广西南宁市第四中学2024-2025学年高一上学期9月月考英语试题(含解析,无听力音频无听力原文)

资源下载
  1. 二一教育资源

广西南宁市第四中学2024-2025学年高一上学期9月月考英语试题(含解析,无听力音频无听力原文)

资源简介

广西南宁市第四中学2024-2025学年高一上学期9月月考英语试题
满分150分 时长90分钟
第一部分 听力(共两节,每小题1.5分,共30分)
第一节(共五小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What are the speakers talking about
A. A sweater. B. A skirt. C. A bag.
2. Where are the speakers probably
A. In a supermarket. B. In a living room. C. In a cafe.
3. What kind of animal does Simon like
A. Cats. B. Dogs. C. Rabbits.
4. What will the woman do for the man tomorrow
A. Treat him to lunch. B. Tutor him in his studies. C. Write him a thank-you note.
5. How much will the man pay finally
A. 50. B. 65. C. 150.
第二节 (共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段较长对话,回答以下小题。
6. What kind of car does the woman have
A. An old one. B. A broken one. C. A brand new one.
7. What does the man want to do
A. Take a job overseas. B. Go into the car business. C. Help sell his cousin’s car.
听下面一段较长对话,回答以下小题。
8. What is the man expecting
A. An outdoor activity. B. A phone call. C. An important person.
9. What’s the probable relationship between the speakers
A. Husband and wife. B. Colleagues. C. Neighbors.
听下面一段较长对话,回答以下小题。
10. How many times has the man been late for work this week
A. Once. B. Twice. C. Three times.
11. What did the man do a moment ago
A. He read a newspaper. B. He took a shower. C. He had his breakfast.
12. Where are the man’s glasses most probably
A. In the bathroom. B. In the dining room. C. In the living room.
听下面一段较长对话,回答以下小题。
13. Why did the man have a car accident
A. He was driving too fast.
B. He didn’t keep his eyes on the road.
C. He was wearing headphones.
14. When did the man go to the hospital
A. On Christmas Eve. B. On Christmas Day. C. On December 26th.
15. What did the man do in March
A. He took part in the marathon.
B. He stayed in hospital.
C. He went to Tokyo for sightseeing.
16. How does the woman sound in the end
A. Annoyed. B. Worried. C. Surprised.
听下面一段独白,回答以下小题。
17. How many students are there in the school
A.1. B.2. C.12.
18. What does Wang Hao insist doing
A. Never missing a single class.
B. Ringing the school bells.
C. Taking 6 classes a day.
19. What does the class teacher encourage Wang Hao to do
A. Help his father with work.
B. Treat his lessons seriously.
C. Play with other children.
20. What was the school like before 2010
A. There were less than 200 students.
B. There were dozens of teachers.
C. Teachers gradually transferred to schools in towns.
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出最佳选项。
A
Things to Do with Kids in San Francisco
Exploratorium
The Exploratorium is a 21st-century learning lab. It takes the best part of a hands-on children’s museum and mixes it with real science, exploration, and adventure. It is a fun and interesting place for children and adults alike. I would not recommend the Exploratorium for children under age 5.
Palace of Fine Arts
The Palace of Fine Arts is a great place to visit when the weather is nice. The gardens are beautiful and it’s fun to walk around and explore. A lot of special events seem to be held here including weddings. The kids really enjoy walking around and taking pictures.
San Francisco Cable Cars
No trip to San Francisco would be complete without a ride on a cable car. The best line to pick is the Hyde Line because it is the longest. The best time to go is first thing in the morning because the lines can be long. Another tip is to ride mid-line. Or ride another two lines where they won’t be as crowded.
Boudin Museum and Bakery Tour
The tour cannot be missed. You may be blown away by the enthusiasm and knowledge of your tour guide, the quality of the museum, hands-on and photography friendly exhibits, and the rich San Francisco history that is a part of Boudin Bakery. Don’t miss taking the test to find out what kind of bread you are. It sounds silly but trust me, you’ll want to take the quick quiz.
21. Which of the following can give kids hands-on science experience
A. The Palace of Fine Arts. B. The Exploratorium.
C. Boudin Bakery. D. San Francisco cable cars.
22. What do we know about San Francisco cable cars
A. Few people like to ride them. B. Their round trips take a short time.
C. They are running on three lines. D. They often break down on the way.
23. What can visitors do on their Boudin Museum and Bakery Tour
A. Learn to be a guide. B. Hold special events.
C. Walk around a garden. D. Take an interesting test.
B
In October, I told the eight-year-olds in the class I teach in Pompton Lakes, New Jersey, about my plan. “Since all of you have done extra jobs around the house to earn some money,” I said, “then we’ll buy food for a Thanksgiving dinner for someone who might not have a nice dinner otherwise.” I hoped they could experience a sense of their own power to bring change.
I watched them while they walked up and down the supermarket. “Flowers!” Kristine cried. The group rushed towards the holiday plants.
“You can’t eat flowers.”—It was wiser to use any extra money to buy something that could be turned into meals.
“But Mrs. Sherlock,” came the begging voice, “we want flowers.”
Defeated finally, I put a pot of “funny” purple mums(菊花) in the cart full of foods. “She’ll like this one,” the children agreed.
