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巴东三中2024~2025学年高一11月月考
英语
全卷满分150分，考试时间120分钟。
注意事项：
1.答题前，先将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在试卷和答题卡上，并将条形码粘贴在答题卡上的指定位置。
2.请按题号顺序在答题卡上各题目的答题区域内作答，写在试卷、草稿纸和答题卡上的非答题区域均无效。
3.选择题用2B铅笔在答题卡上把所选答案的标号涂黑；非选择题用黑色签字笔在答题卡上作答；字体工整，笔迹清楚。
4.考试结束后，请将试卷和答题卡一并上交。
5.本卷主要考查内容：至必修第一册U3。
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例：How much is the shirt
A. 19.15. B. 9.18. C. 9.15.
答案是C。
1. What can be used by students when they write a paper
A. Oxford English dictionaries.
B. English-English dictionaries.
C. English-Chinese dictionaries.
2. What did the man do today
A. He practised the piano. B. He wrote some letters. C. He made a travel plan.
3. What is Marry’s suggestion
A. Inviting more people.
B. Doing background research.
C. Beginning the project as soon as possible.
4. What will the woman read on the plane
A. A magazine. B. A book. C. A newspaper.
5. Who dislikes milk tea
A. The man. B. The woman. C. The man’s sister.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. What did the woman say about the man’s brother
A. He had changed a lot.
B. He was very impolite to her.
C. She could never understand him.
7. What is the man’s explanation
A. That is the way teenagers are.
B. High school life is too stressful.
C. His brother has a pain in his neck.
听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。
8. Where does the man want to go
A. A bank. B. A bookstore. C. A supermarket.
9. How will the man get to the place
A. By subway. B. On foot. C. By bus.
听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。
10. What are the speakers doing
A. Looking for something.
B. Talking about a trip to France.
C. Checking their bags at the airport.
11. Where was the woman’s passport
A. In her handbag. B. Under the desk. C. In her wallet.
12. What is the woman like
A. Tidy. B. Impatient. C. Forgetful.
听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。
13. What can we know from the conversation
A. The man likes sports.
B. The school is very modern.
C. The man is good at playing football.
14. What’s the probable relationship between the speakers
A. Classmates. B. Father and daughter. C. Teacher and student.
15. How many subjects did the man learn in middle school
A. Seven. B. Six. C. Five.
16. How does the man feel about biology
A. Difficult. B. Exciting. C. Boring.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. Why are some people called “early birds”
A. They go to bed early.
B. They have a certain sleep timetable.
C. They wake up very early and easily in the morning.
18. When do most people go to bed
A. Around 9:00p.m. B. Around 10:00p.m. C. Around midnight or later.
19. How many teenagers sleep enough
A. One-fourth. B. One-fifth. C. Two-fifths.
20. What are nightbirds better at
A. Doing some IQ tests. B. Finding low-paid jobs. C. Getting good grades in school.
第二部分阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
When you enter into your new school, the first thing is that you need to know the escape (逃跑) map well. You may find the escape map in every classroom. Please go over it and remember the closest exit(出口) and right way to the exit.
What you should do：
*If you see a fire or smell smoke, don’t wait. Every room in the school has got a fire alarm(报警器).Use something hard, like a shoe, to break the glass and start the alarm system.
* If you hear the fire alarm, move quickly. Don’t stop T to get your textbooks and notes. Leave your things in the classroom.
* Don’t run! Walk quickly to the playground. Remember to follow the arrows(箭头)on the fire escape map.
* Don’t go home! Wait for your teacher to call your name and be sure that you are safe. Be careful. Don’t go back into the school buildings until a teacher has told you that it is safe.
21. How many Computer rooms do the school have
A.2. B.4. C.6. D.8.
22. What can you do if you see a fire
A. Check the map first. B. Shout loudly.
C. Break the window glass. D. Push down the fire alarm.
23. How can you get to the exit safely when you hear the fire alarm in Music room
A. Run out of the Music room, then turn left.
B. Run out of the Music room, then turn right.
C. Walk out of the Music room quickly, then turn left.
D. Walk out of the Music room quickly, then turn right.
B
On a busy Saturday, I was at the mall with my mum. The mall was alive with the chatter (喋喋不休)of people and the sound of music. Everywhere I looked, there were people dressed in nice clothes, laughing and chatting with their friends.
