资源简介 2024成都新人教版七年级英语上学期期中检测试题(考试时间:120分钟 试卷满分:150分)第I卷(选择题 共100分)听力部分 (共30小题,计30分)一、听句子选答语。(共5题,每小题1分,计5分)1. A. Hello! B. Nice to meet you, too. C. Good morning!2. A. Those are horses. B. Yes, they are. C. They’re potato plants.3. A. They’re white. B. They’re mine. C. I like white.4. A. Have a nice trip. B. Yes, I was. C. Take it easy.5. A. Soccer. B. Science. C. In English.二、听力匹配。听句子,选择与所听句子内容相符的图片。每小题念两遍。(共5题,每小题1分,计5分)A. B. C. D. E.6. _________ 7. _________ 8. _________ 9. _________ 10. _________三、听短对话选答案。(共10题,每小题1分,计10分)11. A. It’s difficult. B. It’s useful. C. It’s cool.12. A. 633-5541. B. 336-5541. C. 336-5451.13. A. Science. B. History. C. Art.14. A. Mike. B. Green. C. Miller.15. A. In Jack’s room. B. On the sofa. C. Under the sofa.16. A. Some fruit. B. Some food. C. A bottle of drink.17. A. Finish his lessons. B. Get an e-mail. C. Go to the party.18. A. Eric’s uncle. B. Eric’s aunt. C. Eric’s mother.19. A. Black. B. White. C. Purple.20. A. Swimming. B. Skating. C. Running.四、听短文。听一篇短文,回答下面五个小题。 (共5题,每小题1分,计5分)21. Where is Kevin Smith now A. In England. B. In America. C. In China.22. How many people are there in the first photo A. Five. B. Six. C. Seven.23. What color is Terry’s jacket A. Green. B. Brown. C. White.24. What’s Oliver’s last name A. Miller. B. Smith. C. King.25. What’s the name of Kevin’s dog A. Puppy. B. Koko. C. Eric.五、听力填空。你将听到一篇短文,请根据短文内容,写出下面表格中所缺的单词,每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。(共5题,每小题1分,计5分)My school daysFrom Monday to Friday I’m 26 . Every day I have six lessons.In the morning I have four lessons and in the afternoon I have two.In the evening, I don’t have 27 . We 28 friends at home.At school, my favorite subject is 29 . It’s very 30 .第二部分 基础知识运用 (共30小题,计40分)六、选择填空。(共15小题,计20分)A.单项选择题。从 A、B、C三个选项中, 选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。(共10小题,每小题1分,计10分)31. — Hi, Wang Li, who is Miss Deng — Miss Deng is ________ nice teacher in our school.A. a B. an C. /32. —Are these his pens —________. They’re my pens.A. Yes, they are B. No, these aren’t C. No, they aren’t33. —It’s rainy outside. Where is ________ umbrella —Look, ________ is over there, near the door.A. my; yours B. mine; you C. my; your34. —________ your bottles —They are green.A. What colour is B. What colour are C. Can you colour35. —How do you improve (提高) your ________ —By listening to the tape and repeating each sentence.A. conversation B. pronunciation C. project36. The boy ________ his right leg yesterday. He sometimes ________ his leg.A. hurt; hurts B. hurted; hurt C. hurt; hurt37. The _________ home system (系统) can be controlled (控制) by a mobile phone.A. quiet B. happy C. smart38. 从每小题的三个选项中选出与所给单词划线部分读音相同的选项。polluteA. must B. puddle C. blue39. We can’t ________ this math problem. Can you help us A. work out B. put up C. prepare for40. —How is your brother doing —_________.A. He is doing sports B. He is fine, thanks C. He is doing very wellB.补全对话。根据对话内容,从下面选出适当的选项补全对话,并将选项的字母编号依次填在相应位置。 (共5小题,每小题2分,计10分)Li Hua and John are shopping in Datong Ancient City (古城).John: Hello! Li Hua. Those shoes in the window are nice! Let’s have a look.Li Hua: OK. 41John: Size 7.Li Hua: Size 7 42John: In China I wear size 40 shoes. Li Hua: Oh! 43 My shoes are size 37. John: Really You look taller than me. Li Hua: But I think you are heavier. 44John: I’m 48 kilograms.Li Hua: 45 I’m 46 kilograms.A. Your feet are bigger than mine.B. Yes, you’re heavier.C. How heavy are you D. What size are your shoes E. That’s so small.七、完形填空。先通读下面两篇短文,掌握其大意,然后从各题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出可以填入相应空白处的最佳选项,并将其选项转涂到答题卡上的相应位置。(共15小题,计20分。A篇共5小题,每小题2分,计10分;B篇共10小题,每小题1分,计10分)AHello, I am Wang Qing, a 13-year-old girl. I’m from Chengdu but now I am in a school in the USA. This is my e in and have a look. There are 30 desks and 30 chairs in it. This is my desk. My schoolbag is on 47 . My books are in my schoolbag. Everything is tidy because I like my school things in 48 places.Look, this is my friend Mike. He is from Canada. He is a nice boy. My English isn’t good so he always 49 me. The man in white is my history teacher Mr. Green. This term is 50 for him because he has many classes every day. But he thinks it is interesting. He likes this job and his students.46. A. bedroom B. classroom C. school47. A. him B. them C. it48. A. old B. some C. right49. A. helps B. thanks C. welcomes50. A. boring B. busy C. easyBHello, everyone! I am an American boy, but I am 51 China with my parents now. My name is Frank