An organization had given us the name and address of a needy grandmother who had lived alone for many years. We finally pulled up in front of a small house. A slightly-built woman with a weary face came to the door to welcome us.
My little group ran to get the foods. As each box was carried in, the old woman kept on saying “Thanks.”—much to her visitors’ pleasure. When Amy put the mums on the counter, the woman seemed surprised. She’s wishing it was a bag of rice, I thought.
We returned to the car. As we fastened our seat belts, we could see the kitchen window. The woman inside waved goodbye, then turned and walked across the room, past the turkey, past the goods, straight to the mums. She put her face in them. When she raised her head, there was a smile on her lips. She was transformed(转变) before our eyes.
The children were quiet. At that moment, they had seen for themselves the power they have to make another’s life better. The children had sensed that sometimes a person needs a pot of funny purple flowers on a dark November day.
24. What is the author’s plan aimed at
A. Helping students focus on their happiness.
B. Teaching students the necessity of doing housework.
C. Letting students feel their ability to make a difference.
D. Getting students to know how to be financially independent.
25. Why did the author consider the mums “funny”
A. Because she thought they were too ugly.
B. Because she thought they were for children.
C. Because she thought they were too expensive.
D. Because she thought they couldn’t help people in need.
26. What can we know from the passage
A. The old woman preferred food to flowers.
B. Flowers are more important than food to the poor.
C. The old woman’s dark day was brightened by the children.
D. All the money the children earned was transformed to food.
27. Which can be a suitable title for the text
A. A Perfect Lesson B. The Importance of Giving
C. A Happy Shopping Day D. The Secret to Happiness
C
Teenagers have long been told that being active and taking part in various sports is good for their health. But new research suggests that too much sport for teenagers could negatively affect their well-being just as much as too little sport.
Researchers from Switzerland say their study suggests that 14 hours of physical activity a week is best for promoting good health in teenagers. However, they found that more than 14 hours appears to be detrimental to their health. To reach their findings, the researchers surveyed more than 1,245 teenagers aged between 16 and 20 from Switzerland.
All participants were required to answer questions on height and weight, sports practice, sports injuries and well-being. Their well-being was assessed(评估) using the World Health Organization (WHO)Well-Being Index, and the average well-being score for all participants was 17.
The researchers divided sports participation into low (0—3.5 hours a week), average (3.6—10.5hours), high (10.6—17.5 hours), and very high (more than 17.5 hours). The researchers found that participants in the low and very high activity groups were more than twice as likely to have well-being scores below 13, compared with participants in the average group. The researchers found that the highest well-being scores were gotten by participants who carried cut around 14 hours of physical activity a week, but exercising beyond 14 hours resulted in lower well-being scores.
Commenting on their findings, the researchers say physical activity has been connected with positive emotional well-being, reduced sadness, anxiety and stress disorders, and improved self-respect in teenagers.
The researchers suggest that their study stresses the importance for physicians caring for teenagers to check their level of sports practice and ask them about their well-being. Teenagers probably need a supportive and closer follow-up of their health and well-being. The findings can provide information for guideline groups who produce recommendations on sports practice for teenagers.
28. What does the underlined word “detrimental” in paragraph 2 probably mean
A. Useless. B. Important. C. Reasonable. D. Harmful.
29. What do the researchers find out
A. Low sports participation causes overweight.
B. The sports participation is divided into four levels.
C. The highest well-being scores are gotten in the “high” group.
D. The average well-being score of teenagers between 16 and 20 in Switzerland is 17.
30. Where is this text probably taken from
A. A research paper. B. A health magazine.
C. A business report. D. A fitness diary.
31. What is the text mainly about
A. Measures to improve teenagers’ well-being.
B. Concerns of physicians about teenagers’ well-being.
C. Importance of physical activities on teenagers’ well-being.
D. Relationship between sports participation and teenagers’ well-being.
D
Sometimes I began to imagine: what if I were neighbors with all of my friends The more I’ve thought about it, the more I believe: we should all live close to our friends.
For the past century, the nuclear family, only including parents and children, has defined U.S. homes. But Americans lived with friends and extended family long before the nuclear family became common. Even now, this mode of living exists somewhere; think of college campuses, which tend to be the kind of walkable communities where you’re regularly running into pals on the street.
While moving closer to friends would likely require a lot of efforts, doing so could actually be really good for you. Having supportive friends is connected with greater day-to-day happiness. Researchers have found that happiness spreads easily, especially among those who live close together. Friends living within a mile of each other are 25 percent more likely to feel happy, and their friends have a 10 percent chance of feeling happier too. Live around people who make you happy, and you might create a happiness circle that cheers up everyone around you.
Having a pal around is also just practical. For people with kids, a friend in the neighborhood might be able to help with child care in times of need, saving you the cost of a last-minute babysitter. Those without children might welcome the chance to bond with friends’ kids. And for people who live alone, living closer to friends can make savings on some things easier. You might share household items you don’t need every day, for example. Whatever the reason, having more people you trust around will make it easier for you to get through difficult times.