My mum, on the other hand, wore a simple dress and old shoes. Her clothes looked worn out compared to the others’. As we walked past store windows, I couldn’t help but notice the difference. I saw young girls in bright dresses and boys in tidy shirts. They looked so modern and confident.
Feeling a bit out of place, I tried to pull my mum towards less busy areas. I didn’t want anyone to notice us or, more specifically, notice her. It wasn’t because I wasn’t proud of my mum. I just felt she deserved(值得)better.
As we walked around, we entered a store with beautiful clothes. The fabrics(面料)felt soft, and the designs were fashionable. My mum’s eyes lit up when she saw a lovely sweater. “This would look great on you,” she said with a smile.
I checked the price and was shocked. It was much too expensive for us. I knew my mum worked hard to make ends meet. Every penny was made use of in our life. Yet, here she was, willing to spend on a sweater for me.
Looking at her, I realised something. My mum might not have the beautiful clothes or the latest accessories(配饰),but she had a heart of gold. She always put me first, even if it meant giving up her own wants.
Suddenly, I felt a wave of warmth. I hugged her and said to her softly, “Mum, I don’t need the sweater. I just need you.” She smiled, “I know, dear. But it’s nice to have dreams sometimes, right ” We left the store, hand in hand, feeling wealthier than ever.
24. What can we say about the shopping mall
A. It is busy. B. It is the biggest.
C. It is for young girls only. D. It is newly-built.
25. Why did the author pull her mum towards less busy areas
A. She feels sad about her old shoes.
B. She doesn’t like the shopping mall.
C. She doesn’t want anyone to notice them.
D. She is angry with her mum for her clothes.
26. What do we know about the mother from the text
A. She bought the sweater. B. She dislikes new shoes.
C. She can afford accessories. D. She works hard to support her family.
27. Which of the following can best describe the author’s mum
A. Hardworking and modern. B. Selfless and caring.
C. Humorous and outgoing. D. Rich and friendly.
C
Seven Bays Rock Climbing Gym is owned by Richard Avenz, the world-class rock climber who also owns the famous Climbing Gym—Subway. Seven Bays Rock Climbing Gym is a 6,000-square-foot gym on Gothelm Street that hosts a 200-foot-long climbing wall and a cafe, where you can relax before or after climbing, or simply sit and watch your friends go for it.
Rock Climbing is also about the people you meet, as much as the climbing itself. The gym is the perfect place for climbers to meet and share experiences. There are There are lessons seven days a week on the smaller wall and when someone is ready, they are let loose(放松) on the main wall, but always under observation(观察). The gym has a great safety record and plans to keep it that way.
The gym is open 24 hours a day, 7 days a week, but lessons are between 12 to 6 p.m. You can get a student package for 700 pounds a month and there are also yearly deals, but daily or weekly deals are not provided.
Probably one of the best things the gym offers is weekend trips for many experienced climbers. You can get out and try a real rock face at the cost of 150 pounds. We arrange hotel accommodation(住宿) for overnight and it’s free of charge. It’s a lot of fun. It’s a great way to meet people, strengthen your body and become part of the rock climbing community.
28. What can the climbers do in the gym
A. Watch a movie. B. Drink some coffee.
C. Take swimming lessons. D. Climb a mountain.
29. When can you take lessons in the gym
A. At 2 p.m. on Tuesday. B. At 7 p.m. on Thursday.
C. At 6 a.m. on Friday. D. At 10 a.m. on Sunday.
30. Who might be interested in Seven Bays Rocking Climbing
A. Sports fans. B. Music lovers. C. Scientists. D. Geographers.
31. Where is the text probably taken from
A. A textbook. B. A magazine. C. A diary. D. A travel guide.
D
The Top 100 City Destinations(目的地)Index 2023,produced by company Lighthouse, looked at leading cities from around the world and ranked(排名) them on standards including tourism, sustainability(可持续性),economic performance and health and safety. Paris has once again been named the world’s most attractive city destination.
