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2023-2024学年度下学期松山区中考模拟试题 (二)
九年级英语
温馨提示：
1、本试卷共12页, 满分 150分, 考试时间120分钟。
2、答题前考生务必将姓名、座位号、考号填写在试卷和答题卡的指定位置，并仔细阅读答题卡上的“注意事项”。
3.答题时，请将答案填涂在答题卡指定位置，写在本试卷上视为无效。
4.考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
一、听力测试。 (共20小题, 每小题1.5分,满分30分)
第一节 听句子 听下面五个句子，从每小题所给的三幅图中选出与句子内容相符的选项。(每个句子读两遍)
九年级下学期中考模拟试题 第1页 共12页
第二节 听对话 听下面七段对话，从每小题所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案，每段对话读两遍)
听第1段对话， 回答第6小题。
6. Whose ruler may the boy borrow
A. Amy's. B. Tim's. C. Jecy's.
听第2 段对话，回第7小题。
7. What's Peter's favorite subject
A. Geography B. Biology C. History
听第3段对话，回答第8小题。
8. How old is Wendy now
A.5 B.10 C.15
听第4段对话，回答第9小题。
9. Where is Jerry getting news from
A. On the Internet B. On the iPad C. On TV.
听第5 段对话，回答第10、11小题
10. How will they go to the museum
A. By bus. B. By bike. C. On foot.
11. When will they meet
A. At 8:45. B. At9:00. C. At 9:15.
听第6段对话，回答第12、13小题
12. What game are they going to watch
A. A soccer game.
B. A volleyball game.
C. A basketball game.
13. Which class does Lucy think will win the game
A. Class 5. B. Class 6 C. Class 7.
听第7段对话，回答第14、15小题。
14. When will Mrs. Brown stay in Sunshine Hotel
A. In March. B. In April. C. In May.
15. What kind of rooms would Mrs. Brown like to book
A. Standard rooms with single bed.
B. Standard rooms with double beds.
C. Standard rooms with three beds.
第三节 听短文 根据你所听到的短文内容，完成下面表格，每空填一词。 (短文读三遍)
九年级下学期中考模拟试题 第2页 共12页
A smart bus
What does it look like It looks like a _16_ It's about 12 meters long and it can carry _17_ passengers.
How is it It's very cute and _18_
What can it do It can drive by itself. It can _19_ your fingerprint to know who you are. It can call the police.
What is not allowed on it Food or _20_
二. 阅读理解 (共20个小题，每个小题2分，共40分)
第一节： 阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A，B，C，D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
Harbin Ice Festival 2024
Ever think of what Elsa's ice palace might look like in real life Ice stairs, ice walls, and ice towers When winter comes, Harbin turns into a world of ice and snow.
The yearly Harbin Ice Festival opens in early December 2023 and lasts for around 3months, till late February 2024.
What's New for Harbin Ice Festival
Every year, there's something new for the Ice Festival. This year, they built a huge Ferris Wheel(摩天轮) inside the park. Visitors will be able to ride on the Ferris Wheel and enjoy the ice palace in early 2024. The Wheel is colorfully li t up(亮灯) at night, shining high in the sky.
Yearly Time Line
Dates Activities
Early December Ice Harvest
December Building
Christmas period Fireworks Show
Jan.1,2024 New Year Parade(游行)
Feb.9 to Feb.16, 2024 Special Customs for the Spring Festival
CLICK HERE and Book Now! Tickets for Harbin Ice Festival are on sale now!
*Dec.5,2023-Feb.4,2024:￥170/person( half price for children)
*Feb.5,2024-Feb.29,2024:￥230/person(half price for children )
21. When can you visit the Ice Festival 2024
A. Nov.10,2023. B. Dec.10,2024. C. Feb.5,2024. D. Mar.15,2024.
22. How can you book tickets
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A. By making a call. B. By writing a letter,
C. By going to the ticket office. D. By visiting the Internet.
23. If your parents go with your younger sister and you on Jan.5, how much should you pay
A.￥425. B.￥510. C.￥575. D.￥680.
B
Xion g Chuanfa is a 34-year-old man. He can blow a lively tiger out of sugar in just minutes. Kids look at him in surprise, thinking he is a“magician". Xion g has been blowing sugar figurines(吹糖人) for twenty years. Blowing sugar figurines is a Chinese traditional folk art with a history of over 600 years.
