence, problem-solving skills, and the ability to manage and adapt to continuous change.
“AI systems cannot yet take over all human management in areas such as the motivation and inspiration of team members. This is why skills in interaction and empathy（同理心） should be emphasized when selecting new employees for managerial positions which emphasize the management of teams integrated with AI,” Koponen says.
32．What does the study find
A．AI becomes less popular in the service field. B．AI makes decisions more fairly than humans.
C．AI proves human management is unnecessary. D．AI makes middle management more demanding.
33．What’s Jonna Koponen’s attitude to integrating AI systems into service teams
A．Unmentioned. B．Opposed. C．Objective. D．Indifferent.
34．Which of the following shows Jonna Koponen’s opinion
A．AI can’t replace human mangers completely. B．Few managers in the service field are needed.
C．Employees for managerial positions dislike AI. D．AI devotes more time to ethical considerations.
35．What is the main idea of the text
A．The integration of AI into service teams is hard.
B．AI takes over human management in many fields.
C．AI and human managers are a perfect combination.
D．The application of AI influences middle management.
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Living in a city, you often see a group of runners emerge around a corner. They laugh and chat together as their running shoes rhythmically touch the pavement. 36 . Joining such a group club is great for runners. Here are some reasons to inspire you to become a member of it.
Get more motivation
When you run alone, it is harder to get out of the door and onto the pavement. There is often a convincing inner voice that whispers to you to simply stay at home! 37 . Your running friends will be looking forward to seeing you and will miss you if you do not show up.
Become a better runner
38 . Most clubs have coaches or trainers. Trainers can assist you in setting a pace and establishing realistic and achievable goals, and train you to be the best runner you can be. A coach will develop variety in running routes and content, making the whole workout so enjoyable that you may perform better without even realizing how much distance you covered.
39
When you are part of a club, you can make friends with those sharing the same passion. According to a fitness magazine, runners are known to be a friendly bunch! This offers a sense of belonging, and after a while, these new partners feel like a warm family and can become lifelong friends.
Feel safe
Most runners choose to run in fall or winter and this may mean going out on a dark evening. When running alone, it is harder to see the road and you may easily trip or fall due to the darkness. When in a group, you will be reminded of possible dangers and if there is an accident, people are there to help you. 40 .
A．Develop friendship
B．Become more friendly
C．These runners are often part of a running club
D．This can definitely give you a sense of security
E．When running in a group, you may hit your personal goals more quickly
F．However, being part of a group pushes you to participate in a running event
G．You get encouragement and protection from this group of runners that passed by
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节 （共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
When I was fifteen, I planned to start my business. But every time I wanted to try something new, I felt there was a 41 between two different versions of me: One wanted to 42 the world, while the other was 43 rejection.
Then I learned about “Rejection Therapy（治疗）”. Basically, the 44 is that you look for rejection and get rejected at something every day—finally, you no longer feel 45 .
Once, I thought, “What if I just 46 to teach a college class ” I went to University of Texas at Austin and knocked on a professor’s door and asked, “Can I teach your class ” I was rejected. Because I didn’t run, on the ninth try, the professor was very 47 . He carefully 48 my well-prepared materials for the 49 and said, “Cool! I’ll fit you in my curriculum（课程）.”
Three months later, when I finished teaching that class, I walked out crying with 50 . I was rejected many times, but I 51 got used to it. Then I faced it calmly and ultimately got myself 52 .
Honestly speaking, rejection 53 me a lot, so at first I ran away from it. However, when I began 54 it, I could turn it into the biggest 55 in my life.