Many people are prepared to move for a new job, to be with a romantic partner, or even just for an
adventure. Moving to be closer to friends should be no different. Friends are important to a good life. So why not shorten the distance between you and them
32. Which was popular in the US before the nuclear family became common
A. The one-parent family. B. The extended family only.
C. The college campus community. D. The family group with relatives and friends.
33. What do the percentages in Para.3 show about living closer to friends
A. It spreads happiness among friends easily.
B. It benefits one’s physical and mental health.
C. It improves one’s awareness of family building.
D. It increases one’s chances of making more new friends.
34. What is the practical advantage of living near friends
A. Greater personal growth. B. Lower living costs.
C. More health care services. D. Better leisure activities.
35. What is the author’s purpose in writing the passage
A. To advise living in nuclear families.
B. To call on maintaining good friendships.
C. To encourage people to live close to friends.
D. To tell people how to turn friends into neighbors.
第二节 七选五(共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
You are never too old, too poor, too young, or too sick to live your dreams. Dreams are just dreams until you decide they are going to be something more. 36
Perfect timing is a myth.
There will always be an excuse for you to keep waiting for the perfect set of circumstances to appear in your life. If you are going to be a dream chaser, start chasing your dreams now. 37
Actions make dreams come true.
This is where dreamers often get stuck, the taking action part. 38 Dreaming is the formulation of a thought and living the dream is taking that thought into actions. If all the great dreamers in the world kept their dreams in the formulation stage we might not have things such as computers, phones, or cars. Think of the roles those dreams play in all of our lives.
Obstacles will appear.
39 Every dream chaser meets them. Do not let your obstacles prevent you from continuing on the path to your dream. If Mark Zuckerberg, the creator of Facebook, had given up when he had his first major obstacle in 2006, who knows where Facebook would be today He instead chose to meet his obstacles and continued to the next phase of changing how we all communicate in the world today.
40
Sometimes people want to go so fast that they sabotage the speed of their dreams. The greatest dreams are the ones that are the most challenging. There is no easy button to living them. There is a transition phase that has to take place when you go from chasing to actually living the dream.
A. Focus on the formulation.
B. There is no fast and easy way.
C. Don’t put off living your dream until tomorrow.
D. Think about your dream when you wake up every day.
E. Dreams are great to have, but living them is the game changer.
F. When you are chasing your dream, be prepared to meet with obstacles.
G. Here are several things you should know if you have started chasing your dreams.
第三部分 语言知识运用(共四节,满分55分)
第一节 完形填空(共15小题,每小题1分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
I’ve been interested in diving. I wanted to experience it but was 41 by the fear of deep water. Last year, encouraged by a diving enthusiast, I decided to 42 my fear. I signed up for a diving course.
After a few days of theory sessions, I surprisingly 43 all the theory exams. But then followed the biggest 44 . I was visibly 45 underwater. My instructor asked me to do a few more dives with him to 46 my confidence. However, I could see a huge 47 between what I thought I’d be doing and what the course 48 required.
Over the next few weeks, I looked back on the past and thought about what I could have done differently to have had a more pleasant 49 . It was a 50 game! If I could win, I would be able to 51 this course.
A week before the end of the diving course, I went to complete two dives with my instructor. I knew that if I didn’t give it another 52 , I would always carry the fear with me, and it would only get 53 with time. As I revised the 54 and put on my gear (装备), I thought to myself, “This is it!” I took a deep breath, held my mask in place with my fingers, and did a back roll into the sea.
Three hours later, I became a 55 diver. I finally overcame my fear!
41. A. picked out B. settled down C. held back D. brought up
42. A. overcome B. hide C. ignore D. share
43. A. failed B. avoided C. cleared D. assessed
44. A. gift B. challenge C. promise D. surprise
45. A. terrified B. rude C. ashamed D. angry
46. A. show B. build C. shake D. cover
47. A. mismatch B. solution C. connection D. wonder
48. A. secretly B. accidentally C. directly D. actually
49. A. holiday B. discussion C. suggestion D. experience
50. A. card B. mind C. health D. word
51. A. write down B. seek for C. sail through D. check on
52. A. item B. try C. name D. record
53. A. worse B. longer C. less D. darker
54. A. innovations B. comments C. fundamentals D. choices
55. A. highly-paid B. competitive C. well-known D. qualified
第二节 单句语法填空(共20小题,每小题1.5分,满分30分)
阅读下面句子,在空白处填入一个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
1. The most challenging work (take) place when we need to perform tasks outside the space station, such as testing new equipment, monitoring scientific experiments or repairing the space station.
2. In recent weeks, the closure of the factory (工厂) (leave) hundreds of men unemployed.
3. Jack (work) in the lab when the power cut occurred, which forced him to stop working.
4. The whole village (destroy) in the war last year, leaving nothing to the native people.
5. A large number of supplies (send) to the countries struck by the earthquake so far.
6. There is much water everywhere, (make) it difficult to travel from place to place.
7. (compare) with the size of the whole earth, the biggest ocean does not seem big at all
8. While enjoying being close to nature, we began to help pick peaches (cover) every tree.
9. We need people who can work at our warehouse (仓库) packing items to be delivered to families, repair
(donate) furniture and more.
