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2024济南人教版八年级英语上学期期中检测试题
（满分150分 考试用时120分钟）
一、听力（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）
A）听录音，从每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。
1．A．How was the food B．Where did you go C．What does she do on weekends
2．A．I don’t mind watching TV. B．He can’t find his schoolbag. C．Lucy didn’t stay up late.
3．A．Could I borrow that book B．Have you tried Chinese food C．Did he wear the new clothes
4．A．We will work hard at the garden.
B．We will take good care of the garden.
C．We will plant many plants in the garden.
5．A．I can’t stand watching soap operas.
B．He isn’t friendlier than his brother.
C．They didn’t bring enough money.
在录音中，你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题 A、B、C 中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。
6．How can Miss Han keep active
A．Eat too much food. B．Exercise as often as possible. C．Meat is bad for you.
7．How is Betty’s dad
A．He often drinks. B．He often thinks. C．He often coughs.
8．What time does Jenny usually go to bed
A．At 9: 30. B．At 11: 15. C．At 11: 45.
9．How often do they have history classes
A．Once a week. B．Twice a week. C．Three times a week.
10．Why does Lucy like giraffes
A．Because they are friendly. B．Because they are beautiful. C．Because they are interesting.
在录音中，你将听到一段对话，对话后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C 中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。对话听两遍。
11．What did Helen do on Saturday morning
A．Played tennis. B．Went to the beach. C．Saw a movie .
12．Who did Helen play tennis with
A．Tom. B．Mark. C．Nancy.
13．When did Helen go to the movies
A．On Saturday night. B．On Saturday afternoon. C．On Sunday night.
14．What did Tony do on Saturday afternoon
A．Cleaned his room. B．Studied for tests. C．Went to the movies.
15．How was Tony’s weekend
A．Noisy. B．Quiet. C．Bad.
在录音中，你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，从每小题 A、B、C 中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。短文听两遍。
16．How long has Tim been in Australia
A．For 4 months. B．For 5 months. C．For half a year.
17．Where does Tim like to travel best
A．Newcastle. B．Sydney. C．Alice Spring.
18．Where did Tim buy his sister a gift
A．In the northeast of Australia.
B．In the southeast of Australia.
C．In the middle of Australia.
19．Which place will Tim visit in Alice Spring
A．The history museum. B．The supermarket. C．The amusement park.
20．How will Tim go to Sydney
A．By train. B．By bus. C．By air.
阅读理解（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Come join us this May Day for our tea party from 3 to 4 o’clock. It’s 10 dollars one person and free for kids under 6. We have cakes and tea for you! Please help raise (筹集) money for cats in San Francisco Bay. Many cats have no home now because of the big forest fire last month. Spend your afternoon with 10 lovely homeless cats, and we will give 50% of the money to Austin Pets Alive to help cats find new homes.
Give back this holiday weekend— Help KitTea 96 Gough Street, San Francisco, CA www. ·@ Austin PetsAlive
21．The tea party is _______.
A．only for kids B．one hour long C．in the morning D．before May Day
22．A mother and her two 3-year-old boys need to pay _______ to go to the party.
A．$10 B．$15 C．$20 D．$30
23．Many cats in San Francisco Bay _______.
A．do not like living in the forests B．enjoy parties very much
C．love playing with kids D．have nowhere to live
24．What do we know about the cats at the party
A．They like cakes and tea. B．They are about 10 years old.
C．They live in San Francisco Bay. D．They are from Austin Pets Alive.
25．What does Austin Pets Alive do
A．It gives tea parties. B．It helps cats.
C．It raises money. D．It helps kids.
B
It was about 1:00 in the morning. It was bright light in my neighbor’s kitchen. I thought he might be having midnight food so I went back to my bed. Soon, there was a burning smell and I realized there must be something wrong. I jumped out of bed at once and went to have a look. I saw fire coming out of his kitchen. I shouted, “Fire! Fire!” But nobody heard me. I ran quickly to my house and called the Fire Department (消防队) and went back to my neighbor’s house.
I knocked at the door and called my neighbor’s name, but there was no answer. I tried to break into the house and saved a cat and a chicken. Then I poured water through the kitchen window but it was no use, because the fire was too big. Luckily, the firemen arrived and put out the fire in time.
When my neighbor came back, he was sad because his kitchen was burnt down, but he thanked me for calling the Fire Department and saving his pets.
A week later, my neighbor invited me to his home for dinner. In his new kitchen, he took a photo of me. Later on, he gave me the photo as a gift. It made me happy.