Every morning, Xiong prepares the sugar and drives to different markets to start his“magic show" around his city. He heats the sugar, pulls off a little to make a ball and blows it into different shapes ------ a rabbit, a monkey, and even Bing Dwen Dwen.
People, especially little kids, are interested in his skills. To make young people closer to the art, he also stops by university students are interested in the art. Among them,Simon, a foreign student, also wanted to make one sugar figurine by himself. However, he couldn't get the wanted shape though he tried several times.“It looks easy, but actually it's very difficult to have the skill."he said. Thanks to Xiong's help, Simon finally saw a horse coming out slowly.“I can't believe I can do this.” he said happily.
Xion g said that his family has passed down this art for four generations(代).“We will spend the rest of our lives helping pass on this skill.”Xiong said.
24. What can we learn from the text
A. Blowing sugar figurines is too difficult to learn.
B. Xiong Chuanfa is a real magician.
C. Xion g Chuanfa started to blow it when he was fourteen.
D. Before blowing sugar figurines, the sugar needs heating.
25. What does the underlined word“folk " mean in Chinese
A.现代的 B.民间的 C.失传的 D.流行的
26. What can we learn from Xiong's words
A. He is a kind man.
B. His family are interested in art.
C. Xion g Chuanfa will go on blowing sugar figurines.
D. Blowing sugar figurines can make lots of money.
27. Why does the writer give the example of Simon
A. To show it is difficult to learn to blow sugar figurines.
B. To show only foreigners are interested in the popular art.
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C. To show the art of blowing sugar figurines has a long history.
D. To show young people are good at learning to blow sugar figurines.
C
In public places, people often use body language to express their meanings. Waving and bowing are examples of body language. Different kinds of body language show different cultures in different countries.
In China, waving means greeting, but in Japan bowing is used. Sometimes this kind of body language is polite in one country, but it is not polite in another. We should pay attention to using it. In China, nodding your head shows you agree with someone, but in India, shaking your head from side to side shows agreement. In China, people hold hands as a sign of friendship, but people seldom hold hands in North America.
It is worth noting that different meanings of body language can also cause problems in understanding. Some people do not understand how to use thumb(拇指) correctly. Most people often show one thumb to praise someone or something. You can't raise your thumb when someone is in danger. In a basketball match, if the judge shows two thumbs, it means two players break the rules.
28. Which of the following is not body language
A. Smile. B. Waving. C. Bowing. D. Writing a letter.
29. How many kinds of body language are mentioned in the passage
A.5 B.6 C.7 D.8
30. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage
A. In a basketball match, you can show two thumbs to praise the players.
B. Different people use different kinds of body language.
C. Body language can show different cultures.
D. Different meanings of body language can solve the problems.
31. What's the main idea of this passage
A. Body language B. Body language and culture
C. Body language and countries D. Raise your thumbs
D
What's for dinner Maybe some chicken nuggets(鸡块). But this meat doesn't have to come from a farm. Scientists can make it in a lab! On June 21,2023, the U. S. Department of Agriculture(USDA) allowed lab-grown meat for sale in the United States.
Scientists make the meat with cells(细胞) from an animal. They put in vitamins, water,salt, and more. Then, the scientists let the cells grow. In the end, the product comes out looking
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like chopped (切碎的) meat. Workers can then make the meat into patties(馅饼), nuggets, and more.
The USDA gave the OK to two companies that make lab-grow n meat -----Upside Foods and Good Meat. Many people are excited to get meat from these companies. After all, there are some problems with regular (平常的) meat. Many of the animals we eat are often treated poorly.Ands ome farming practices hurt our earth.
Still, some people worry that lab-grown meat is expensive to make. So, it may cost a lot.Others believe it would be hard to make enough.
Leaders at Upside Foods and Good Meat are hopeful, however. Uma Valeti is in charge of Upside Foods.“This approval(赞成) will change how meat makes it to our table,”he said.“It's a big step forward to a more sustainable(可持续的) future.”Josh Tetrick from Good Meat called the approval“an important moment for the food system.”
It will be years before we see lab-grown meat in stores. First, both Upside Foods and Good Meat will serve their products in restaurants.