10. The truth is that there are many reasons wars break out.
11. He was put in prison, he suffered a lot of pain physically and mentally.
12. When the Terracotta Warriors were originally created, they were painted a bright array of reds, blues, and greens,
are believed to have matched the colours of the clothing worn by the Qin soldiers.
13. It’s widely recognized that we have entered into an age dreams have the best chance of coming true.
14. Students have access to the city library the learning atmosphere is lively and exciting.
15. Many westerners come to China cook much less than in their own countries once they realize how cheap it can be to eat out.
16. The stronger a reusable bag is, the (long) its life and the more plastic-bag use it cancels out.
17. Shenquan Guyu, a large-scale health and leisure village club, is one of the (large) hot spring bases in North China.
18. My guide is Zhaxi, who works at the Changtang National Nature Reserve. “We’re not trying to save the animals,” he says. “Actually, we’re trying to save (we).”
19. We should try our best to build better world where there will be no poverty. (用适当的词填空)
20. The construction of the Great Wall is considered one of the greatest (achievement) in Chinese history.
第四部分 应用文写作(满分25分)
假定你是学校“英语角”社团社长李华,为了帮助高一新生提高英语学习的效率(efficient),请你在校英文报上给高一新生写一封关于英语学习方法指导的建议信,内容包括:
1.你对英语学习方法的理解;
2.2.你的建议;
3.3.表达祝愿。
注意:1.写作词数应为80个左右;2.可以适当增加细节,以使行文连贯;3.短文开头结尾已给出,不计入总词数。
Dear Freshmen,
Yours.
Li Hua
南宁四中:2024年秋季学期2024级高一半月考试题答案
听力:1~5ACBAB 6~10ACBAA 11~15BCBCA 16~20CAACB
阅读理解:21-23 BCD 24-27CDCB 28-31DCBD 32-35DABC
七选五: 36. G 37.C 38.E 39.F 40.B
完形填空:41-45CACBA 46-50BADDB 51-55CBACD
答案详解:
单句填空:1. takes
【详解】考查时态,主谓一致。句意:最具挑战性的工作发生在我们需要在空间站外执行任务的时候,比如测试新设备、监控科学实验或修理空间站。句子描述客观事实,时态用一般现在时,主语The most challenging work 是不可数名词,因此用第三人称单数 takes
2. has left
【详解】考查时态。句意:到目前为止,工厂的关闭使数百人失业。根据句中时间状语in recent weeks可知,用现在完成时。主语是the closure of the factory,谓语动词用第三人称单数学生。故填has left。
3. was working
【详解】考查时态。句意:杰克正在实验室工作,突然停电了,这使得他不得不停下工作。此处为be doing sth when...句型,意为“正在做某事,这时突然…”,根据 occurred可知,主句应用过去进行时,主语为Jack,谓语用单数。故填 was working。
4. was destroyed
【详解】考查时态,语态和主谓一致。句意:整个村庄在去年的战争中被毁,没有给当地人留下任何东西。村庄是被毁,由last year可知,句子描述过去的事情,因此句子用一般过去时的被动语态,主语The whole village是单数,因此空格处是was destroyed。故填was destroyed。
5. have been sent
【详解】考查谓语动词。句意:到目前为止,已有许多物资被送往发生地震的国家。此处为句子的谓语动词,根据时间状语so far可知,此处应为现在完成时,句子主语A large number of supplies和send之间为被动关系,因此,使用现在完成时的被动语态,且句子主语为名词复数,所以谓语动词用复数形式。故填have been sent。
6. making
【详解】考查非谓语动词。句意:到处都是水,使得从一个地方到另一个地方旅行很困难。句子主干成分完整,空处表示随着谓语行为自然发生的结果,作结果状语,应用make的现在分词形式。故填making。
7. Compared
【详解】考查非谓语动词。句意:与整个地球的大小相比,最大的海洋似乎一点也不大。compare和逻辑主语the biggest ocean之间是动宾关系,使用过去分词作状语,首字母应大写,故填Compared。
8. covering
【详解】考查现在分词作定语。句意:在享受亲近自然的同时,我们开始帮助采摘覆盖每棵树的桃子。所给词cover作定语修饰名词peaches,peaches与cover是主动关系,应用现在分词形式。故填covering。
9. donated
【详解】考查非谓语动词。句意:我们需要能在仓库工作的人,他们可以把物品打包送到各个家庭,修理捐赠的家具等等。本句已有谓语动词repair,所以donate用非谓语形式,和逻辑主语furniture之间是被动关系,用过去分词表被动作定语。故填donated。
10. why 【详解】考查定语从句关系词。句意:事实上,战争爆发的原因有很多。分析句子该空需要一个连接词引导定语从句修饰先行词 reasons,并且指代先行词在从句中作原因状语,应填关系副词why。故填why。11. where 【详解】考查定语从句。句意:他被关进了监狱,在那里他遭受了身体和精神上的许多痛苦。prison 为先行词,逗号后为非限制性定语从句,先行词作从句的地点状语,用关系副词where引导。故填where。12. which 【详解】考查定语从句。句意:当兵马俑最初被制作出来的时候,他们被涂上了明亮的红色、蓝色和绿色,据信这些颜色与秦国士兵所穿的衣服的颜色相匹配。此处为关系词引导的非限制性定语从句,从句中缺少主语,且先行词a bright array of reds, blues, and greens 指事物,所以使用关系代词which。故填which。
