2024年温州市瓯海区中考二模 英语试卷(PDF版,含答案)

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2024年温州市瓯海区中考二模 英语试卷(PDF版,含答案)

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2024年初中毕业生学业考试第二次适应性测试
英语试题卷 2024.5
亲爱的同学:
欢迎参加考试!请你认真审题,积极思考,细心答题,发挥最佳水平。答题时,请注意以下
几点:
1. 全卷共 8页,有四大部分,76小题。全卷满分 120分。考试时间 100分钟。
2. 请用 2B 铅笔将选择题的答案填涂在答题纸相应位置上,用 0.5 毫米及以上黑色字迹的钢
笔或签字笔将主观题的答案写在答题纸相应的答题区内。写在试题卷、草稿纸上均无效。
3. 答题前,请认真阅读答题纸上的《注意事项》,按规定答题。
祝你成功!
第一部分 听力(共三节,满分 20分)
第一节:听对话,选择答案(共 5小题,每小题 1分,共 5分)
听下面五段短对话。听完每段对话后,你都有 10秒钟的时间回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。
每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What is the weather like today
A. Rainy. B. Sunny. C. Cloudy.
2. What does Mary like collecting
A. Fans. B. Postcards. C. Coins.
3. Where are the speakers
A. In a bank. B. In a bookshop. C. In a museum.
4. Why does Peter play basketball
A. To lose weight. B. To keep healthy. C. To have fun.
5. How many notebooks can the boy get
A. One. B. Two. C. Three.
第二节:听对话,选择答案(共 5小题,每小题 1.5分,共 7.5分)
听下面两段较长对话。听完每段对话后,你都有 10至 15秒的时间回答有关小题。每段对话
读两遍。
听下面一段对话,回答 6-7小题。听对话前,你将有 10秒钟的时间阅读有关内容。
6. When did the summer camp begin
A. On July 10th. B. On July 12th. C. On July 24th.
7. Which part of the camp does Justin like best
A. Having lots of English classes.
B. Visiting the Sydney Opera House.
C. Staying with an Australian family.
听下面一段对话, 回答 8-10小题,听对话前,你将有 15秒钟的时间阅读有关内容。
8. What are the speakers going to do this weekend
A. To pick strawberries. B. To have a picnic. C. To go hiking.
9. When will they leave
A. At 7:30 a.m. B. At 8:30 a.m. C. At 9:30 a.m.
10. Who is Lily probably talking with
A. Her uncle. B. Her mother. C. Her friend.
第三节:听独白,选择答案(共 5小题,每小题 1.5分,共 7.5分)
听下面一段独白。听独白前,你将有 25秒钟的时间阅读有关内容;听完后,你将有 25秒钟的
作答时间。独白读两遍。
11. Who will do the project
A. Students. B. Teachers. C. Parents.
12. What will be done first for the project
A. Ask for help. B. Make a plan. C. Search on the Internet.
英语试卷(OH) 第 1页 共 8页
13. What should the news be like
A. Important. B. Meaningful. C. Interesting.
14. How often will the news be reported
A. Every day. B. Once a week. C. Twice a month.
15. Why does the school have the project
A. To report students’ study.
B. To solve students’ problems.
C. To improve students’ abilities.
第二部分 阅读(共两节,满分 40分)
第一节 阅读理解(共 15小题,每小题 2分,共 30分)
阅读下面短文,从每题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
16. Which kind of program will students watch most in the show
A. Singing. B. Dancing. C. Short play. D. Story Telling.
17. What can we learn about the show
A. The show will last for less than an hour. B. Jack and Monica will play the drum together.
C. The show will be held in the playground. D. All the performers will sing together at last.
18. Who may be the polite audience in the show according to the passage
A. Tom, who will bring snacks to his classmates. B. Jenny, who will wear her beautiful dress.
C. Jack, who will arrive at 6:10 p.m. on May 21th. D. Mary, who will take photos with a mobile phone.
英语试卷(OH) 第 2页 共 8页
B
Julie Andersen’s great interest in diving(潜水) led to her love for
sharks and the ocean. She turned her love into a job and started ocean
conservation groups. Conservation is the act of keeping or protecting
something. Conservation work includes protecting art, animals in danger
and the other parts of the natural environment.
