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2023－2024学年度下学期期末考试试卷
八年级英语
(考试时间: 120分钟 满分: 120分)
注意事项：
1.答题前，考生务必将姓名、考号、座位号填写在答题卡上。
2.考生作答时，请在答题卡上作答(答题注意事项见答题卡)，在本试卷上作答无效。
一、听力（共30小题，每小题1分，共30分）
（一）听句子，选图片。
你将听到五个句子，请选出与所听句子内容相符的图片,有一幅图是多余的。每个句子读两遍。
A B C D E F
1. ________ 2. ________ 3. ________ 4. ________ 5. ________
(二) 听短对话，选择最佳答案。
你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，请根据对话内容，选出最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。
6. Where did the man go just now
A. To the office. B. To the post office. C. To the museum.
7. What is John like now
A. He is very tall. B. He is very heavy. C. He is very strong.
8. How often does the man go running
A. Every day. B. Sometimes. C. Never.
9. What does the girl think of the film
A. Wonderful. B. Exciting. C. Boring.
10. How long has the man been here
A. For 5 minutes. B. For 15 minutes. C. For 25 minutes.
(三) 听长对话，选择最佳答案。
你将听到三段对话，请根据对话内容，选出每个问题的最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。
请听第一段对话，回答第11至13小题。
11. Who did Peter learn to play tennis from
A. His father. B. His uncle. C. His PE teacher.
12. What does Peter think of playing tennis
A. Tiring. B. Interesting. C. Difficult.
13. Why did Lucy call Peter
A. To invite him to play tennis.
B. To ask him to watch the video.
C. To show him her new model plane.
请听第二段对话，回答第14至16小题。
14. Who will come to Mary’s house tomorrow
A. Her grandparents. B. Her uncle and aunt. C. Her friends.
15. Why won’t Mary’s mother go to the railway station tomorrow morning
A. She will go to the zoo.
B. She will go shopping.
C. She will prepare breakfast for them.
16. What will they do after breakfast tomorrow
A. Go to bed. B. Go to the railway station. C. Go around the city.
请听第三段对话，回答第 17 至 20 小题。
17. What is the man going on
A. A business trip. B. An important meeting C. A visit to the old people
18.When is the man leaving
A. On Wednesday B. On Thursday. C. On Friday.
19. What chores will the girl do every day
A. Clean the room. B. Wash clothes. C. Sweep the floor.
20. What will the girl do to take care of the dog
A. Take him to the doctor.
B. Clean his bed once a week.
C. Feed him, walk him, play with him and clean his bed.
(四) 听短文，选择最佳答案。
你将听到一篇短文，请根据短文内容，选出每个问题的最佳答案。短文读两遍。
21. Why do young people like hip-hop dancing
A. It can help solve problems.
B. They can invent their own moves.
C. They can use every part of the body.
22. Where was hip-hop dancing first seen
A. In the movies. B. In the streets. C. In the old schools.
23. Which of the following is true about hip-hop dancing
A. It’s not a good way to exercise.
B. It shows that young people feel bad about life.
C. Young people use this dance to show their love for life.
24. When did hip-hop dancing become popular all over the world
A. In 1938. B. In 1983. C. Today.
25. What made hip-hop dancing popular
A. A film. B. A song. C. A book.
(五) 听短文，填信息。
你将听到一篇短文，请根据短文内容，将所缺信息填入答题卡对应的横线上，每空一词。 短文读三遍。
A sunny camp
When On 26 5th
Where A small 27
How We will go there by 28
What to do In the morning, the 29 will teach us how to feed animals. In the afternoon, we’ll 30 some fruit and vegetables. In the evening, we’ll have a wonderful dinner.
二、单项选择 (共10小题，每小题1分，共10分)
从下列各小题所给的 A 、B 、C 三个选项中，选出最佳选项。
31. — Would you mind showing me how to use the website
— _________.
A. I hope so B. Yes, I’d like to C. Of course not
32. — I hand in the report today
— No, you needn’t. You can hand it in tomorrow.
A. Can B. Must C. Should
33. — Jack, how long you in Beijing
— For ten years.
A. did, live B. have, lived C. are, living
34. Don’t your dream. Keep trying and it will come true.
A. give up B. put up C. set up
35. The sign on the right means .
A. No smoking B. No photos C. No parking
36. — Did you go to Sally’s birthday party last night
— No, I .