13. when 【详解】考查定语从句。句意:人们普遍认为,我们已经进入了一个梦想最有可能实现的时代。定语从句修饰先行词age,在从句作时间状语,故填when。
14. where 【详解】考查定语从句。句意:学生可以进入城市图书馆,那里的学习氛围活泼而令人兴奋。分析句子结构可知,空处引导定语从句,先行词是city library,在从句中作地点状语,用where引导。故填 where。
15. who/that 【详解】考查定语从句。句意:许多来中国的西方人一旦意识到在外面吃饭是多么便宜,就会比在自己的国家做饭少得多。空处引导限制性定语从句,修饰先行词westerners,先行词指人,关系词在定语从句中作主语,应用关系代词who/that引导从句。故填who/that。
16. longer 【详解】考查形容词比较级。句意:可重复使用的袋子越结实,它的寿命就越长,塑料袋的使用也会更少。“the+比较级...,the+比较级...”为固定结构,表示“越……,越……”,所以空处应用形容词的比较级形式。故填longer。
17. largest 【详解】考查形容词最高级。句意:神泉古域是一家大型健康休闲乡村会所,是华北地区最大的温泉基地之一。表示“神泉古域”是华北地区最大的温泉基地之一。根据空前的“one of the”和空后表示比较范围的“in North China”可知,此处要用形容词最高级 largest。故填largest。
18.ourselves【详解】考查反身代词。句意:我的向导是扎西,他在长塘国家级自然保护区工作。“我们不是试图拯救动物,”他说。“实际上,我们是在努力拯救我们自己”。分析句子可知,空处作宾语;由主语“we”和句意可知,主语和宾语指同一人或物,表示“我们自己”,故应用反身代词。故填ourselves。
19.a【详解】考查冠词。句意:我们应该尽最大努力建设一个没有贫困的美好世界。world为可数名词,意为“世界”,此处表示泛指一个世界,用不定冠词修饰,且修饰词better首字母为辅音音素。故填a。
20. achievements【详解】考查名词的复数。句意:长城的建造被认为是中国历史上最伟大的成就之一。本题考查“one of the+形容词的最高级+名词的复数”的结构,表示“最……之一”。故填 achievements 。
阅读理解详解:
A
【导语】本文是一篇说明文。文章介绍了在旧金山和孩子们一起游玩的几个好去处。
【小题21】
细节理解题。根据Exploratorium 部分“It takes the best part of a hands-on children’s museum and mixes it with real science, exploration, and adventure.(它是孩子们亲身动手体验的博物馆中最好的一部分,并将其与真正的科学、探索和冒险结合了起来)”可知, Exploratorium 可带给孩子们亲自动手的科学体验。故选B项。
【小题22】
细节理解题。根据San Francisco Cable Cars 部分“The best line to pick up is the Hyde line because it is the longest.(最好路线是海德线,因为它最长)”和“Or ride another two lines where they won’t be as crowded.(或者再坐另外两条线路,它们不会那么拥挤了)”可知,旧金山缆车一共有三条路线。故选C项。
【小题23】
细节理解题。根据Boudin Museum Bakery Tour部分“Don’t miss taking the test to find out what kind of bread you are. It sounds silly but trust me, you’ll want to take the quick quiz.(不要错过看看你是什么样的面包的测试。这听起来很傻,但相信我,你会想做一个快速测试的)”可知,游客在布丹博物馆面包房之旅可以做一个有趣的测试。故选D项。
B
解析:本文是一篇记叙文,主要讲述了作者在感恩节晚餐打算送食物给无法享受美味晚餐的人,在孩子们的强烈要求下买了一盆紫色的菊花送给了一位老太太。老太太收到花后脸上露出了微笑,孩子们的善良和鲜花改变了老人的心情和生活。
(24)推理判断题。根据第一段I hoped they could experience a sense of their own power to bring change. (我希望他们能体会到自己带来改变的力量。)可知,作者的计划的目的是让学生感受到他们有能力有所作为。故选C。
(25)细节理解题。根据第三段 “You can’t eat flowers.”—It was wiser to use any extra money to buy something that could be turned into meals.(“你不能吃花。—用多余的钱去买一些可以做成饭菜的东西是更明智的。)可知,作者认为这些菊花“可笑”是因为她认为它们不能帮助有需要的人。故选D。
(26)推理判断题。根据最后一段The children were quiet. At that moment, they had seen for themselves the power they have to make another’s life better. The children had sensed that sometimes a person needs a pot of funny purple flowers on a dark November day.(孩子们很安静。在那一刻,他们亲眼看到了自己让别人的生活更美好的力量。孩子们已经感觉到,在11月的黑暗日子里,有时一个人需要一盆有趣的紫色花朵。)可知,孩子们点亮了老妇人黑暗的一天。故选C。
(27)标题归纳题。根据第一段In October, I told the eight-year-olds in the class I teach in Pompton Lakes, New Jersey, about my plan. “Since all of you have done extra jobs around the house to earn some money,” I said, “then we’ll buy food for a Thanksgiving dinner for someone who might not have a nice dinner otherwise.” I hoped they could experience a sense of their own power to bring change.(10月,我把我的计划告诉了我在新泽西州庞普顿湖所教班级里的8岁孩子。“既然你们都在家里做额外的工作赚点钱,”我说,“那么我们就为那些可能吃不到丰盛晚餐的人买感恩节晚餐的食物吧。”我希望他们能体会到自己带来改变的力量。)可知,文章讲述了作者在感恩节晚餐打算送食物给无法享受美味晚餐的人,在孩子们的强烈要求下买了一盆紫色的菊花送给了一位老太太。老太太收到花后脸上露出了微笑,孩子们的善良和鲜花改变了老人的心情和生活。可知,B. The Importance of Giving.(给予的重要性。)最符合文章标题。故选B。
C
【导语】这是一篇说明文。文章主要讲述了瑞士的一项研究发现,对于青少年来说,每周进行14小时的体育活动最有益于健康,而超过这个时间则可能对他们的健康产生负面影响。