32. What's paragraph 2 mainly about
A. What is chicken nuggets
B. How do scientists make the meat in the lab
C. Whether the meat in the lab is healthy or not.
D. Why do scientists make the meat in the lab
33. What is Uma Valeti's attitude to the lab-grown meat
A. Support. B. Disagree. C. Hate. D. Understand.
34. What can we infer from the text
A. Lab-grown meat has a bright future.
B. People all welcome the sale of lab-grown meat.
C. Many companies were given the OK.
D. Now people can buy lab-grown meat in the supermarket.
35. What is the best title of the text
A. Lab-grown meat gets OK.
B. Meat on our table.
C. People accept the meat from labs.
D. Lab-grown meat, a sustainable future.
第二节：阅读下面短文，根据短文内容，从短文后的五个选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。
Young people enjoy different kinds of drinks, though they know how bad drinks are for
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their health. What about you 36 Chris Bailey, a popular blogger(博客作者), tried this out. Here is what he finds.
First, you lose weight faster. Yeah, you do! You don't have to exercise but just keep away from drinks for 9 days. 37 So write down your resolution (决心) on a piece of paper and put it on the wall. And you will see the result soon.
Sometimes when you have to stay up for a test, a cup of tea or coffee is usually put at the side of your desk. But do you know 75 to 85 percent of your brain is water Nothing else! Just by drinking water, your brain can work efficiently (有效率地). 38
39 So drinking enough water can stop you from getting old quickly. If you want to look young and beautiful as long as possible, drink a glass of water right now! Keep on doing it for longer, and you will be surprised to touch your soft and clean skin.
Lastly, you save money! 40 The price of water is much lower than that of other drinks. Drink 5 glasses of water every day, or spend money visiting doctors. Think about it!
So, what are you waiting for
A. It is the same as running for 8 kilometers a day!
B. You may remember things quickly and well.
C. What will happen to you if water takes the place of all drinks
D. What's more, water washes out something bad in your body.
E. Drinking water is cheap and easy.
三.完型填空 (共15个小题，每小题1分，共15分)
先通读短文，掌握其大意，然后从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入相应空白处的最佳答案。
Fashion comes and goes quickly. However, many goods people buy to 41 fashion end up in the dustbin. Now, the trend(趋势) of picking up unused things to reuse them is 42 in China. Young people are giving these things a second 43 . Called“stoopers”, they are mainly in big cities like Shanghai, Beijing and Guangzhou.
Chen Jiaorong, 27, is one of them. She started stooping 44 June, 2022 when she found that many people in Shanghai were letting go of things 45 used. After that, she usually 46 treasure (珍宝) in her free time. Now, her small apartment 47 things redesigned from the goods she collected, including tables, chairs and clothing.
“Some say stooping 48 collecting rubbish,”Chen said.“But for me, it is about making full use of 49 things.”That's 50 she wanted to introduce the trend to others. Sometimes
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Chen also sticks 51 notes on goods that she doesn't need and posts them on social media so that others will be interested in them.
With a 52 of keeping things since childhood, Huang Xiaohe from Kunming No. 1High School also loves stooping. 53 she has few chances to go stooping in her city, Huang still finds unused goods around her school, cleans and redesigns them at home. The 54 from a found toy bear dresses a cloud lamp and bottles become decorations.
“I believe that stooping is a kind of 55 to fight over-buying,”said Huang. She also added that anything can be turned into treasure.
41. A. put up with B. catch up with C. come up with D. fill up with
42. A. rising B. falling C. disappearing D. changing
that A. time B. play C. order D. cycle
44. A. on B. at C. in D. to
45. A. quietly B. differently C. hardly D. quickly
46. A. looked up B. looked after C. looked for D. looked into
47. A. throws B. holds C. refuses D. moves
48. A. plans B. shows C. starts D. means
43. A. waste B. modern C. fancy D. useful
50. A. why B. what C. where D. when
51. A. medical B. attractive C. negative D. similar
52. A. story B. job C. hobby D. time
53. A. Although B. So C. But D. Or
54. A. water B. meat C. wood D. cotton
55. A. secret B. law C. idea D. action
四.词语运用(共15个小题，每小题1分，共15分)
第一节：阅读短文，从方框中选择适当的词并用其正确形式填空，使短文通顺，意思完整。每空限一词，每词限用一次。
without unforgettable play a/an year much which they keep 43.