26．When the writer saw the light in his neighbor’s kitchen, he thought his neighbor was _________.
A．cooking B．drinking water C．playing D．doing the dishes
27．What did the writer do first after he saw fire coming out of his neighbor’s kitchen
A．He shouted for help. B．He ran into his house quickly.
C．He called the Fire Department. D．He knocked at his neighbor’s door.
28．The writer’s neighbor kept _________ as pets according to the text.
A．a dog and a cat B．a cat and a bird
C．a dog and a bird D．a cat and a chicken
29．Which of the following is TRUE according to the text？
A．The writer put out the fire at last.
B．The neighbor was at home when the fire happened.
C．The neighbor invited the writer to have dinner.
D．The writer took a photo with his neighbor in his new kitchen.
30．We can know from the text that the writer is _________.
A．outgoing B．famous C．helpful D．hardworking
C
Are you bored with your daily life Here are some things you should try before you are 18, because after that it’s too late.
Learn to swim
Seriously, this is so important that it can save your life. lf you can’t swim well, you won’t be able to do water sports like water skiing, surfing and diving. Even taking a boat trip will be dangerous for you. Make sure you do it.
Try at least one kind of team sports
Being a good team player is an important skill in life. You can’t just think of yourself, but have to work well with other people. Other advantages of team sports like basketball, football and baseball are that they keep you fit and healthy, and they are also great fun. Teams usually have a good social life too—you’ll go to lots of parties and make many friends.
Collect something
One of the best hobbies for under-18s is collecting things. You can collect different kinds of stamps, or you can collect things that make you remember what you have done, just like cinema tickets for films you have seen or emails from friends. The best way to collect is to have a special album to put your collection in and to write what each thing means to you. That way you won’t forget.
31．The most important reason for learning to swim is that ________.
A．it can save your life B．it can make you healthy
C．you might easily do lots of things D．it can make you happy
32．The underlined words “a good social life” in the passage mean ________.
A．you’ll study in groups B．you’ll go to parties and make many friends
C．you’ll take part in many matches D．you’ll learn to swim
33．The writer tells us that one of the best hobbies is to ________.
A．collect something B．do some water sports
C．send emails to your friends D．go to lots of parties
34．What kind of collection is NOT mentioned in the passage
A．Stamps. B．Cinema tickets. C．Snow balls. D．Emails from friends.
35．The passage is mainly about ________ before you are l8.
A．good habits to keep B．skills to have
C．things to do D．team sports to try
D
Vienna is a beautiful old city on the River Danube in the center of Europe. It’s the capital city of Austria and the center of European classical music. In the 18th century a lot of musicians came to study and worked in Vienna.
In the Strauss family, there were two composers called Johann Strauss: the father and the son. The father, Johann Strauss the elder, wrote and played music for traditional dances, called the waltz. His dance music made him famous all over Europe. The son, Johann Strauss the younger, was also very successful and popular. He wrote over 150 waltzes. In 1867 he wrote The Blue Danube waltz.
Mozart was another very important composer. He was born in Austria in 1756. Before he was six, he played not only the piano. His family took him around Europe and he gave concerts in many cities. He wrote hundreds of wonderful pieces of music. But he became very poor and died in 1791 when he was only 35. Like Johann Strauss, father and son, he was a great European musician, and many people still think his music is perfect.
36．We know that Vienna is ________ from Paragraph 1.
A．in the center of Austria B．the center of European pop music
C．on the River Danube D．a beautiful new city
37．How many important composers are mentioned in the passage
A．Two. B．Three. C．Four. D．Five.
38．Johann Strauss the elder was famous for ________
A．the dance music B．his son C．The Blue Danube D．the Strauss family
39．It can be inferred (推断) from the passage that Mozart was ________.
A．stupid and Lazy B．clever but lazy
C．clever and hard-working D．very rich
40．This passage can be found most probably in a(an) ________.
A．storybook B．newspaper C．Ad D．fiction
阅读理解七选五（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
In China, choosing a New Year gift for children can show your good wishes to them. Do you know how to choose gifts 41
Candy
Take some candy with you during Chinese New Year when you visit a family with children. 42 However lots of parents don’t want their children to eat too much candy because it’s not good for their teeth.
43
If your Chinese friends have children, do not forget to prepare some red packets when you visit your friends during Chinese New Year. Giving red packets to kids during the Spring Festival is to send good wishes and luck to them.