41．A．feature B．link C．deal D．battle
42．A．change B．ignore C．destroy D．recall
43．A．open to B．sure about C．interested in D．afraid of
44．A．price B．excuse C．idea D．news
45．A．embarrassed B．bored C．tired D．confused
46．A．agree B．decline C．ask D．pretend
47．A．grateful B．impressed C．envious D．regretful
48．A．broke down B．looked at C．put aside D．prepared for
49．A．products B．answers C．tests D．lessons
50．A．excitement B．sympathy C．forgiveness D．respect
51．A．suddenly B．gradually C．barely D．casually
52．A．followed B．challenged C．accepted D．assessed
53．A．taught B．helped C．bothered D．understood
54．A．avoiding B．interrupting C．forgetting D．welcoming
55．A．gift B．issue C．event D．record
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Seated by the Tonghui River that runs across southern Beijing, Banbidian village 56 （take） on a quite different look of quietness and is visited by few people. But 57 （actual） it is not far—about 15 minutes’ drive from the capital city’s central business district 58 high-rises are built everywhere.
A major reason is that Banbidian used to have factories which 59 （remove） later, leaving empty workshops and compounds, and also the village is where several railways run through.
Now, people in the village and from art universities are working together 60 （bring） dynamism back to Banbidian. The latest effort is to inaugurate（开创） Art BBD—Tonghui Riverside Public Art Season, which will start in late April and run through August.
In cooperation with famous art schools in and outside Beijing, the village committee recently sent out an 61 （invite） to artists around the world, 62 （hope） that they could contribute their creativity to enriching Banbidian’s new landscapes. Submissions—works and public art plans—began 63 March 20 and lasts till April 15, and finalists will join other works to be displayed at several outdoor spots.
Art BBD was a cultural brand jointly 64 （launch） by Banbidian and the Central Academy of Fine Arts in 2019 to explore projects and activities that help to turn the village into 65 new destination of creativity.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
假定你是李华。你的新西兰好友Jack计划组织一个以“环保”为主题的活动，特发邮件向你征求建议。请你回复邮件，内容包括：
1．推荐一种活动形式；
2．说明理由。
注意：1．写作词数应为80个左右；
2．请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Dear Jack,
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节（满分25分）
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
Peter sat at the kitchen table, having breakfast. It had been another bad night for his baby sister, Lily, and his parents were arguing in the sitting room. He heard his mother mention Tom, an old man who lived in the forest. Peter often explored the forest and knew Mr. Tom was a kind herbalist（草药医生）. Was it true that he could help Lily Peter wouldn’t rest until he found it out.
After breakfast, Peter immediately set off. It was a short walk from his home to the forest’s edge. Peter was so focused on his thoughts of his sister that he didn’t notice the strange crying sounds in the distance until he got close enough. He followed the sounds until they led him to a cave.
A flashlight lit up suddenly in the cave, and Peter saw a little boy lying on the dirt-covered stone. Peter learned that the boy called Cliff came to this forest with his mother but ran off by himself. Cliff was injured and didn’t see his mother. Peter decided to take Cliff to Mr. Tom. When they saw Mr. Tom and told him everything, Mr. Tom treated the injury with a bandage（绷带） and helped contact Cliff’s mother over the radio.
Peter moved closer to look at Cliff’s bandaged ankle and felt a sense of relief. Then Peter turned to Mr. Tom and said, “Mr. Tom, my baby sister is very sick. I overheard Mom mention you, so I came out here today to ask you for help...”Before Peter finished his words, Mr. Tom said, “I had tried to help, but your sister needed to be sent to a big hospital and a lot of money...”Peter realized his parents had argued because they couldn’t afford Lily’s treatment.
Mr. Tom was trying to comfort Peter when someone knocked on the door. Mr. Tom opened it and saw a lady, who claimed herself as Cliff’s mother.
“It’s you!” Mr. Tom shouted excitedly.
“You’re a fan ” the lady said. “I came to this area to spend a holiday with my son. Thankfully, you have saved him. Where is he ”
注意：1．续写词数应为150个左右；
2．请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Mr. Tom nodded and led the lady to her son. ____________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
The next morning, in his bedroom, Peter was woken up by a joyful scream. ___________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
运城市2024年高三第二次模拟调研测试·英语
参考答案、提示及评分细则
听力部分录音稿
（Text 1）
M: Good morning, how may I help you today
W: Hello. I’d like three of those small cakes with the pink flowers on top ... actually make that four... and also two bags of nuts please.
（Text 2）
W: Grab a sweater and a raincoat before you go out, sweetheart. It’s cloud y now.