Did you hear about“Survival (生存) Holidays” It is for children to go into a lonely place for exciting activities. Now about 1,100 companies have the chance to take children into the outdoors 56 their parents.
The reason why people like“Survival Holidays”is 57 they think being close to nature is good for children. Many children in big cities spend all time watching TV and
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58 computer games.“Survival Holidays”brings them 59 important change.
Is“Survival Holidays”a wonderful idea Maybe it is. Children need more free time to play.They need to be left alone. Parents care too 60 about their children. They like to see their children being busy with activities that are controlled by adults (成人), 61 causes many problems. Children don't know what to do when they are in danger. Even something like crossing a small river seems to be a hard challenge. Children are not comfortable with danger.Even small dangers like getting 62 feet wet or falling down seem terrible to them.
Many people think the survival activities are 63 for children. Even many 64 later they will still remember what they have learned. Some have learned to stay calm in dangerous times. Some have learned how to 65 safe. Others have learned how to work in a team. All these skills will help them a lot in their lives.
第二节 阅读短文，根据语篇要求填空，使短文通顺、意思完整。每空限填一词。
The West Lake lies in Hangzhou, Zhejiang province and attracts lots of tourists from home 66 abroad every year. It is surrounded on three sides 67 mountains. Many tourist attractions there are well worth visiting, such as Sudi Causeway, the Broken Bridge and Leifeng Pagoda. They are 68 attractive places that visitors often lose themselves in it.
The West Lake has become famous b9 only because of its special scenery, but because of some beautiful poems that were written mainly by Bai Juyi and Su Dongpo. Besides,the area that surrounds the West Lake is /0 home of the famous Longjing Tea.
五.读写实践(共10个小题，每小题2分，共20分)
第一节，根据短文内容完成表格，每空限填一词。
Wu Dajing won the first place in the men's 500m short track(短道) speed skating, in the ISU(国际滑冰联盟) World Cup Short Track Speed Skating series in Dordrecht, the Netherlands on November 27,2021.
Wu Dajing was born in Heilongjiang Province on July 24, 1994. He started skating when he was ten years old and entered the national team in 2010. He loves to play basketball in his
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free time.
In 2014, Wu Daiing won a silver me dal in the men's 500m at the Winter Olympic Games in Sochi, and bronze medal in the men's 5,000m relay. In the same year, he won a gold medal in the men's 500m at the World Championships(锦标赛) in Canada. He was chosen as China's flag bearer at the 2017 Asian Win Games.
Wu Dajing said,“I believe that as long as I work hard, I will succeed.”In 2014, he was presented(颁发) with the May 4th Youth Medal. It's the highest honor for young people in China.
Wu Dajing surprised the skating world by breaking the world record twice in the men's 500m short track speed skating race and winning the only gold medal for China at the Winter Olympics in 2018, which is very meaningful for China! He became the first Chinese man to win an Olympic gold medal on ice!
An introduction of Wu Dajing
_71_ 2014 Born in Heilongjiang Province on July 24, 1994. He started skating and entered the national team in 2010 _72_ the age of ten.
In 2014 He won _73_ medals and was presented with the May 4th Youth Medal.
After 2014 He was _14_ as China's flag bearer at the 2017 Asian Win Games. He_75_ the world record twice in 2018 and became the first Chinese man to win an Olympic gold medal on ice!
第二节：根据短文内容，回答短文后的问题。
Linda is excited. Today she will go hiking in Mount Washington. Her teachers, Mrs. Green and Mrs. Chang, love to hike, who know a lot about hiking and mountain safety.
Mount Washington is the tallest mountain in New England. It is almost 6,300 feet high.Mount Washington can get twenty-six feet of snow in a year! So much snow can take a long time to melt.
Mrs. Green leads the way. There are seven girls and two adults. Mrs. Chang makes sure
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everyone hikes safely.
Everyone has a full bag. The hikers need lots of water, snacks, and lunch. They have more clothes too. Everyone needs a jacket, a raincoat, a hat, and gloves. Even in summer, mountain weather can be cold.
“I'm tired," Inez says. After a rest, Linda and Inez sing songs. Inez feels better.“Hiking is hard work," Linda says,“but I love it!”The group hike higher up Mount Washington. Linda finds the snow first." I can't believe there is snow in July," Linda shouts,“My brother won't believe me!" The girls put on their jackets, gloves, and hats, and they play in the snow. They feel cold now. The wind blows. They are happy to have warm clothes.