Andersen began diving in 1995. She started diving in places that are
famous for sharks. Unluckily, the number of sharks there became smaller and smaller. Soon she realized
that she must do something for them. So she founded the Shark Angels and helped people around the
world learn about sharks. She even sold her house to support Shark Angels.
Twenty years later, she is still working. As a leader of Professional Association of Diving
Instructors(PADI), Andersen believes PADI is a good industry to encourage people to keep on saving
sharks and their ocean homes. She often says, “I am filled with hope. The past several years have taught
me that a single person can make a difference. And I am sure we can make a bigger difference together.”
Andersen sets a good example to other people in the world. Now more and more people are entering the
diving industry and getting to know the importance of protecting sharks and their ocean homes.
Actually, Andersen’s goal is to make it possible for everyone to experience, fall in love with and, in
turn, protect our world’s largest and most valuable ecosystem(生态系统). “The ocean gives us life. We
need to do the same in return and leave our blue planet better than we found it.” Andersen says.
19. Which of the following is “conservation” according to the passage
A. Saving tigers. B. Feeding the fish. C. Drawing pictures. D. Keeping a pet dog.
20. What can we learn from Paragraph 2
A. Andersen studied hard to protect sharks. B. Andersen helped people learn about diving.
C. Andersen did a lot to support Shark Angels. D. Andersen became famous for diving in 1995.
21. What’s the result of Andersen’s effort
A. PADI has been the largest diving industry. B. More people have taken diving courses.
C. PADI has got many prizes in saving sharks. D. More people have joined in protecting sharks.
22. Why does the writer write this passage
A. To discuss the importance of PADI. B. To show the problems of environmental pollution.
C. To explain the meaning of ecosystem. D. To introduce a lady’s journey of shark protection.
C
① Wool is a great natural material that has been used by humans. It
comes from the soft coat of sheep. Humans have been wearing wool for over
12,000 years. Today, more than 1.3 billion sheep around the world are used
each year for woollen products, like sweaters and scarves.
②Why do so many people like woollen products One of the great
things about wool is that it is a fantastic insulator. This means it keeps us warm when it’s cold outside. It
also has tiny air pockets that trap(锁住) heat, making it perfect for those cold days.
③Another advantage of wool is that it is breathable. It allows air to pass through, keeping us cool in
the summer as well. Unlike other materials, it can prevent us from overheating, and make us feel
comfortable.
④Wool is not only warm and breathable, but it is also durable(耐用的) and long-lasting. It’s strong
enough for outdoor activities like hiking or playing in the snow. Woollen clothes can be passed down
from one generation(一代) to another, creating a beautiful connection between family members.
⑤Making wool products requires a lot of efforts and a series of processes, which start with cutting.
The sheep farmers cut the wool off the sheep completely by hand in spring. Don’t worry: cutting is safe
and painless for the sheep, just like getting a haircut! After the cutting, hundreds of kilos of wool are
英语试卷(OH) 第 3页 共 8页
packed together. Once the wool is collected, it goes through a process called scouring. It means wool is
washed to remove any dirt and oil. Then the wool is made into yarn(毛线), which is used to make
different woollen products. After the yarn is coloured, skilled workers make it into various products.
⑥Wool is made into all kinds of woollen products after processing and is used widely in our daily
life.
23. How does the writer show that wool is a great material in Paragraph 1
A. By telling stories. B. By explaining ideas. C. By showing facts. D. By comparing reasons.
24. What is the advantage of wool according to the passage
A. It can be used for a long time. B. It can stop air from passing through.
C. It can produce and give out heat. D. It can be made into products easily.
25. Which picture correctly shows “scouring”
A. B. C. D.
26. Which is the structure of the passage
A. B. C. D.
D
At the age of 19, I graduated from high school and moved to a place where it snowed often. I felt
free, independent and completely in control of my life there until I knew I had bacterial meningitis(细菌
性脑膜炎).
When my parents wheeled me out of the hospital, I felt like I had been pieced back together like a
doll with my “new legs”. They hurt so badly that all I could think was what I could do with these things.
Tears streamed down my face. I was completely emotionally(情绪上) broken.
But I knew I had to let go of the old Amy and learn to welcome the new Amy. Four months later I
was back up on a snowboard, although things didn’t go quite as expected: My legs went flying down the
mountain, and I was on top of the mountain still. I was so discouraged. But I knew that if I could find the
right pair of legs, I would be able to do this again. And this is when I learned that difficulties we met
would bring two kinds of results: stop us on the road or ▲ .