M: Oh, Helen. It feels like shorts and T-shirt weather to me! Plus, it’s not going to rain according to the weather report.
W: All right, if you say so, Jim.
（Text 3）
W: What will you do with your salary this time
M: I want to replace the electronics at my parents’ house. They need a new TV, so I’ll get them one this month. Last time it was the refrigerator. And before that, the washing machine.
（Text 4）
W: Colin, I think a boat is in trouble out in the bay. Jane says there are people waving from the boat and she thought she could hear shouts.
M: OK, I’ll tell Dave to get the boys together and we’ll sail out there.
（Text 5）
W: I’m meeting with the chief director of the company. Is she here
M: Not yet, sorry. The president and head of sales told me to send their regards to you. However, they’re both out today.
W: Oh, thanks. Well, I’ll reschedule my meeting.
（Text 6）
W: I love this place—the smell is incredible. What are you ordering
M: Nothing. I want to go home.
W: Don’t you like it here
M: It’s just not my kind of restaurant. They fry everything and the food is always oily.
W: But the burgers have lots of salad.
M: That doesn’t make it healthy! Not with the amount of fat in the meat, and don’t tell me I can order carrot sticks instead of chips because if I wanted carrots I’d go to the supermarket.
W: Wow. You really don’t like it here, do you Oh, here comes mine now... Mmm, it tastes so good.
M: Er...
W: Yes
M: Can I have a bite please
（Text 7）
W: Take a look at this. It’s where I’m going in four months.
M: Wow, South America, what an adventure you’ll have! It looks like you’ll be exploring Brazil.
W: Yes, mainly. I’ll be taking the route of the Amazon River—but the plane stops off in the USA first.
M: Oh, lovely, so you’ll have two days there before you continue your journey
W: That’s right. Then we fly into Peru where the Amazon adventure begins!
M: Are you nervous about meeting wild animals at night, and all those huge scary insects
W: Not really. I’m more worried about meeting the people I’m traveling with. I hope they’re friendly because the whole trip takes three weeks! That’s a long time to be stuck with someone you don’t get on well with! But mainly I’m really looking forward to the journey.
M: Well, good luck. I’m really envious!
（Text 8）
M: Margaret, why hasn’t Amy arrived yet She was supposed to be here an hour ago. Do you think she’s OK
W: Yes, she’s fine. She rang to say her bus had been delayed in London.
M: Ah, because of the weather, I suppose. I’ve never seen such heavy rain.
W: No, I don’t think the weather’s too bad down there. Apparently, there’s a very big football match taking place and the streets are packed with fans. I think it’s causing problems with transport.
M: I see. I hope Amy stayed away from all that.
W: Our daughter knows how to look after herself. Anyway, the delay will give me more time to prepare dinner. I thought I would have to hurry, but now I can take more time.
M: There you go. Every cloud has a silver lining. I might call the bus station and see what time her bus is due to arrive. I could drive there and collect her, so she doesn’t get caught in the rain.
（Text 9）
W: Here at Christie’s, we organize and sell some of the finest works of art on the planet. We’re well-known for the sale of a Leonardo da Vinci painting for over USD 450 million, but our company is more about tradition than profit.
M: Amazing. Thank you for taking the time to give me a tour.
W: We’re always glad to show our collection, especially to the visiting leaders of foreign countries. We believe that art is a way of celebrating the value of creative expression.
M: Wow, well said. It means a lot that you were referred to me by Peter, a close friend of mine.
W: Of course. Please, give him my regards—we’ve been close ever since I started working here.
M: Will do. Anyway, even the entrance room of this building is impressive.
W: We aim to make a strong first impression. Here you can see works from painters: Botticelli , Rembrandt and Basquiat. Is there any painter that you’re most fond of
M: Van Gogh—his painting Starry Night is an absolute favorite.
W: Unfortunately, the cost of his works would be more than 50 million dollars—does this price range suit you
M: Not now, unfortunately. Let’s keep the potential items under USD 1 million, for now.
W: Noted—onto the first gallery space.
M: Great. I can’t wait to see it.