Miller. Frank is my 52 name. I’m 13 years old.I have a friend. He is from Australia. His name is Bob. His telephone 53 is 468-5149. Bob 54 I are in Zhejiang. We are students in the same school. It is very beautiful and we like it very much. But we aren’t in the same 55 . He is in Class 3, Grade 7. I am in Class 1, Grade 7. Mrs. Green is our English 56 . She is 29. Her classes are interesting. Mr. Zhao teaches us math. He is nice and friendly. He likes to 57 me with my math.Look! Some things are in my pencil box. 58 is that It’s a ruler. It’s nice. I can 59 it. R-U-L-E-R, ruler. Those are my 60 . I like to use(使用) them to draw pictures.51. A. on B. at C. in52. A. middle B. last C. first53. A. letter B. name C. number54. A. and B. but C. or55. A. room B. class C. grade56. A. student B. teacher C. friend57. A. help B. thank C. meet58. A. Where B. When C. What59. A. see B. look C. spell60. A. desks B. pencils C. chairs第三部分 阅读理解(共15小题,计30分)八、阅读判断。先通读下面两篇短文,掌握其大意,然后判断选项正误,正确选T,错误选F,并将其选项转涂到答题卡上的相应位置。(共5小题,每小题2分,计10分)My name is Paul. I like red. I have a red watch. It’s under my sofa. My name is Bob. I like blue. I have a blue notebook. It is on my desk. A tape player is on my desk, too.My name is John. I like black. I have a black bag. Two white baseballs are in my bag. My name is Frank. I like green. I have a green jacket. I am not tidy. My clothes are everywhere in my room. I can’t find my green jacket now.根据语篇内容,判断下列句子正误,正确的在答题卡上将“T”涂黑,错误的在答题卡上将“F”涂黑。61. Paul’s watch is under his sofa.62. A blue notebook is in Bob’s bag.63. Bob has a tape player on his desk.64. John likes black. He has two black baseballs.65. Frank is a tidy boy. His green jacket is in his room.九、阅读单选。先通读下面两篇短文,掌握其大意,然后从各题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出可以填入相应空白处的最佳选项,并将其选项转涂到答题卡上的相应位置。(共A部分5小题,每小题2分,计10分,B部分5小题,每小题2分,计10分。)AHello, boys and girls! The International Day of Friendship is coming! Here is the information about some students. Do you want to make friends with them Mike hello256806 Playing basketball is my favourite. I like Tom. He is very good at playing basketball but he still works very hard.Wang Hui hello259537 My favourite singing star is David. He has a different voice (嗓音). His story tells me that being different is fine.Helen hello256605 My favourite book is Running Wild. It is a story about Will and his elephant friend, Oona. Oona always helps Will.Jack hello259506 I like Doctor Who best. The man in this TV show uses his time machine (机器) to travel with his friends. They see beautiful things and stop bad things.根据材料内容选择最佳答案。66. What is Mike’s WeChat ID A. It’s hello two five six six zero five.B. It’s hello two five six eight zero six.C. It’s hello two five nine five zero six.67. Tony likes reading. Who might he want to make friends with A. Mike. B. Wang Hui. C. Helen.68. Who is good at playing basketball A. Tom. B. David. C. Will.69. What’s special about the man in Doctor Who A. The man sings well.B. The man can talk with animals.C. The man uses his time machine to travel with his friends.70. Which of the following is TRUE A. Jack is a very good doctor.B. Helen’s best friend is Oona.C. Wang Hui likes David best.BStudents in middle school have to learn almost eight subjects every week. What’s your favourite subject What subject is easy for you to learn To know more about students’ favourite subject, we did a survey in No. 2 Middle School. And the results are shown in Diagram I.Diagram I What’s your favourite subject From Diagram I, we can know that maths is the least popular (最不受欢迎的) subject in school. Why is that We did a second survey about the students who don’t like maths and the results are shown in Diagra II.Diagram II Why don’t you like maths Although maths is difficult, we still believe that it is a useful and important subject because everyone has to use maths each day. To make students be more interested in maths, the headmaster (校长) in No. 2 Middle School even organizes (组织) some activities.“Do you like maths Is maths your favourite subject Do you like to play with numbers If so, please enjoy learning maths! Because maths is a really important subject,” said Mr. Wang, the headmaster.71. Diagram I is about students’ favourite ________.A. food B. subject C. sport72. From Diagram I, we can know that students like ________ best.A. English and Chinese B. history and biologyC. geography and Chinese73. From Diagram II, we can know ________ of the students think maths is difficult for them.A. 20% B. 60% C. 45%74. Maths is a useful and important subject because ________.A. it is really difficult for students B. it is very interesting for studentsC. everyone needs to use it every day75. From the last paragraph, we can infer (推断) that ________.A. students in No. 2 Middle School don’t like maths at allB. students in No. 2 Middle School enjoy learning mathsC. the headmaster hopes more students can enjoy learning maths第II卷(非选择题 50分)一、根据首字母填空。