28.词句猜测题。划线词句前文“Researchers from Switzerland say their study suggests that 14 hours of physical activity a week is best for promoting good health in teenagers.(来自瑞士的研究人员表示,他们的研究表明,每周14小时的体育活动对促进青少年的健康是最好的)”和第一段中“But new research suggests that too much sport for teenagers could negatively affect their well-being just as much as too little sport.(但新的研究表明,青少年运动过多和运动过少一样会对他们的健康产生负面影响)”说明研究表明每周14小时的体育活动最好,过多也会有害健康,从而推知划线词句“However, they found that more than 14 hours appears to be detrimental to their health.(然而,他们发现,超过14小时的运动看来对他们的健康 detrimental)”可知,划线部分意思是“有害的”。故选D项。
29.细节理解题。根据第四段“The researchers divided sports participation into low (0 -3.5 hours a week), average (3.6-10.5hours), high(10.6-17.5hours), and very high (more than 17.5 hours). The researchers found that participants in the low and very high activity groups were more than twice as likely to have well-being scores below 13, compared with participants in the average group. The researchers found that the highest well-being scores were gotten by participants who carried cut around 14 hours of physical activity a week, but exercising beyond 14 hours resulted in lower well-being scores.(研究人员将参与体育活动分为低(每周0-3.5小时)、平均(3.6-10.5小时)、高(10.6-17.5小时)和非常高(超过17.5小时)。研究人员发现,与平均水平组的参与者相比,低运动量组和高运动量组的参与者幸福感得分低于13分的可能性是后者的两倍多。研究人员发现,每周锻炼14小时左右的人幸福感得分最高,但超过14小时的锻炼会导致幸福感得分较低)”可知,研究人员发现幸福感得分最高的是“高”组。故选C项。
30.推理判断题。根据第一段“Teenagers have long been told that being active and taking part in various sports is good for their health. But new research suggests that too much sport for teenagers could negatively affect their well-being just as much as too little sport.(青少年一直被告知积极参加各种体育运动对他们的健康有好处。但新的研究表明,青少年运动过多和运动过少一样会对他们的健康产生负面影响)”可知,本文是一篇有关青少年健康的文章,应该取自健康杂志。故选B项。
31.主旨大意题。通读全文,根据第四段中“The researchers found that the highest well-being scores were gotten by participants who carried cut around 14 hours of physical activity a week, but exercising beyond 14 hours resulted in lower well-being scores.(研究人员发现,每周锻炼14小时左右的人幸福感得分最高,但超过14小时的锻炼会导致幸福感得分较低)”以及第五段“Commenting on their findings, the researchers say physical activity has been connected with positive emotional well-being, reduced sadness, anxiety and stress disorders, and improved self-respect in teenagers.(在评论他们的研究结果时,研究人员表示,体育活动与积极的情绪健康、减少悲伤、焦虑和压力障碍以及提高青少年的自尊有关)”可知,这篇文章的主要内容是参加体育活动与青少年幸福感的关系。故选D项。
D
【导语】这是一篇议论文。文章讨论了与朋友住得近的好处,并鼓励人们搬到离朋友更近的地方居住。
32.细节理解题。根据文章第二段“But Americans lived with friends and extended family long before the nuclear family became common.(但在核心家庭普及之前,美国人是和朋友及大家庭一起生活的。)”可知,在核心家庭普及之前,美国流行的是与亲戚和朋友一起生活的家庭群体。故选D。
33.推理判断题。根据文章第三段“Researchers have found that happiness spreads easily, especially among those who live close together. Friends living within a mile of each other are 25 percent more likely to feel happy, and their friends have a 10 percent chance of feeling happier too.(研究人员发现,幸福感很容易传播,尤其是在那些住得很近的人之间。住在一英里以内的朋友感到幸福的可能性增加了25%,他们的朋友感到更幸福的可能性也增加了10%。)”可知,这些百分比数据表明,与朋友住得近会让幸福感在朋友之间更容易传播。故选A。
34.细节理解题。根据文章第四段“And for people who live alone, living closer to friends can make savings on some things easier. You might share household items you don’t need every day, for example.(对于独居的人来说,住得离朋友近一些可以更容易在一些事情上省钱。例如,你可以分享一些你不每天需要的家居用品。)”可知,与朋友住得近的实际好处是可以降低生活成本。故选B。
35.推理判断题。根据文章最后一段“Many people are prepared to move for a new job, to be with a romantic partner, or even just for an adventure. Moving to be closer to friends should be no different. Friends are important to a good life. So why not shorten the distance between you and them (许多人准备为了新工作、与恋人在一起,甚至只是为了冒险而搬家。搬到离朋友更近的地方也应该如此。朋友对美好生活很重要。那么为什么不缩短你和他们之间的距离呢 )”可知,作者写这篇文章的目的是鼓励人们搬到离朋友更近的地方居住。故选C。