（Text 10）
M: Hello and welcome, everybody. I’m Bob Kenyon and I will be responsible for this team’s progress from now on. I know some of you will be feeling quite nervous, so I’d just like to say a few words to clear the air. Before we start, I want you all to know that everybody here today is now being given a fresh start. Whatever happened previously will not affect how you are treated by me or by my associates. You are starting with a clean sheet. The second thing I want to impress on you is that you can and will win matches. I know you haven’t won many over the past few years. I don’t know the reason, and we certainly can’t be satisfied with that situation continuing. I have watched videos of you playing and I know that you have the talent to win. You just need to believe that and you really need to believe in yourselves. I’ll say that once again. You are talented players and you have what it takes to succeed. I want you to think about something my old team manager told me when I was a player too many years ago. He said, “Whether you think you can, or whether you think you can’t, you’re right.” The choice is up to you. So get out there and win some games.
参考答案
1～5 CBBCA 6～10 BACCB 11～15 BAACA 16～20 BABCC
【答案与解析】
本文是一篇应用文。文章主要介绍了今年值得参加的四个音乐节的相关信息。
21．A 细节理解题。根据Big Ears部分“...Big Ears regularly hosts contemporary classic al music performances along with adventurous rock, jazz, metal and electronic music.”及“... Big Ears transform s the city into a paradise（天堂） for music of all kinds...”可知，在 Big Ears，你可以听到各种类型的音乐。
22．B 细节理解题。根据Ultra Music Festival部分“Considered as one of the best electric music events in the world, Ultra Music Festival features electronic dance music（EDM）, tech no and house music.”及“Where: Miami, Florida”可知，你应该前往弗洛里达州的迈阿密参加全世界最好的电子音乐活动之一。
23．C 细节理解题。根据四个节日的时间信息介绍可知，Jazz &Heritage Festival今年持续的时间最久。
【答案与解析】
本文是一篇记叙文。文章主要以Dim Nang Lao的生活为切入点，介绍了一个培训乡村父母如何更好地培养孩子的项目。
24．D 细节理解题。根据第一段“Like many other parents in her village who marry and have children at a young age, she used to have little knowledge about how she should look after her child to ensure he can grow healthy and strong and re ach his full potential.”可知，在这个村子里，有很多像Dim Nang Lao一样的父母，他们过去不知道如何好好照顾自己的孩子。A项的表述过于绝对，乡村的父母并不是不在意孩子的身体健康，故A项可排除。
25．C 细节理解题。根据第三段的内容，尤其是“‘I learned a lot from Nurturing Care Parenting,’”及第二段“But everything changed when she received Nurturing Care Parenting training from village volunteers.”可知，Dim Nang Lao主要介绍了培训带给她的收获。
26．A 推理判断题。根据第四、五段的内容可知，Ang Chenda主要谈及Nurturing Care Parenting给村里的父母带来的改变，他们更加重视孩子教育，培养孩子的方法也改进了，因此Ang Chenda很支持这个项目。由此可推断，作者是借 Ang Chenda之口称赞这个项目。排除C项的关键信息是outside villages。
27．B 推理判断题。根据最后一段“‘I hope that more parents in our country can receive this training and benefit from it as I do,’ she adds.”可知，Dim Nang Lao希望全国各地更多的父母能够接受培训，像她一样受益。由此可推断，Dim Nang Lao希望这个培训项目能够得到广泛推广。文中并没有提到Dim Nang Lao希望这个项目可以培训除父母以外的人，故A项是夸大理解，可排除。排除D项的关键信息是worldwide，因为文章只提到Dim Nang Lao希望这个项目能够使全国更多的父母受益。