(共5小题,每小题1分,计5分)1. —What e do you want to say to tainted stars (劣迹艺人) —They set bad examples for most of us.2. Who can i the movie to me in Chinese I want to know about it.3. Every Monday we r the flag on the sports field.4. Tom and Susan are my p . I love my family.5. Homework comes first and playing games comes l .二、补全对话。在对话的空格中填上适当的单词,使对话完整正确。一空一词。把答案按编号依次填入下方表格内。(共10小题,每小题1分,计10分)。A: Good morning. I am from Class 11. Which class are you from B: Oh, I am from Class 12. My 6 Dale. Nice to meet you.A: Nice to meet you, too. I’m Cindy 7 .B: So your family name is Brown, right A: Yes. How about yours B: Smith.A: I 8 . This is a great sports meeting (运动会). Some 9 come (来) here to help their kids (小孩). And we really need (需要) their 10 .B: Yeah. We always forget (忘记) things. We always ask “Where are my books ” “ Where is my hat ” Our things are 11 .A: Ha—ha. Look! Is that your 12 B: Yes. He wants to take some photos of me at the sports meeting. And he is very good at some ball games. We often play 13 .A: Really My father likes (喜欢) baseball, too. And he has a very nice baseball bat.B: Well, maybe your family and 14 can play baseball on weekends (周末).A: That’ s a good idea. What’s your 15 number We can call each other.B: It’ s 85917000.三、选词填空。根据短文内容,选择适当的单词填空,使短文意思完整。每个选项只用一次,有两项剩余。(共10小题,每小题1分,计10分)。However, surprise, full, arrived, visiting, popular, through, on, decided, herself, activities, togetherJoy Ryan is 93 years old. She and her grandson Brad spent many years 16 national parks (国家公园) in America.In May this year, they 17 at their last stop, the National Park of American Samoa. In October 2015, Joy and Brad visited Great Smoky Mountains National Park. They camped there and climbed the mountains 18 . At first, they only wanted to visit that park. 19 , after they had a great time there, Joy got interested in travelling. So Brad 20 to take his grandma to more places.Later, Joy and Brad went to many other wonderful parks. Their trips were 21 of fun. They enjoyed the beautiful natural scenery (风景) along the way. Brad also took lots of photos and showed them 22 the Internet. They were very 23 and more than 70,000 people liked their story. Their trips made a big difference to their life. In the past, Grandma Joy always stayed at home by 24 . She learned about the world just 25 watching TV programs. But now she likes walking out of her house to have a look at the world. What’s more, the trips help her keep healthy. For Brad, he also learned a lot. One is never too old to follow his or her dreams.四、阅读理解。A.阅读下面短文,并从六个句子中选择五个还原到原文,使原文的意思完整、连贯。(共5小题,每小题1分,计5分)。Friends are important. They are the people in your life that you know and like. 26 They can be older or younger. You and your friends can enjoy different things. Friends are fun. But how can you be good friends with others 27Introduce yourself.Say hello to someone new. See if he or she would like to play with you. 28 Ask questions to get to know each other better.Do things together.What are your favourite things to do Ask a friend to do them with you. You can play games, read or go for walks together.29It is fun to play with toys. Let someone else try when you are done. Take turns listening. Tell a friend about your day. Then let him or her tell you about his or hers.Help each other.Ask how a friend is feeling. 30 You can teach friends something they do not know. Ask them for help when you need it.A. Take turns.B. Here are some useful tips.C. Talk about yourself.D. Friends do not have to be just the same as you.E. Go to a doctor and ask for help.F. If he or she is sad, make him or her happy.B.任务型阅读。阅读下列短文,根据短文中的信息完成文后表格。(共5小题,每小题1分,计5分)。