Europe took the lead, with seven out of the top 10 cities and 63 countries in the top 100.The only non-European cities in the top 10 were Dubai at No. 2, Tokyo at No. 4 and New York at No. 8. Madrid came third, while Amsterdam, Berlin and Rome were at Nos. 5, 6 and 7respectively. Barcelona and then London rounded out the top 10. Asia did well in the top 20as Singapore (11), Seoul(14),Osaka(16) and Hong Kong(17) all made the list.
According to the report, the secret of Europe’s success is “fast-paced urbanization(城市化))a and widespread technology adoption”. Travellers now focus on high-speed Internet, flexible booking choices and spaces for teleworking. The report said, “Improving sustainability, transportation networks and social influence are some of the key goals cities are achieving today to increase competitiveness, improve their tourism offer and deliver a perfect customer journey.”
Istanbul topped the list for the number of international arrivals in 2023, followed by London and then Dubai. The cities with the biggest year-on-year growth were Hong Kong (2,495%) and Bangkok (142%).
However, growing visitor numbers can be a mixed blessing, with bad influence on the communities and the environment. Nadejda I Popova, a manager at I Euromonitor International, discussed i in 1a report the e ways cities are facing g up to the challenge of overtourism.
32. Which is the most attractive city in 2023 according to the report
A. Dubai. B. New York. C. Paris. D. Berlin.
33. What is Paragraph 3 mainly about
A. The influence of European cities. B. Advantages of big cities.
C. The secret of tourism development. D. Advice for young travellers.
34. Which city topped the list for year-on-year growth in 2023
A. Istanbul. B. Hong Kong. C. Bangkok. D. London.
35. What does the underlined word “blessing” in the last paragraph mean
A. System. B. Story. C. Feeling. D. Favour.
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
As is known to all, sports are necessary, but many people are worried about getting hurt in sports. The equipment(装备) you wear while taking part in sports and other activities is key to avoiding injuries(受伤).
Start with helmets(头盔). They’re important for sports and activities such as football, baseball, softball, biking, horseback riding, skateboarding, inline skating, skiing, and snowboarding-to name just a few. 36 Every helmet should be replaced after any accident, as there can be more problems you can’t see.
37 Sports participation(参与) is the leading cause of eye injuries in teens, but proper fitting protective eyewear can reduce the risk of serious eye injury by 90%. Don’t just wear your regular glasses when you’re on the court or field. 38
Wear a mouthguard if you play a contact sport where head injury is a risk, such as football, basketball, volleyball and boxing. 39 They can be fitted for your mouth by a dentist(牙医)or bought at sports stores.
And last but not least, the right footwear can keep you from tripping and falling. You know that sports like football, baseball, softball, and soccer require cleats(防滑鞋). 40 Ask your coach or doctor what shoes are best for your sport.
A. They don’t provide protection.
B. Need to find the right helmet size for you
C. Eye protection is also a must for many sports.
D. Helmets reduce the risk of head injuries by 75%一85%.
E. Mouthguards can protect your mouth, teeth, and tongue.
F. The right kind of equipment is important, so is the right size.
G. But you may not realize that sports like biking need special types of shoes， too.
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Being first time parents can be a really happy and 41 time for most people. The feeling-in a few months, you’ll be able to 42 a new little baby in your arms and call him your own—is 43 what married couple Kate and David Ogg felt. More 44 were heading their way when they found out that they were having twins. It is very exciting to have a baby, let alone having two at the same time. However, their lives were 45 worry when Kate went into labor(分娩) in just 26 weeks.
Although it is pretty normal that twins are born without full term(足月),26 weeks is also a bit 46 for some. There was a lot of stress and 47 at that day but what they didn’t know was that they’d receive news that would 48 their hearts. After giving birth, they were 49 that they had a boy and a girl. However, the doctor said that the boy didn’t survive(存活) and 50 him over. Without any words, Kate immediately took the baby and held him 51 to her. She called for her husband to climb up the bed and give the baby as much 52 as possible. They hugged him for some time and then suddenly, by some miracle (奇迹),the baby moved in Kate’s arms. The couple were 53 and looked at the baby who’s moving and breathing(呼吸).They immediately 54 the doctors to come quick. Now, the twins are already 10 years old and are both at the most perfect 55 as they can be.