七选五:【导语】这是一篇说明文。文章主要就追逐梦想提出了一些建议。
36. 根据上文 You are never too old, too poor, too young, or too sick to live your dreams. Dreams are just dreams until you decide they are going to be something more.(你永远不会因为太老、太穷、太年轻或太生病而不能实现你的梦想。梦想只是梦想,直到你决定让它变得更有意义)”可知,本句为过渡句,引出后文关于追求梦想的一些建议。故G选项“如果你已经开始追逐梦想,这里有几件事你应该知道”符合语境,故选G。
37.根据上文“There will always be an excuse for you to keep waiting for the perfect set of circumstances to appear in your life. If you are going to be a dream chaser, start chasing your dreams now.(你总有借口等待生活中完美的环境出现。如果你想成为一个追梦者,现在就开始追逐你的梦想吧)”可知,上文提到现在就开始追逐梦想,即不要拖延,立刻行动。故C选项“不要把实现梦想的时间拖到明天”符合语境,故选C。
38.根据上文 This is where dreamers often get stuck, the taking action part.(这就是做梦的人经常陷入困境的地方,采取行动的部分)”以及后文“Dreaming is the formulation of a thought and living the dream is taking that thought into actions. If all the great dreamers in the world kept their dreams in the formulation stage we might not have things such as computers, phones, or cars. Think of the roles those dreams play in all of our lives.(梦想是一种思想的形成,而实现梦想就是将这种思想付诸行动。如果世界上所有伟大的梦想家都把他们的梦想保持在构想阶段,我们可能就不会有电脑、电话或汽车这样的东西了。想想这些梦在我们生活中所扮演的角色)”可知,上文提到了采取行动,即实现梦想的关键是要采取行动,而不是只是思维上拥有梦想。故E选项“拥有梦想是美好的,但实现梦想才是改变游戏规则的关键”符合语境,故选E。
39.根据后文“Every dream chaser meets them. Do not let your obstacles prevent you from continuing on the path to your dream. If Mark Zuckerberg, the creator of Facebook, had given up when he had his first major obstacle in 2006, who knows where Facebook would be today He instead chose to meet his obstacles and continued to the next phase of changing how we all communicate in the world today.(每个追梦人都会遇到这样的人。不要让你的障碍阻止你在通往梦想的道路上继续前进。如果Facebook的创始人马克·扎克伯格在2006年遇到第一个重大障碍时就放弃了,谁知道 Facebook 今天会是什么样子 相反,他选择了面对障碍,并继续进入下一个阶段,改变我们今天在世界上的交流方式)”可知,本句主要引出后文关于追逐梦想遇到障碍的观点。故F选项“当你在追逐你的梦想时,要准备好遇到障碍”符合语境,故选F。
40.根据本段内容“Sometimes people want to go so fast that they sabotage the speed of their dreams. The greatest dreams are the ones that are the most challenging. There is no easy button to living them. There is a transition phase that has to take place when you go from chasing to actually living the dream.(有时候,人们想要走得太快,以至于他们破坏了梦想的速度。最伟大的梦想是那些最具挑战性的梦想。没有一个简单的按钮来实现它们。当你从追逐梦想到真正实现梦想时,必须经历一个过渡阶段)”可知,本段主要说明了追逐梦想并不简单,不能破坏速度,要脚踏实地,没有捷径可走。故B选项“没有捷径可走”符合语境,故选B。
完形填空详解:【导语】本文是一篇记叙文,讲述了作者对潜水感兴趣但因为对深水的恐惧而犹豫,最终在一位潜水爱好者的鼓励下,决定克服恐惧参加潜水课程的经历。
41.句意:我想体验一下潜水,但被对深水的恐惧所阻碍。A. picked out挑选;B. settled down安顿下来;C. held back阻碍;D. brought up提出。根据后文by the fear of deep water”,可知恐惧阻碍了作者体验潜水,故选C。
42.考查动词词义辨析。句意:在一位潜水爱好者的鼓励下,我决定克服恐惧。A. overcome克服;B. hide隐藏;C. ignore忽视;D. share分享。根据前文I wanted to experience it but was 1 by the fear of deep water.”、“encouraged by a diving enthusiast”以及后文“I signed up for a diving course.”可知作者决定克服恐惧,报了一个潜水课程。故A。
43.考查动词词义辨析。句意:几天的理论课程后,我出人意料地通过了所有的理论考试。A. failed失败;B. avoided避免;C. cleared清除,通过;D. assessed 评估。根据前文“After a few days of theory sessions, I surprisingly”以及下文“But then followed the biggest 4 ”可知,作者通过了所有的理论考试。故选C。
44.考查名词词义辨析。句意:但接下来是最大的挑战。A. gift礼物;B. challenge挑战;C. promise承诺;D. surprise惊喜。根据上文“But then followed”以及后文 My instructor asked me to do a few more dives with him to 6 my confidence.”描述的困难,可知此处表示接下来是最大的挑战,故选B。