School supplies
You can visit your Chinese friends with some school supplies if they have children. 44 If the child loves painting, he must be happy to get a nice box of painting brushes.
Toys
45 such as a Barbie doll for a little girl, and a remote control (遥控) car for a little boy. A chess set is also a good gift for teenagers.
A．Red packets (hongbao)
B．Fruit baskets are common and popular.
C．A good-quality toy is a nice gift for children,
D．The children must be happy when they get the candy.
E．Here are some popular gifts for children.
F．Children should say thanks for the gifts.
G．You can buy something like a pen or a school notebook.
四、补全对话（5分）
阅读对话，从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个最佳答案完成对话。
A: Hi, Harry! You look tired. 46
B: Yes. I didn’t finish my homework until 11:00 p.m.
A: 47 We didn’t have much homework last night.
B: Well, I got a little distracted (思想不集中的) as I was doing my homework. For example, I played with my cat when it came to me.
A: 48 You need to finish your homework first so that you can have more time to play and do fun things.
B: You are right. 49
A: Sure. First, you need to find a quiet place without pets to do your homework.
B: OK. 50
A: You can also break your homework into smaller tasks (任务).
B: Those are great tips (实用的提示)! Thanks, and I’ll give them a try next time.
46．A．That’s ugly. B．Did you stay up late last night
C．It’s a pity to do that. D．Did you have a big party
47．A．How come B．What did you eat last night
C．Why are you tired today D．So what
48．A．It’s boring for me to hear that. B．Sounds interesting.
C．Was the cat cute D．Oh, that sounds too bad.
49．A．Can you give me some advice B．I made mistakes.
C．Can you do my homework D．Let’s play with the cat together.
50．A．What to do B．Where to do
C．How to do D．What else？
五、完形填空 （共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读短文，从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个能填入文章中相应空白处的最佳答案。
A long time ago, there lived a wise man named Zun-Nun in Egypt. A young man came to visit him and asked, “Teacher, 51 do you dress so casually (随意地) Nowadays, it is necessary to dress neatly (整洁地), isn’t it Or how will people know you are really a 52 and wise man ”
Zun-Nun smiled, took the 53 from his finger and said, “Young friend. I will answer your question, but first do one thing 54 me. Take this ring to the market. Can you 55 this for one chip (片) of gold ” 56 he looked at Zun-Nun’s dirty ring, the young man thought to himself. “How will I sell it at that 57 ”
He offered the ring to the vegetable, meat and fish traders (商人) and others in the market. But 58 was ready to pay a chip of gold.
He told this to Zun-Nun and Zun-Nun said, “Now go to the gold 59 and show the ring to the owner. Don’t give a price. Just 60 how much he will pay.”
One hour later the young man was back with the ring, “Teacher, people at the market 61 didn’t know the value (价值) of this ring. The gold trader 62 me 1,000 chips of gold.”
Zun-Nun smiled. “That is the 63 to your question, my friend. Someone cannot be valued only from his 64 . That ring was a gift from the king on my 60th birthday. There is only one ring like this in the world.” he said. “It’s very valuable. So never judge (评判) a book by its cover, young man. 65 yourself to make yourself valuable.”
51．A．how B．why C．when D．where
52．A．happy B．handsome C．special D．serious
53．A．dress B．ring C．gold D．basket
54．A．to B．on C．with D．for
55．A．buy B．find C．sell D．make
56．A．Although B．If C．When D．Because
57．A．place B．price C．time D．part
58．A．somebody B．anybody C．nobody D．everyone
59．A．food B．clothes C．book D．shop
60．A．worry about B．take up C．listen to D．prepare for
61．A．really B．hardly C．finally D．simply
62．A．cost B．offered C．spent D．lent
63．A．difference B．name C．answer D．prize
64．A．looks B．words C．actions D．talents
65．A．Believe B．Improve C．Enjoy D．Understand
六、阅读填空 （共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Mrs. White is seventy-five years old. She lives alone because her two 66 (child) are both in America. They only come back to China for the Spring Festival. Her neighbor, Lily, is a kind girl. She’s always ready 67 (help) the people in trouble.
One morning, Lily came to knock at Mrs. White’s door and gave her some dumplings made by 68 (she). She knocked and knocked, but nobody answered. “How strange it is! Mrs. White always 69 (come) to open the door for me. Though she’s old, she hears 70 (good). There must be something wrong 71 her today.” Lily thought. So she asked several neighbors to help open the door.