41. A. exciting B. tiring C. sad D. risky
42. A. join B. bring C. hold D. drop
43. A. exactly B. especially C. usually D. slowly
44. A. chances B. surprises C. stories D. reasons
45. A. stopped from B. asked for C. set about D. filled with
46. A. successful B. early C. kind D. shy
47. A. hate B. happiness C. worry D. anger
48. A. break B. follow C. change D. protect
49. A. read B. planned C. spoken D. told
50. A. left B. fell C. handed D. checked
51. A. hard B. close C. simply D. easily
52. A. time B. joy C. heat D. food
53. A. shocked B. relaxed C. improved D. touched
54. A. thought of B. looked at C. found out D. called for
55. A. feeling B. health C. practice D. activity
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
I 56 (come) to England last d last summer. I have been in England for eleven 57 (month). I am going to finish my studies in England soon, and 58 (leave) for China next month.
At first it t was very 59 (difficulty) for me to communicate 60 other people in English. Now I can speak English much 614 (well), and even understand English television, 62 I have studied hard and my teachers and classmates have helped me a lot. I have lots of English friends now. Some of 63 (they) often invite me for dinner at their houses. They are 64 (interest) to learn about China 65 Chinese people. Every time they ask me a lot of questions, I really realize how little I know about my own country.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
假定你是李华，你校英文报正在开展以“Green Travel”为题的讨论。请使用图表中的调查结果写一篇短文投稿，内容包括：
1.出行交通工具的现状描述；
2.简单评论；
3.你的建议。
注意：
1.写作词数应为80左右；
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
第二节（满分25分）
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
“The package is from Uncle Aaron in Scotland,” Rylee told her father. Her uncle travelled a lot on business, so Rylee seldom got to see him. Her father’s only response was to raise an eyebrow(眉毛).
Rylee opened the box. She pulled out a large necklace(项链). One side of the necklace had a symbol of circles. It looked like writing on the other side, but Rylee did not understand what the words meant.
The box also had a letter from her uncle. He explained how he had found the necklace at a curious little shop. He described how the elderly storekeeper had told him that the necklace had special powers and warned him to be careful with it.
Her uncle ended the letter with “BE CAREFUL!!!” in big letters and a “laughing” emoji (表情符号). He did not seem to take the storekeeper’s warnings seriously. “Let me wear it to school today, Dad,” Rylee said. “Maybe it will bring me luck on my history test.” “Good grades come from studying, not from luck,” Dad said. “I did study, but everyone thinks this will be a hard test.” Rylee put her fingers around the necklace she still held, “I wish you’d let me wear it.” “Yes, you can wear it today.” That made Rylee stop to wonder, because her dad had never given in that fast before.
At school, Rylee heard a group of kids talking. Some said her necklace looked ugly, while others thought it silly to believe in good luck necklaces. She wished her classmates thought the necklace was as cool as she did. Without warning, all eyes turned to Rylee and her necklace. Students began to push to get a closer look. Everyone seemed to talk at once, telling her how cool it looked. All Rylee’s friends wanted to borrow her lucky necklace. That made Rylee stop to wonder why everyone changed their minds so fast.