In recent years, shared vegetable plots (地) have become popular. That’s because more people want to be away from city life by taking up farming. For them, the All-Happy City, a shared ecological (生态的) farm in Shanghai, is a perfect place.Built by Chen Yougui in October, 2022, the shared farm is quite big. Members of the farm can plant radish, lettuce and other vegetables. This farm has about 200 members, some of whom even raise chickens and ducks. When they aren’t around during the week, they can pay the farm workers for their service of taking care of their land. It also provides members with a special place for barbecue.Chen runs the farm with the help of modern technology. There is a system which allows members to see their vegetables through their phones. Besides, each animal comes with its own QR code (二维码). So the chickens and ducks raised by customers don’t go missing or end up in someone else’s plot.Chen says that many of his members are parents. They want to teach their kids about science and nature and how farming works. Some old people would like to grow their food as a way of relaxing. And young customers usually get close to nature, enjoy life in peace and forget pressure from the city.The All-Happy City, a perfect place for farmingWhat can we know about the farm ·It is a shared ecological farm in Shanghai. ·It was 31 by Chen yougui in October 2022.What can customers do on the farm ·They can plant radish, lettuce and other vegetables. ·They can raise 32 like chickens and ducks. ·They can get a special place for barbecue.How does Chen run the farm ·By offering a system. Members are able to see their vegetables 33 their phones. ·By giving each animal its own QR code. Animals raised by customers won’t be 34 or go to someone else’s plot.Who are Chen’s customers ·Parents. They want to teach their kids about science and nature and how farming works. ·Old people. They would like to grow their food to 35 . ·Young customers. They can enjoy life on the farm.五、书面表达。(共1小题,计15分)36. 假设你叫Sally,下面这张照片是你的全家福。一天,你的好朋友Frank来你家做客,看到了这张全家福。请根据图片及表格中的信息,以“My Family”为题向Frank介绍你的家庭成员。词数40左右。家庭成员 祖父和祖母 爸爸和妈妈 弟弟和妹妹名字 Jack and Mary Mike and Anna Paul and Kate要求:(1)句子通顺,语义连贯;(2)包含图表中的全部信息;(3)文中不得出现真实人名、校名等。My Family________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________参考答案第I卷(选择题 共100分)第一部分 听力部分 (共30小题,计30分)一、听句子选答语。(共5题,每小题1分,计5分)1. B 2. C 3. A 4. A 5. B二、听力匹配。(共5题,每小题1分,计5分)6. C 7. B 8. D 9. E 10. A三、听短对话选答案。(共10题,每小题1分,计10分)11. B 12. B 13. B 14. B 15. C 16. C 17. A 18. B 19. B 20. B四、听短文。 (共5题,每小题1分,计5分)21. C 22. B 23. A 24. C 25. A五、听力填空。(共5题,每小题1分,计5分)26. busy 27. classes 28. meet 29. Science 30. useful第二部分 基础知识运用 (共30小题,计40分)六、选择填空。(共15小题,计20分)(A) 31. A 32. C 33. A 34. B 35. B 36. A 37. C 38. C 39. A 40. B(B) 41. D 42. E 43. A 44. C 45. B七、完形填空。(共15小题,计20分。A篇共5小题,每小题2分,计10分;B篇共10小题,每小题1分,计10分)(A) 46. B 47. C 48. C 49. A 50. B(B) 51. C 52. C 53. C 54. A 55. B 56. B 57. A 58. C 59. C 60. B第三部分 阅读理解(共15小题,计30分)八、阅读判断。(共5小题,每小题2分,计10分)61. T 62. F 63. T 64. F 65. F九、阅读单选。(共A部分5小题,每小题2分,计10分,B部分5小题,每小题2分,计10分。)(A) 66. B 67. C 68. A 69. C 70. C(B) 71. B 72. B 73. C 74. C 75. C第II卷(非选择题 50分)一、根据首字母填空。(共5小题,每小题1分,计5分)1. (e)lse 2. (i)ntroduce 3. (r)aise 4. (p)arents 5. (l)ast二、补全对话。(共10小题,每小题1分,计10分)。6. name’s 7. Brown 8. see 9. parents 10. help 11. everywhere 12. father 13. baseball 14. mine 15. phone/telephone三、选词填空。(共10小题,每小题1分,计10分)。16. visiting 17. arrived 18. together 19. However 20. decided 21. full 22. on 23. popular 24. herself 25. through四、阅读理解。(A) 26. D 27. B 28. C 29. A 30. F(B) 31. built 32. animals 33. through 34. missing 35. relax五、书面表达(共1小题,计15分)36. 例文My FamilyWelcome to my home! This is my family photo. These are my grandparents, Jack and Mary. Those are my parents Mike and Anna. The boy is my brother Paul, and the girl is my sister Kate. The tall girl is me! We are a happy family.2024成都新人教版七年级英语上学期期中检测试题答题卡(缺考标记) (姓名:________________________________) (条码粘贴处)(准考证号:)(注意事项1.答题前,考生先将自己的姓名、准考证号码填写清楚,并认真检查监考员所粘贴的条形码。2.选择题必须使用2B铅笔填涂;非选择题必须用0.5mm黑色字迹的签字笔填写,字体工整。3.请按题号顺序在各题的答题区内作答,超出答题区域范围的答案无效,在草纸、试卷上作答无效。4.保持卡面清洁,不要折叠、不要弄破、弄皱,不准使用涂改液、刮纸刀。5.正确填涂)选择题(请用2B铅笔填涂)1.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 2.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 3.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 4.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 5.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 6.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 7.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 8.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 9.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 10.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 11.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 12.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 13.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 14.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 15.