After another rest, Mrs. Green calls the girls.“We have to hike back now," she says.“Can we come again next summer " Inez asks.“Please!”Linda says,“Next year I want to hike to the top !”
76. What do Mrs. Green and Mrs Chang know about
77. How many people go hiking in Linda's group today
78. What should be brought when hiking in Mount Washington
79. Why do hikers have to wear more clothes
80. Do you think hiking is good or bad Why
六.口语应用(共5小题，每小题2分，共10分)
根据下面的对话情景，在每个空白处填上一个适当的句子，使对话的意思连贯、完整。
A:Are you free this evening
B: 81 . What's up
A:There's going to be a basketball game this evening.
B:That's great.
A: Would you like to watch it with me
B: Of course. 82
A:It's in the gym.
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B: 83
A: It will start at half past eight.
B: I'm sure the game will be exciting. 84
A:Let's go there by bus. We meet at the bus stop at seven o'clock this evening.
B:OK. 85 .
A: See you.
七.书面表达 (共20分)
今天青少年辅导员 Amy接到了一封来自Sandy 的信。Sandy是转校生，一时无法适应新的学校环境，很烦恼。假如你 是Amy， 请根据Sandy的来信，写一封回信，帮助Sandy 解决问题。
Dear Amy,
You know I am new here. I find it hard for me to make friends with my classmates. I don't have any close friends. I feel lonely from time to time. I also have trouble with my study. I work hard every day but still get low marks in the exam. This made me feel bad. I really want to be a top student, but I just don't know how. What should I do Would you please give me some advice I am looking forward to your reply.
Yours,
Sandy
注意：1.信的内容自拟，要求语句通顺，意思连贯，符合情境；2.词数80个左右.
Dear Sandy,
Best wishes,Amy
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2023-2024学年度下学期松山区中考模拟试题 (二)
九年级英语
一, 听力题。(每题1.5分, 共30分)
1-5 CAACB 6-10 BCCAB 11-15 ACACB
16. panda 17 26 18. safe 19. read 20. drinks 二，阅读理解
21-23 CDB 24-27DBCA 28-31 DCCB 32-35 BAAD 36-40CABDE
三，完型填空
41-45BADCC 46-50CBDAA 51-55BCADD
四，词语运用
56. without 57. that 58. playing 59. an 60.much
61. which 62. their 63. unforgettable 64. years 65. keep
66. and 67. by/with 68. such 69 not 70. the
五，读写实践(答案不唯一，根据文章符合语境即可。)
71-75 Before at three chosen/selected broke
76. They know about hiking and mountain safety.
77. Nine people go hiking in Linda's group today./ Nine
78. Lots of water , snacks , lunch., more clothes ,a jacket , raincoat , a hat and gloves.
79. Because even in summer , mountain weather can be cold.
80.开放性答案，原因合理即可。选择回答占1分，原因占1分。
六，口语应用。(答案不唯一，根据对话，符合语境即可。)
81. Yes, I am
82. Where is it /Where is it held
83. When will it start
84. How do we go there
85. See you.
七，书面表达
Dear Sandy,
I am sorry to hear that you have difficulty in adapting to the new environment. Don't worry. I am writing to share some some advice with you.
First of all, why not take part in a club where you will meet more students who have the same hobby with you so that you will make friends easily In addition, as for your study, I suggest you that you turn to your teachers for help, who must be willing to help you. Last but not least, it is reading books widely that I think is the best way to keep yourself peaceful and calm. May be when you are not nervous , you will find it easy to solve all problems.
I hope that the advice is useful and you will be better and better.
Best wishes,
Amy
评分标准
第一档 只能写出与所要求内容有关的一些单词。 (1-4分)
第二档 只能写出少部分要点，语言错误很多，只有个别句子可读。(5-8分)
第三档 能写明大部分内容要点，语言有较多错误，尚能达意。 (9-12分)
第四档 能写明全部或大部分要点，语言有少量错误，行文基本连贯，表达基本清楚。(13-16分)
第五档 能写明全部或大部分要点，语言基本无误，行文连贯，表达清楚。 (17-20分)

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