45.考查形容词词义辨析。句意:我在水下明显感到恐惧。A. terrified恐惧的:B. rude粗鲁的;C. ashamed羞愧的;D. angry生气的。根据前文I’ve been interested in diving. I wanted to experience it but was 1 by the fear of deep water.”,可知这里表示作者在水下感到恐惧,故选A。
46.考查动词词义辨析。句意:我的教练让我和他一起多潜几次,以建立我的信心。A. show展示;B. build 建立;C. shake摇动;D. cover覆盖。根据后文“my confidence”,可知教练让作者多潜水几次以建立信心,故选B。
47.考查名词词义辨析。句意:我能看到我想象中的和课程实际要求之间的巨大不匹配。A. mismatch不匹配;B. solution解决方案;C. connection连接;D. wonder惊奇。根据后文between what I thought I’d be doing and what the course 8 required”,可知作者意识到自己的预期与课程要求之间的差异,故选A。
48.考查副词词义辨析。句意:课程实际要求。A. secretly秘密地;B. accidentally偶然地;C. directly直接地;D. actually实际地。根据后文“required”,可知,这里强调课程实际要求,故选D。
49.考查名词词义辨析。句意:在接下来的几周里,我回顾过去,思考我本可以做些什么来让经历更愉快。A. holiday 假期;B. discussion讨论;C. suggestion 建议;D. experience经验。根据前文“My instructor asked me to do a few more dives with him to 6 my confidence.”提到了潜水课程的经历,可知这里表示作者思考如何让经历更愉快,故选D。
50.考查名词词义辨析。句意:这是一场心理游戏!A. card卡片;B. mind心理;C. health健康;D. word词语。根据后文“If I could win, I would be able to 11 this course.”以及上文提到自己对深水的恐惧,可知作者与自己的恐惧作斗争,这是一场心理游戏,故选B。
51.考查动词短语辨析。句意:如果我能赢,我就能顺利通过这门课程。A. write down写下;B. seek for寻找; C. sail through顺利通过;D. check on检查。根据后文this course”,可知作者希望能够顺利通过课程,故选C。
52.考查名词词义辨析。句意:如果我不再尝试一次,我将永远带着恐惧。A. item项目;B. try尝试;C. name 名字;D. record记录。根据前文give it another”,以及下文 I would always carry the fear with me”可知这里表示如果不再让自己尝试一次,自己将永远带着恐惧。故选B。
53.句意:恐惧只会随着时间的推移变得更糟。A. worse更糟;B. longer 更长;C. less更少;D. darker更暗。根据前文“I would always carry the fear with me”和后文“with time”,可知随着时间的推移恐惧会变得更糟,故选A。
54.考查名词词义辨析。句意:当我复习基础知识并穿上装备时,我对自己说:“就是它了!”A. innovations创新;B. comments评论;C. fundamentals基础知识;D. choices选择。根据空前“As I revised the”以及上文“After a few days of theory sessions”可知这里表示复习潜水的基础知识,故选C。
55.考查形容词词义辨析。句意:三个小时后,我成为了一名合格的潜水员。A. highly-paid高薪的;B. competitive竞争的;C. well-known著名的;D. qualified合格的。根据后文I finally overcame my fear!”,可知作者最终克服恐惧,完成潜水课程,成为了一名合格的潜水员,故选D。
应用文:Dear Freshmen,
I am Li Hua, president of the English Club in our school. I am more than glad to share with you my understanding of efficient English learning methods and give some helpful advice.
First of all, it is of great importance to know that interest comes first, efficient learning involves a persevering and enjoyable process. Admittedly, learning methods vary from person to person. Whichever method you choose, find a workable method that suits you best. Personally, I strongly recommend that we spare no effort to enrich our vocabulary and improve our reading comprehension. To achieve this, we can join a study group, read English books or listen to English programs. In addition, just as the saying goes, practice makes perfect. If you practice English as much as possible and learn from mistakes, you are sure to be an efficient English learner.
Best luck with your English study.
Yours,
Li Hua
【导语】本篇书面表达属于应用文,要求考生在校英文报上给高一新生写一封关于英语学习方法指导的建议信。【详解】1.词汇积累:高兴的:glad→delighted 有益的:helpful→beneficial 重要性:importance→significance 另外:in addition→what’s more
2.句式拓展:简单句变复合句
原句:I am Li Hua, president of the English Club in our school.
拓展句:I am Li Hua, who serves as president of the English Club in our school.
【点睛】[高分句型1] Whichever method you choose, find a workable method that suits you best. (运用了that引导的限制性定语从句和whichever引导的让步状语从句)
[高分句型 2] Personally, I strongly recommend that we spare no effort to enrich our vocabulary and improve our reading comprehension.(运用了that引导的宾语从句)

展开更多......

收起↑

资源预览