A. didn’t invite B. am not invited C. wasn’t invited
37. Our school is going to a charity show to donate money for the village children.
A. hold B. watch C. refuse
38. Our class all went hiking Ann last week because she was ill.
A. with B. except C. for
39. It’s very important for us English well.
A. learn B. learning C. to learn
40. — The air is very fresh in our town. There is less than before.
— Yes. The government has taken action to protect the environment.
A. condition B. pollution C. situation
三、补全对话 (共5小题，每小题1分，共5分)
根据对话内容，从下面方框中选出恰当的句子补全对话，有一个选项是多余的。
(
A. What is it about
B. I agree with you.
C
. You can call the number on the notice.
D.
In the school library.
E. At 9:00 a.m. this Sunday.
F. What should volunteers do there
)A: Kitty! Did you see the volunteer notice
B: I didn’t notice it. 41 .
A: It’s about volunteering in a history museum
and it needs volunteers who are good at English.
B: That sounds interesting. 42
A: They should guide foreign travellers the way.
B: When will the volunteer work begin
A: 43 . Would you like to be a volunteer
B:Yes, I’d like to. It’s helpful in practising my spoken English.
A: 44 .
B: By the way, how can I join it
A: 45 .
B: OK, thank you very much.
四、完形填空 (共10小题, 每小题1分，共10分)
阅读下面语篇，从各小题所给的 A 、B 、C 三个选项中，选出最佳选项。
China has a long history. There 46 many social manners different from other countries’.
A girl comes to my class. She comes from Australia. We are different in many ways.
First , the way of 47 is different. We always shake hands. But in Australia, they 48
hug (拥抱) with each other. Second, the subjects of conversations are different. In China, we can talk about our family or work. However, in Australia, they 49 talking about these subjects. And other customs (风俗习惯) are also different. Once I went to her birthday party, I gave a gift to her. She 50 and thanked me for it. Then she opened it in 51 right away. I was shocked (震惊). It’s a little 52 in our country, so we will never do that. Then we had a(n)
53 to learn about the customs. Of course, we also have many of the same manners. For example, don’t 54 others. It’s rude. And don’t 55 on the streets. We should keep them clean.
Different countries have different social manners, and we should respect each other.
46. A. were B. are C. was
47. A. greeting B. eating C. working
48. A. clearly B. usually C. slowly
49. A. avoid B. enjoy C. risk
50. A. threw B. accepted C. broke
51. A. danger B. class C. public
52. A. impolite B. useful C. proper
53. A. rest B. business C. discussion
54. A. push in B. care about C.wait for
55. A. rest B. learn C. litter
五、阅读理解 (共20小题，第56—60小题，每小题1分；第61—75小题，每小题2分，共35分)
A
Do you live in a city Do you know how cities began Long long ago, there were only a few thousand people in the world. These people moved from place to place. They moved over the land,hunting (打猎) animals for food.
A long time passed. These people began growing crops. No one knows how or when those people learnt about growing food. But when they did, their lives changed, and they did not have to move houses any more. They could stay in one place and grow it. People began to live near each other. And so the first villages grew. Many people came to work in the villages. These villages grew bigger and bigger. Then people had machines, and lives in the villages changed again. They built factories. So the villages grew into cities. Some of them grew very big.
根据语篇内容，判断下列句子正误，正确的在答题卡上将“T”涂黑，错误的在答题卡上将“F”涂黑。
56. Long long ago only a few thousand people lived in the world.
57. When people learnt how to cook, they didn’t have to move houses.
58. After building factories, people learnt how to grow food.
59. Many people came to work in the villages, so these villages grew bigger and bigger.
60. This passage is talking about how the cities began.
B
Are you interested in traditional Chinese culture (文化) Here are some important parts of it.
Chinese Wushu Chinese Wushu first came 4,000 years ago in the Shang and Zhou Dynasties (朝代). Modern Wushu has two parts: taolu and sanda. Zhang Sanfeng created (发明) Tai chi to use the softness to beat the hardness.
Paper-cutting Paper-cutting has a long history of about 1,500 years. People like it because they can find happiness and good luck in paper-cuttings. In Spring Festival, people put “Fu” on windows. Many of the paper-cuttings are red.
Weifang kites Weifang is the birthplace of kites. Weifang kites are more than 2,000 years old. People flew kites to say good wishes to themselves. In the Ming Dynasty, kites became popular among common people. People used bamboo to make the kites with traditional Chinese paintings.