I did a year of research, but still couldn’t find out what kind of legs to use, so I decided to make a
pair myself. It was these legs and the best 21st birthday gift I could ever receive —a new kidney(肾)
from my dad —that allowed me to follow my dreams again. I started snowboarding, then I went back to
work.
In 2005, I founded an organization for youth and young adults with physical disabilities so they
could join in sports. From there, I had the opportunity to go to South Africa, where I helped to put shoes
on thousands of children’s feet so they could attend school. With my effort, I got three World Cup gold
medals which made me the highest ranked female snowboarder in the world.
Twenty-six years ago, when I lost my legs, I had no idea what to expect. But my legs haven’t
disabled me. They’ve forced me to depend on my imagination and to believe in the possibilities, because
in my mind, we can do anything and we can be anything!
英语试卷(OH) 第 4页 共 8页
27. How did the writer feel when she left the hospital
A. Surprised. B. Relaxed. C. Hopeless. D. Angry.
28. Which of the following can be put into “ ▲ ” in the passage
A. push us to get creative B. help us get gold medals
C. make us become healthy D. encourage us to make friends
29. Which of the following is in the correct order according to the passage
a. Amy tried to snowboard but failed.
b. Amy found she got a serious illness.
c. Amy helped some disabled children.
d. Amy created a pair of new legs herself.
A. a-b-d-c. B. a-d-b-c. C. b-d-c-a. D. b-a-d-c.
30. What’s the best title for the passage
A. Being the Best Snowboarder. B. Growing Stronger after Hard Times.
C. Keeping Healthy for Better Life. D. Following and Achieving Great Dreams.
第二节 任务型阅读(共 5小题,每小题 2分,共 10分)
阅读以下材料,从下面方框中所给的 A、B、C、D、E五个选项中(其中有一项多余),选出能
填入 31-34题的最佳选项, 并完成 35题的任务。
Smart Cities around the World
Smart cities use technology to make things better for people and improve the lives of people. Now
let’s explore some smart cities around the world and learn about their slogans.
Breathe freely with smart maps!
London has many new ways to use data(数据). One of its creative examples is an app showing a
way with clean air on the map of the city. If people have to go out on a day with bad air quality,
31 .
Use smart apps, live relaxing lives!
In New York, 32 . With the data, people can get the information they need through apps.
For example, they can find out where they can ride bikes in the city.
Smart learning, happy kids!
Singapore, the “Garden City” has smart ways to make the city children-friendly. In some libraries,
33 . For example, when a teacher tells a story about a tiger, a picture of a tiger will be shown. This
makes the stories more lively.
Green life in passive housing!
In Berlin, passive housing(被动式住宅) is a popular way to help save energy. A passive house
usually has thick walls and windows. Also, 34 . This way, more sunlight can go into the house.
No matter how cold it is, people inside the house can still keep warm.
35
In Hangzhou, people can live a smart life with a smart phone, no need for cash or a wallet. For
example, they can take the subway simply by scanning a QR code. They can also use smartphones to
pay the bills when in hospital.
A. kids can listen to stories in cool ways
B. kids will also hear the sound of a tiger
C. the biggest windows usually face south
D. they can find out the way with the cleanest air
E. the government makes its data open to all local people
35. 请根据文本内容,为杭州设计一条宣传标语。(不超过 10个词)
英语试卷(OH) 第 5页 共 8页
第三部分 语言运用(共三节,满分 40分)
第一节 完形填空(共 15小题,每小题 1分,共 15分)
阅读下面短文,掌握大意,从每小题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
“Hey! Ms. Woodall!” I was at the backyard of my house when I heard a
voice call out my name. I turned around and saw William, one of my
36 , who loved plants and always smiled.
It was true. William was a joy in my class. When other students were
having trouble understanding the lessons, he always cheered them up and
brought them 37 moments. However, because of his poor grades, I couldn’t help 38 . I
kept wondering if William could pass the exams because he didn’t make any progress in study.
Things didn’t change 39 we started to study the life cycle of plants. As a class project, each
child planted a sunflower. I did this every year with different results in different parts. At first, it was
40 for many of the students to plant the sunflowers. 41 , most kids had little patience for the
the growing part. They lost interest and forgot to 42 the sunflowers except William. I’d never
seen him show such great 43 in class.