【答案与解析】
本文是一篇说明文。文章主要介绍了《濒危物种法》拯救了很多物种。
28.B 推理判断题。根据第二段可知，20世纪80年代初，作为圈养计划的一部分，剩下的少数野生秃鹰被带进了动物园。渐渐地，一小群秃鹰繁殖了，最终许多秃鹰被释放回野外。由此可推断，动物园当时圈养秃鹰是为了恢复其数量。
29．D 推理判断题。根据第四段“The act currently protects more than 2,300 species. These include more than 900 plants and upwards of 160 marine species.”可知，《濒危物种法》保护了2300多种物种。由此可推断，《濒危物种法》在物种保护方面贡献很大。C项属于过度推理，可排除。
30．A 词义猜测题。根据画线词后提到的一系列禁令可推断，画线词的意思与Stop的意思最接近。画线词所在句的句意为“这可能意味着描述恢复其栖息地的方法，或确定阻止对一个物种的威胁的方法”。
31．A 标题判断题。通读全文，尤其是第四段和最后一段可知，本文的主要内容是：由于《濒危物种法》的颁布，很多濒临灭绝的物种得到了保护，它们的数量也在不断恢复。故A项“《濒危物种法》拯救了很多物种”最适合作本文的标题。
【答案与解析】
本文是一篇说明文。文章主要介绍了将人工智能系统融合到金融服务业对中层管理产生的影响。
32．D 细节理解题。根据第一段“A study shows that integrating AI systems into service teams increases demands on middle management in the financial services field.”、第三段及倒数第二段可知，研究表明，人工智能的运用让中层管理工作的要求变得更高。
33．C 观点态度题。根据第四段的内容可知，Jonna Koponen认为将人工智能系统运用到服务团队中有利有弊。由此可推断，Jonna Koponen的态度是“客观的”。
34．A 细节理解题。根据最后一段“‘AI systems cannot yet take over all human management in areas such as the motivation and inspiration of team members.’”可知，Jonna Koponen认为人工智能无法完全取代人类管理层的工作人员。
35.D 主旨大意题。通读全文，尤其是第一段可知，本文主要介绍了将人工智能系统融合到金融服务业对中层管理产生的影响。
【答案与解析】
本文是一篇说明文。文章主要介绍了加入跑步俱乐部的几个好处。
36．C 根据空前“…you often see a group of runners...”及空后“Joining such a group club…”可知，C项“这些跑步者通常是跑步俱乐部的成员”符合，起承前启后的作用。干扰项G项中的 this group of runners看似与空前的内容相关，但G项中的 protection与空前内容无关，可排除。
37.F 空前主要介绍一个人跑步会有很多阻碍，故该空应该是一个转折，该空应该谈及加入跑步俱乐部的益处，故F项“然而，成为跑步团体的一员会督促你参加跑步活动”符合。该空后也进一步介绍为什么身为团体的一员会有参加跑步活动的动力。
38．E 根据本段的小标题Become a better runner及空后“…assist you in setting a pace and establishing realistic and achievable goals, and train you to be the best runner you can be... you may perform better without even realizing how much distance you covered.”可知，E项“在跟团跑步时，你可能会更快地完成你的个人目标”符合。
39．A 根据本段的关键信息“... you can make friends... can become lifelong friends.”可知，A项“建立友谊”适合作本段的小标题。“友好”只是本段的一个小信息点，故干扰项B项可排除。
40．D 根据本段的小标题 Feel safe 及空前“When in a group, you will be reminded of possible dangers and if there is an accident, people are there to help you.”可知，D项“这绝对可以给你一种安全感”符合。D项中的 This指代空前的一整句话。
【答案与解析】
本文是一篇夹叙夹议文。作者通过自己的生活经历告诉我们：要学会接受拒绝。
41．D 根据空后“...One wanted to ______ the world, while the other was ______ rejection.”可知，此处指有两个“我”在斗争（battle）。
42．A 根据空前“When I was fifteen, I planned to start my business. But every time I wanted to try something new...”可推断，此处指想要改变（change）世界。
43．D 根据空前及下一段的第一句话可推断，另一个“我”害怕（afraid of）被拒绝。open to对……持开放态度；sure about确信；interested in对……感兴趣。
44．C 根据空前及空后的内容可知，此处指这种疗法的基本思路（idea）。
45．A 根据常识及空前介绍的疗法可知，当你多次面对拒绝后可能就不再感到尴尬了（embarrassed）。
46．C 根据空后“I went to University of Texas at Austin and knocked on a professor’s door and asked, ‘Can I teach your class ’”可知，“我”请求（ask）去大学里授课。
47．B “我”没有因为被拒绝而放弃，所以教授对“我”的印象是非常深刻的（impressed）。
48．B 他仔细地看了（looked at）“我”精心准备的教学（lessons）素材并说道：“太酷了！我会把你安排到我的教学里。”
49．D 见上题解析。