Shadow puppet Shadow puppet started in the Han Dynasty with a history of more than 2,000 years. In a show, actors hold puppets really high behind a white cloth. With music and songs, they make the puppets move.
根据语篇内容，选择最佳选项。
61. What did Zhang Sanfeng create
A. Taolu. B. Sanda. C. Tai chi.
62. Why do people like paper-cutting
A. Because it’ very easy to learn.
B. Because they can find happiness and good luck.
C. Because they can say good wishes to themselves.
63. When did kites become popular among common people
A. In the Shang and Zhou Dynasties.
B. In the Ming Dynasty.
C. In the Han Dynasty.
64. Which art has the history of more than 2000 years
①Chinese Wushu ②Paper-cutting ③Weifang kites ④Shadow puppet
A. ①②③ B.②③④ C. ①③④
65. Where may we read the passage
A. In a magazine. B. In a novel. C. In a science book.
C
Sleeping is important in our life. There are some myths (荒诞说法) about sleeping in our everyday life. Do you believe the myths Here are some of the myths.
1. Counting sheep helps you sleep.
The University of Oxford once tested this myth. They asked 50 volunteers to try three different ways to fall asleep. Some counted sheep, some imagined a relaxing scene and some just did as usual.Guess what Those volunteers who counted sheep took longer than usual to fall asleep.
2. Your brain rests during sleep.
Your body may rest during sleep, but your brain does not rest. It stays very active during sleep. It still does some important things, such as controlling your breathing and body temperature. How busy your brain is!
3. You should never wake a sleepwalker (梦游者).
Many people have heard that waking a sleepwalker might kill them. Is that true No! Waking a sleepwalker may make them confused (困惑的). Sleepwalking might be dangerous. The safest way is to gently guide them back to their beds.
4. Cheese gives you nightmares (噩梦).
The British Cheese Board had a study on this myth. They asked 200 volunteers to eat 20g of
cheese every night for a week. Then they recorded the volunteers’ dreams. 75% of the men and 85% of the women who ate cheese had vivid dreams, but none of them had nightmares.
根据语篇内容，选择最佳选项。
The University of Oxford asked the volunteers to try some ways to fall asleep EXCEPT .
A. to count sheep
B. to listen to relaxing music
C. to do as usual
67. The underlined word “vivid” in last paragraph means in Chinese.
A. 生动的 B.无聊的 C.可怕的
68. When you see sleepwalkers, the right thing you can do is .
A. waking the sleepwalkers
B. guiding them back to their beds
C. walking with them for a while
69. If 100 women volunteers eat cheese, of them might have vivid dreams.
A. 15 B. 75 C. 85
70. What’s the best title for the passage
A. Some Myths about Sleeping
B. Some Ways of Falling Asleep
C. The Importance of Enough Sleep
D
19-year-old Peng Huidi is a student of Central South University. For her, taking part in the Chengdu FISU World University Games in 2023 was a life-changing experience.
In fact, Peng’s journey to the games began in her early childhood. When she was two, she got hearing problems as a result of a high fever. She became quiet and was afraid of speaking to others. To help Peng, her father took her to the nearest swimming pool. It was there that Peng found her interest and her talent was discovered by a coach. Later, she spent much time training.
Peng wanted to do her best in both swimming and schoolwork, which stressed her out. She once thought about quitting, but she told herself, “If I stop swimming, my future will be completely different from what I’ve dreamed of.” So she kept practicing swimming hard.
The Chengdu FISU World University Games has been a turning point for Peng. After making it through several qualifying rounds (资格赛)，she was called up to the Chinese swimming team for the games. “I remember the first day she joined the team. None of us knew she couldn’t hear clearly. We were amazed at not only her performance, but also her sporting spirit,” the coach said. “She has overcome (克服）so many difficulties to compete at this level. We should all learn from her.”