Every afternoon, William made sure all the sunflowers were watered. 44 even offered to
care for them well during the summer holiday. To help the little sunflowers get plenty of sunlight, we
45 moved them to the perfect place behind the library with William. All of us hoped the twenty
sunflowers could 46 the best.
About a month into the summer vacation, I happened to drive by the school. There, behind the
library, stood William’s sunflowers. I counted all 47 of them. They must have been at least 12
feet tall with faces to the sun.
Looking at the sunflowers, I realised we teachers should 48 what was planted in our
children and tried our best to nurture(培育) it. This was also 49 I chose to be a teacher, I thought.
At that moment, I knew I didn’t have to worry about William. And I believed that one day he would
bloom and shine 50 his sunflowers.
36. A. friends B. students C. teachers D. classmates
37. A. simple B. free C. quiet D. bright
38. A. worrying B. accepting C. crying D. laughing
39. A. though B. unless C. until D. because
40. A. boring B. tiring C. exciting D. moving
41. A. Besides B. However C. Luckily D. Suddenly
42. A. talk about B. pick up C. think of D. look after
43. A. wish B. interest C. regret D. courage
44. A. He B. I C. She D. They
45. A. secretly B. proudly C. politely D. carefully
46. A. grow B. feel C. turn D. smell
47. A. two B. four C. twelve D. twenty
48. A. create B. trust C. change D. teach
49. A. why B. when C. how D. where
50. A. as B. for C. like D. with
英语试卷(OH) 第 6页 共 8页
第二节 词汇运用(共 15小题,每小题 1分,共 15分)
Chinese culture
A. 用方框中所给单词的适当形式填空,每.词.限.用.一.次.。
quick include nothing August consider
51. ▲ can show our cultural creativity better than Chinese painting.
52. There are many cultural treasures in China, ▲ Beijing Opera.
53. Mid-Autumn Festival is celebrated on the fifteenth of ▲ on the Chinese lunar
calendar.
54. Traditional Chinese Medicine(TCM) ▲ as one of the oldest forms of medical
treatment.
55. The Chinese artists can change their coloured masks ▲ when performing
face-changing.
B. 根据短文内容和所给中文或首字母提示,用单词的正确形式完成以下短文。
Have you heard of the horse-face skirt This is a kind of traditional Chinese clothes, which has folds(褶皱)
on both s 56 , left and right.
Many hanfu lovers began 57 (传播) the knowledge of the skirt in 2022. This helped more people
learn about the traditional Chinese clothes. “For us, wearing the skirt is not just for fashion,” said Mao, one of
the hanfu lovers. “It also shows the 58 (力量) of Chinese culture.”
The skirt has got more attention 59 (自从) lots of young people wore the skirts in their daily life.
60 (最近) , many famous Chinese people even have worn it to international events.
People in other countries like this skirt, too. 61 (在...当中) the Chinese foreign trade companies,
Chinese clothing companies play a very important role. They have got a lot of orders from 62 (在国外).
A report showed that foreign users from more than 63 (九十) countries and regions shared the
information about the skirt! The horse-face skirt has become one of 64 (受欢迎的) traditional Chinese
clothes.
Besides the skirt, “new Chinese-style clothes” is also a hot topic. These clothes add traditional Chinese
elements(元素) to modern designs. They w 65 the hearts of many people around the world. All of these
show that we are becoming more and more confident in our own culture!
第三节 语法填空(共 10小题,每小题 1分,共 10分)
阅读下面材料,在空白处填入适当的内容(1个单词)或括号内单词的正确形式。
What kind of life do we want to have How should we face problems Maybe we can find the
answers from the movie The Boy and the Heron, which came out on the 66 (three) of April.
The movie is about a boy named Makoto who 67 (want) to know what life is really like.
英语试卷(OH) 第 7页 共 8页
Makoto moves to a new place with his dad after his mom dies. There, he meets a talking heron(苍鹭).
The heron takes him to a 68 (wonder) place where he has many adventures. Makoto meets many
difficulties, 69 he doesn’t give up. He tries his best to deal 70 them. This helps him
understand what courage and duty are. It also helps him learn about himself. 71 (final), he finds
what his life is like and what he really wants.
The story of the movie 72 (write) by Havao Miyazaki several years ago. He made 73
movie for his grandson to tell him something: Although the real world can be difficult, it’s full of honesty
and 74 (kind).