When they 72 (go) into the room, Mrs. White was lying on the floor. Lily and her neighbors took Mrs. White to the 73 (near) hospital in the town. After three days treatment (治疗), Mrs. White 74 (get) well again. “I can’t imagine what would happen if nobody found me. I’m so lucky 75 (have) so many good neighbors,” said Mrs. White with tears in her eyes.
七、书面表达（共两节，满分35分）
第一节 情境运用（10分）
根据所提供的图片，用一个完整的句子提问或应答。
76．
A:
B: Yes, sure.
77．
A: I had a fight with my friend. What should I do
B:
78．
A: Tom, what were you doing when I called you yesterday
B: .
79．
A:
B: I think Yu Gong Moves a Mountain is really interesting.
80．
A:
B: Qomolangma. It is much higher than any other mountain in the world.
写作（25分）
朋友是我们最珍贵的礼物。我们应该如何与朋友相处，让友谊长存呢？请以“How to Get on Well with Our Friends”为题，用英语写一篇短文记录你与朋友相处的故事及感悟。
写作要求：1.文中须包含以上提示信息，可适当发挥；
2.文章开头已给出，不计入总词数；
3.文中不得出现真实的人名、校名等信息；
4.表意清晰、流畅， 行文连贯，书写规范；
5.词数80—100左右。
How to Get on Well with Our Friends
A true friend reaches for your hand and touches your heart.
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
参考答案
一、听力（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）
1-5 AABBC 6-10 BCBBB 11-15 BCAAB 16-20 CABAC
二、阅读理解（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分）
A
21．B 22．A 23．D 24．C 25．B
B
26．A 27．A 28．D 29．C 30．C
C
31．A 32．B 33．A 34．C 35．C
D
36．C 37．B 38．A 39．C 40．B
三、阅读理解七选五（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
41．E 42．D 43．A 44．G 45．C
四、补全对话（5分）
46．B 47．A 48．D 49．A 50．D
五、完形填空 （共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
51．B 52．C 53．B 54．D 55．C 56．C 57．B 58．C 59．D 60．C
61．A 62．B 63．C 64．A 65．B
六、阅读填空 （共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
66．children 67．to help 68．herself 69．comes 70．well
71．with 72．went 73．nearest 74．got 75．to have
七、书面表达（共两节，满分35分）
第一节 情境运用（10分）
76．Could you please take out the rubbish
77．Why don’t you call him/her up to say sorry /Why not call him/her up to say sorry
78．I was taking a shower (when you called me yesterday).
79．What do you think of Yu Gong Moves a Mountain /How do you like Yu Gong Moves a Mountain 80．What’s the highest mountain in the world
第二节 写作（25分）
【例文】
How to Get on Well with Our Friends
A true friend reaches for your hand and touches your heart.
I had a quarrel with my good friend last year. And then we didn’t talk to each other for a week. With my mother’s encouragement, I said sorry to him. We were good friends again. However, do you know how to get on well with your friends
Here are some of my ideas. First, try to find out the reason why we disagree with each other. Accept each other’s ideas little by little. If we still have disagreements, we’d better not get too angry. Second, sharing ideas can make us closer. Besides, we should also learn how to really listen.2024济南人教版八年级英语上学期期中检测试题
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[ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
52
.
[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
53
.
[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
54
.
[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
55
.
[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
56
.
[
A ]
[ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
5
7
.
[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
5
8
.
[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
5
9
.
[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
60
.
[
A ]
[ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
61
.
[
A ]
[ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
62
.
[
A ]
[ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
63
.
[
A ]
[ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
64
.
[
A ]
[ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
65
.
[
A ]
[ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
请在各题目的答题区域内作答，超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效！
选择题
(
请用
2B
铅笔填涂
)
)
(
请在各题目的答题区域内作答，超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效！
请在各题目的答题区域内作答，超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效！
六、
阅读填空
（共
10
小题；每小题
1.5
分，满分
15
分）
66
.
_____________
67
.
_____________
68
.
_____________
69
.
_____________
70
.
_____________
71
.
_____________
72
.
_____________
73
.
_____________
74
.
_____________
75
.
_____________
七、书面表达（共两节，满分
35
分）
第一节
情境运用
（
10
分）
7
6
.
___________________________________________________________________
_______________
7
7
.
___________________________________________________________________
_______________
7
8
.
___________________________________________________________________
_______________
7
9
.
___________________________________________________________________
_______________
80
.
___________________________________________________________________
_______________
第二节
写作
（
25
分）
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
非选择题
(
请在各试题的答题区内作答
)
)

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