根据语篇内容，选择最佳选项。
71. What is the main difficulty Peng Huidi faced when she was young
A. She did not have any friends.
B. She was not good at swimming.
C. She had a hearing disability (障碍).
72. How did Peng’s father help her to become more confident
A. By enrolling her in a school.
B. By buying her a hearing aid.
C. By taking her to a swimming pool.
73. What does the underlined word “quitting” in Paragraph 3 mean
A. Giving up. B. Trying out. C. Lying down.
74. What did Peng Huidi consider the Chengdu games to be
A. A chance to win medals.
B. A turning point in her life.
C. A holiday from training.
75. What’s the main idea of the passage
A. A university student takes swimming courses.
B. A university student competes at Olympic Games.
C. A girl with hearing problems changes her life by swimming.
六、选词填空 (共10小题，每小题1.5分，共15分)
根据语篇内容，从方框中选择恰当的单词，并用其正确形式填空。将单词填写在答题卡对应的横线上。每个单词只能用一次。
through sad give side peaceful camera best visit list guide
“Guilin’s scenery is the best in the world, and Yangshuo’s scenery is the best in Guilin,”goes the old saying. Why is the scenery of Guilin and Yangshuo so great It’s probably because there is a beautiful river running 76 them. It is the Li River.
From Guilin to Yangshuo, the scenery on both 77 of the Li River is beautiful beyond words. The 78 way to enjoy its beauty is to take a cruise (坐船浏览). It will carry you away from the city and into a(n) 79 and relaxing world. You need to do nothing but bring your imagination (想象力) and a 80 and keep your eyes open. Guilin hills, clear water, tall bamboo ... It feel like you are visiting in a Chinese ink painting! Your
81 will tell you lots of stories behind the different mountains. The story behind Xianren Rock and Wangfu Rock must be on the 82 . A young man died of hunger after
83 all his food to a poor old man and turned into Xianren Rock. His wife carried their baby on her back 84 and turned into Wangfu Rock.
The Li River is beautiful. Why not 85 this wonderful place, to see it with your own eyes and feel it with your own heart
七、书面表达 (15分)
每时每刻我们的生活都会有所收获和变化，假如你是Peter，是Sunshine Middle School八年级(5)班学生，你们班将举行一次主题班会，畅谈一年来自己的收获与变化。请根据下面的提示，用英语写一份演讲稿。
过去 现在
学习方面 很少阅读，... ... 喜欢读书，... ...
环保方面 浪费食物，... ... 绿色生活，... ...
爱心方面 很少关心他人，... ... 参加慈善活动，... ...
展望未来 至少自拟一点
注意：
1.内容必须包含所有要点；
2.可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯；
3.文中不得透露个人信息;
4.词数 80 左右 (短文首段已给出，不计入总词数)。
参考词汇：read (阅读), waste (浪费), charity activities (慈善活动)
Hello, everyone. I’m Peter from Class 5, Grade 8 in Sunshine Middle School.2023—2024学年度下学期期末考试
八年级英语听力
（一）听句子，选图片。你将听到五个句子，请选出与所听句子内容相符的图片，有一幅图是多余的。每个句子读两遍。
1. Jim used to go to school by bike when he was a student.
2. Amy visited the Great Wall during the May Day holiday.
3. I like to read books about Chinese traditional culture.
4. Don’t leave the tap running after you wash your hands.
5. It’s good to help the blind people to cross the road.
（二）听短对话，选择最佳答案。你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，请根据对话内容，选出最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。
6.W: David, I didn’t see you in the office just now. Were you in the museum
M: No, I went to send a letter to a friend of mine.
7. M: I know John used to be very weak. But he is very strong now.
W : Yes, he does sports every day.
8. W: How often do you exercise
M: I keep running every day, sometimes I play ball games, but I never go swimming.
9. M: What do you think of the film you saw last night
W: It made me sleepy.
10.M: I arrived here at 8:50. What time is it now
W: It’s a quarter past nine.
（三）听长对话，选择最佳答案。你将听到三段对话，请根据对话内容，选出每个问题的最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。
请听第一段对话，回答第11至13小题。
W: Hi, Peter. I just called you, but there was no answer.
M: Oh, I was learning to play tennis from my uncle.
W: How do you like playing tennis Is it difficult
M: Actually, playing tennis is not as difficult as I thought. But it makes me tired. By the way, why did you call me, Lucy
W: I want to show you my new model plane. It can fly very high and take videos.
M: Wow, that sounds cool!
请听第二段对话，回答第14至16小题。
W: Dad, when will my uncle and aunt arrive tomorrow
M: At 8 o’clock in the morning. Mary, you and I will meet them at the railway station.
W: Why won’t my mother go with us
M: Because she will prepare breakfast for us.
W: OK. What shall we do after the breakfast
M: We will show them around the city.
W: Shall we go to the zoo
M: Of course. But now you must go to bed.