All in all, this movie is great for everyone. It makes us think and it also makes us ask 75 (we)
how we can value the people and things around us. It also brings us joy and helps us understand life
better.
第四部分 书面表达(共 1题,满分 20分)
76. 你曾经为提升自己做过一些努力吗?请根据以下征文海报,写一篇英语短文投稿,分享你
在提升自我方面的一.次.经.历.以及收.获.,并谈谈你在这方面的计.划.。
注意:
(1)文中不得出现真实姓名、学校等信息;
(2)词数:100词左右;开头已给出,不计入总词数。
During the past three years, I have done a lot of things to be better. __________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
英语试卷(OH) 第 8页 共 8页2024 年九年级学生学科素养检测
英语参考答案
第一部分 听力(共三节,满分 20分)
第一节:听对话,选择答案(共 5小题,每小题 1分,共 5分)
1-5 A C C B B
第二节:听对话,选择答案(共 5小题,每小题 1.5分,共 7.5分)
6-10 A C A B C
第三节:听独白,选择答案(共 5小题,每小题 1.5分,共 7.5分)
11-15 A B B A C
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分 40分)
第一节(共 15小题,每小题 2分,共 30分)
16-18 AD C 19-22 AC D D 23-26 CA C B 27-30 CAD B
第二节 任务型阅读(共 5小题,每小题 2分,共 10分)
31-34 D E AC
35. 【评分标准】
(1)答案中有体现以下两个方面内容,可给 2 分:①智能手机移动支付等关键词,如
pay/smartphone;②带来的智慧生活等关键词,如 smart life/easy life/happy life;
(2)答案中只有涉及到一个方面的关键词的,给 1分;
(3)答案中有语法错误不扣分;超出规定词数一律不给分。
Possible version: Smart phones, smart life! /Living smartly with a phone in Hangzhou! /Easy life
with smartphones! /Smartphones make life easy! /Pay easily, live happily!
第三部分 语言知识运用(共三节,满分 40分)
第一节 完形填空(共 15小题,每小题 1分,共 15分)
36-40 B DAC C 41-45 B D BAD 46-50 AD BAC
第二节 词汇运用(共 15小题,每小题 1分,共 15分)
51. Nothing 52. including 53. August 54. is considered 55. quickly
56. sides 57. to spread/spreading 58. power 59. since 60. Recently
61. Among 62. abroad 63. ninety 64. the most popular 65. win
注:拼写错误或变形错误一律不给分;大小写错误不扣分。
1
第三节 语法填空(共 10小题,每小题 1分,共 10分)
66. third 67. wants 68. wonderful 69. but 70. with
71. Finally 72. was written 73. the 74. kindness 75. ourselves
第四部分 书面表达(共 1题,满分 20分)
76. 评分要点:
此题需要学生根据海报,分享自己在提升自我方面的一次经历以及收获,并谈谈在这方面
的打算
20 分:能分享自己在提升自我方面的一次经历以及收获,并谈谈在这方面的打算,条理
清楚、逻辑严密;语言规范、地道;书写规范、字数符合要求;达成写作目的。
16-19 分:能分享自己在提升自我方面的一次经历以及收获,并谈谈在这方面的打算,条
理清楚、逻辑严密;语言略瑕疵;书写规范、字数基本符合要求;较好地达成写作目的。如若
未提及比例,酌情扣分。
12-15 分:能分享自己在提升自我方面的一次经历以及收获,并谈谈在这方面的打算,表
达、逻辑有瑕疵,语言不够规范,字数基本符合要求;基本达成写作目的。如若未提及比例,
酌情扣分。
8-11 分:仅分享自己在提升自我方面的一次经历未谈及收获或在这方面的打算。语言问
题较为严重,字数
不符合要求。如若未提及比例,酌情扣分。
5-7 分:勉强能看出作文内容与任务有关。
0-3 分:抄写英语单词或段落。空白卷 0 分。
Possible version(107词):
During the past three years, I have done a lot of things to be better. The most meaningful
experience was joining an English speaking competition. Before the competition, I was not confident
and was afraid to speak English in front of others. But my teacher encouraged me to challenge
myself. So I practised again and again whenever I had time. During the competition, I did quite well
and got the first prize. It was the experience that helped me become more confident in learning
English. And I also learned that hard work pays off.
For the future, I plan to read more books and join an English club to improve myself. I believe
every effort will take me closer to my goals.
2

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