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 16.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 17.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 18.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 19.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 20.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ]21.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 22.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 23.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 24.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 25.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 46.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 47.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 48.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 49.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 50.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 66.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 67.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 68.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 69.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 70.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] (请在各题目的答题区域内作答,超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效!)66.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 67.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 68.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 69.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 70.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 71.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ]31.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 32.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 33.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 34.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 35.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 51.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 52.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 53.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 54.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 55.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 71.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 72.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 73.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 74.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 75.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 36.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 37.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 38.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 39.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 40.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 56.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 57.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 58.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 59.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 60.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 41.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] [ E ] 42.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] [ E ] 43.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] [ E ] 44.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] [ E ] 45.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] [ E ] 61.[ T ] [ F ] 62.[ T ] [ F ] 63.[ T ] [ F ] 64.[ T ] [ F ] 65.[ T ] [ F ](非选择题(请在各试题的答题区内作答)I卷五、听力填空。(共5题,每小题1分,计5分)26._________27.__________ 28.__________ 29.__________ 30.__________II卷一、根据首字母填空。(共5小题,每小题1分,计5分)。1._________2.__________ 3__________ 4.__________ 5.__________二、补全对话。(共10小题,每小题1分,计10分)。6.__________7.__________8.__________ 9.__________ 10.__________ 11._________ 12.__________ 13.__________14.__________ 15.__________三、选词填空。(共10小题,每小题1分,计10分)。16._________17.__________18.__________ 19.__________ 20.__________ 21._________ 22.__________23.__________24.__________ 25.__________四、阅读理解。A.阅读下面短文,并从六个句子中选择五个还原到原文,使原文的意思完整、连贯。(共5小题,每小题1分,计5分)。26. _________27. _________ 28. _________ 29. _________ 30. _________B.任务型阅读。阅读下列短文,根据短文中的信息完成文后表格。(共5小题,每小题1分,计5分)。31. _________32. _________ 33. _________ 34. _________ 35. _________五、书面表达。(共1小题,计15分)My Family_________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________) (请在各题目的答题区域内作答,超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效!)(请在各题目的答题区域内作答,超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效!) 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