W: OK, good night, Dad.
请听第三段对话，回答第17至20小题。
W: What day is it today
M: It’s Tuesday, dear.
W: When are you going on an important meeting
M: I’m leaving tomorrow.
W: What would you like me to do
M: That’s very nice of you, dear. Okay, let me see. Would you please sweep the floor every day
W: Sure, dad. What else
M: Would you please take care of the dog
W: How can I take care of it
M: Feed him, walk him and play with him a little every day. Don’t forget to clean his bed everyday, Lily.
W: It’s so easy, Dad.
（四）听短文，选择最佳答案。你将听到一篇短文，请根据短文内容，选出每个问题的最佳答案。短文读两遍。
Hip-hop dancing is popular with many young people today. They like it because they can invent their own moves. They use this dance to show their love for life. It also shows that they feel good about life, that they just want to be themselves and enjoy life, and that they are not afraid of problems. Hip-hop dancing has a history of more than 30 years. It first began in the 1980s in the US. In early times, it was seen in New York and Los Angeles. At that time, many young black people often danced to the music in the streets. They used their legs, arms, heads and even shoulders to dance. Many young people still use most of these moves today. Hip-hop dancing became popular all over the world because of the 1983 movie Flash Dance. Some people performed hip-hop dancing in the movies. People enjoyed their performances. They began to dance like them.
（五）听短文，填信息。你将听到一篇短文，请根据短文内容，将所缺信息填入答题卡对应的横线上，每空一词。短文读三遍。
Good morning, boys and girls. Do you want to join our summer camp Let me tell you more about our summer camp. Our summer camp will be on July 5th. We’ll take a bus to a small village. The bus ride usually takes half an hour. We will get to know some kind farmers. In the morning, they will teach us how to feed animals. There are a lot of chickens, pigs and cows. In the afternoon, we will go to a garden and pick some fruit and vegetables. In the evening, we’ll have a wonderful dinner together.2023—2024学年度下学期期末考试
八年级英语参考答案
一、听力（每小题1分，共30分）
（一）1—5 CFDAE
（二）6—10 BCACC
（三）11— 13 BAC 14— 16 BCC 17—20 BACC
（四）21—25 BBCBA
（五）26. July 27. village 28. bus 29. farmers 30. pick
二、单项选择（每小题1分，共10分）
31—35 CBBAA 36—40 CABCB
三、补全对话（每小题1分，共5分）
41—45 AFEBC
四、完形填空（每小题1分，共10分）
46—50 BABAB 51—55 CACAC
五、阅读理解（第56—60小题，每小题1分；第61—75小题，每小题2分，共35分）
56—60 TFFTT 61—65 CBBCA 66—70 BABCA 71—75 CCABC
六、选词填空（每小题1.5分，共15分）
76. through 77. sides 78. best 79. peaceful 80. camera
81. guide 82. list 83. giving 84. sadly 85. visit
七、书面表达（15分）
书面表达评分标准
1. 本题满分为 15 分，按 5 个档次给分(见下表)。
2. 评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的评分标准衡量、确 定或调整档次，最后给分。
3. 评分时，应注意考生是否根据内容要点和注意事项完成写作任务。所给参考词汇非评分依据， 仅供考生参考使用。
4. 如果书写较差，以致影响交际，将其分数降低一个档次。
档次 分数 评分标准
第五档 14—15 分 很好地完成了规定的写作任务。包含所有内容要点，结构完整，语句 流畅，意思清楚、连贯；使用较为丰富的语法结构和词汇，语法和词汇错 误极少，格式正确，书写规范。
第四档 11—13 分 较好地完成了规定的写作任务。基本上包含所有内容要点，结构较完 整，语句完整，意思清楚；语法结构和词汇错误较少，格式基本正确，书 写较为规范。
第三档 8—10 分 基本上完成了规定的写作任务。包含主要内容要点，结构欠完整，少 数语句不通顺，意思基本清楚；语法结构和词汇错误较多，格式基本正确， 书写基本规范。
第二档 5—7 分 未能按要求完成规定的写作任务。只包含少数内容要点结构不完整， 多数语句欠完整，意思不够清楚；语法结构和词汇错误较多，影响理解， 格式不够正确，书写欠规范。
第一档 0—4 分 未能按要求完成规定的写作任务。只写出个别要点，结松不完整，多 数语句不完整或意思不明，语法和词汇错误很多书写不规范。

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