50．A “我”完成自己所教的课程后，激动地（excitement）哭了起来。
51．B “我”被拒绝过很多次，但“我”渐渐（gradually）习惯了。然后“我”冷静地面对，最终让自己被接受（accepted）。
52．C 见上题解析。
53．C 根据空后“...so at first I ran away from it.”可推断，被拒绝让“我”很烦恼（bothered）。
54．D 然而，当“我”开始欢迎（welcoming）它时，“我”就可以把它变成“我”生命中最好的馈赠（gift）。
55．A 见上题解析。
【答案与解析】
本文是一篇说明文。文章主要介绍了坐落在贯穿北京南部的通惠河边的半壁店村的创新发展。
56．takes 考查时态和主谓一致。根据句意及空后并列的谓语部分is visited可知，此处用一般现在时，又因为主语是Banbidian village，故用所给动词的第三人称单数形式。
57．actually 考查词形转换。此处用所给形容词的副词修饰整个句子，作状语。
58．where 考查定语从句。分析句子成分可知，该空引导的是一个限制性定语从句，从句句意完整，先行词是district，表示地点，故此处用关系副词where。
59．were removed 考查动词的时态和语态。根据主句的谓语部分used to及时间状语 later可知，此处用一般过去时，又因为主语factories与动词remove是被动关系，故此处用一般过去时的被动语态。
60.to bring 考查非谓语动词。此处用所给动词的不定式作目的状语。
61．invitation 考查词形转换。根据空前的冠词an可知，此处用所给动词的名词invitation，作动词短语sent out的宾语。
62．hoping 考查非谓语动词。分析句子成分可知，该空用非谓语动词，动词hope与其逻辑主语the village committee存在主谓关系，故此处用所给动词的现在分词，作伴随状语。
63．on 考查介词。此处指在具体的某一天，故用介词on。
64．launched 考查非谓语动词。分析句子成分可知，该空用非谓语动词，动词launch与其逻辑主语a cultural brand存在动宾关系，故此处用所给动词的过去分词；launched by Banbidian and the Central Academy of Fine Arts in 2019是过去分词短语作后置定语。
65．a 考查冠词。此处是泛指，又因为 new 以辅音音素开头，故此处用不定冠词a。
第一节
One possible version:
Dear Jack,
I’m glad to hear you plan to organize an activity with the theme of environmental protection. And I’m willing to offer my advice.
I think a bicycle race, which can encourage people to travel in a green way, fits in well with the theme. Biking is familiar to a majority of people, so the race will definitely attract many participants, contributing to spreading the awareness of environmental protection. Moreover, it’s such a good way to keep fit that more people will follow the green practice.
I hope my idea is helpful and that your event will be a great success.
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节
One possible version:
Mr. Tom nodded and led the lady to her son. The lady hurried to Cliff’s side and hugged him. Mr. Tom told the lady that it was Peter who took her injured son to him for treatment and help. The lady turned to Peter and expressed her gratitude. Peter looked at Cliff’s mother and felt she looked very familiar. However, he had no mood for further exploration. Peter thought his parents might get worried, so he said goodbye and headed home. Looking at Cliff and his mother, Mr. Tom knew he could do something for Peter.
The next morning, in his bedroom, Peter was worken up by a joyful scream. He went downstairs and found his parents dancing excitedly. Peter asked what was going on. Peter’s mother rushed to hug Peter and his father lifted him in the air. Then his mother showed him a letter and said, “This is from a lady, who is a famous movie star and mentions you helped her so n yesterday. It says Mr. Tom told her about Lily’s illness. She’s offered to pay for Lily’s treatment. We’ll be able to take Lily to a big hospital!”

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