注意：
1.续写词数应为150左右；
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
巴东三中2024~2025学年高一11月月考·英语
参考答案、提示及评分细则
1~5BBCBA 6~10BABAA 11~15ACACB 16~20CCCBA
【文章大意】本文是一篇应用文。文章主要介绍了学校的逃生路线以及遇到火情时的注意事项。
21.A 细节理解题。根据逃生路线图可知，该校有两间计算机房。
22.D 细节理解题。根据What you should do部分内容“If you see a fire or smell smoke, don’t wait. Every room in the school has got a fire alarm. Use something hard, like a shoe, to break the glass and start the alarm system.”可知答案。
23.C细节理解题。根据文章倒数第二段“Don’t run! Walk quickly to the playground.”以及逃生路线图可知，从音乐教室出来应该左拐到安全出口，不可以跑。
【文章大意】本文是一篇记叙文。文章讲述了作者母亲优先考虑女儿的需求，即使牺牲自己的需求，体现了伟大的母爱。
24.A 细节理解题。根据第一段“The mall was alive with the chatter of people and the sound of music. Everywhere I looked, there were people dressed in nice clothes, laughing and chatting with their friends.”可知，这个商场人声鼎沸，音乐声此起彼伏，到处都是人，是很热闹的。
25.C细节理解题。根据第三段“Feeling a bit out of place, I tried to pull my mum towards less busy areas. I didn’t want anyone to notice us or, more specifically, notice her.”可知，作者感觉与这里格格不入，把妈妈拉到一个不那么热闹的地方，不想任何人注意到他们。
26.D 细节理解题。根据第五段“I checked the price and was shocked. It was much too expensive for us. I knew my mum worked hard to make ends meet. Every penny was made use of in our life.”可知，作者的母亲努力工作养家糊口，每一分钱都会计算好用途。
27.B 推理判断题。根据第五段最后一句“Yet, here she was, willing to spend on a sweater for me.”以及第六段内容可知，作者的母亲在经济拮据的情况下依旧想为女儿添置新衣，即使自己穿着破旧。作者的妈妈是无私且关心孩子的。
【文章大意】本文为一篇说明文。文章介绍了世界一流攀岩运动员理查德·艾文兹创立的七湾攀岩馆。
28.B 细节理解题。根据文章第一段“hosts a 200-foot-long climbing wall and a cafe, where you can relax before or after climbing, or simply sit and watch your friends go for it”可知，里面有咖啡馆。
29.A 细节理解题。根据文章第三段“The gym is open 24 hours a day, 7 days a week, but lessons are between 12 to 6 p. m.”可知，每天的中午12点到下午6点之间才有课程。
30.A 推理判断题。根据文章第一段“Seven Bays Rock Climbing Gym is a 6,000-square-foot gym on Gothelm Street that hosts a 200-foot-long climbing wall and a cafe, where you can relax before or after climbing, or simply sit and watch your friends go for it.”及文章最后一段“It’s a great way to meet people, strengthen your body and become part of the rock climbing community.”可推知，七湾攀岩馆是为喜欢运动的人设立的。
31.B 推理判断题。文章介绍了世界一流攀岩运动员理查德·艾文兹创立的七湾攀岩馆，最有可能来自一本为运动爱好者推荐去处的杂志。
【文章大意】本文是一篇说明文。文章主要介绍了数据公司Lighthouse编制的《2023年百强城市目的地指数》中的一些数据。
32.C细节理解题。由文章第一段“Paris has once again been named the world’s most L attractive city destination.”可知，巴黎被评为2023年最具吸引力城市。
33.C主旨大意题。由文章第三段内容可知，本段由欧洲城市成功的秘诀引到旅行者们现在更关注城市的哪些方面以及城市需要达到哪些目标才可以促进城市的旅游发展。总结一下，就是城市旅游发展的秘诀。
34.B 细节理解题。由文章第四段“The cities with the biggest year-on year growth were Hong Kong (2,495%) and Bangkok(142%).”可知答案。
35.D词义猜测题。根据最后一段内容可知，本段主要阐述了游客增长是把双刃剑，推动经济发展的同时也会带来挑战，让人喜忧参半。favour与blessing是近义词。
【文章大意】本文是一篇说明文。在体育运动中难免会受伤，但是佩戴合适的装备可以很大程度上避免受伤。本文介绍了几种运动保护装备。
36.D考查上下文理解。根据本段第一句可知，本段是讲头盔。B项是关于头盔尺寸的选择，与下文内容无法衔接。故选D项。
37.C考查段首句。根据空后一句可知，本段是讲防护眼镜。C项符合语境。
38.A 考查段尾句。根据空前一句提到，不能在赛场上佩戴普通的眼镜。此处是解释不能这样做的原因。
39.E考查上下文理解。根据本段第一句可知，本段是讲护齿器。E项说明护齿器的作用，符合语境。
40.G考查上下文理解。根据空前一句提到很多运动都需要穿防滑钉鞋，此处提到还有其他运动也需要特制的鞋，G项中的“too”是很明显的提示。
【文章大意】本文是一篇记叙文。文章讲述了一对夫妇满心欢喜迎接新生双胞胎的到来，但是因为早产，其中一个宝宝出生后被宣告死亡。他们没有放弃，把宝宝抱在怀里温暖他，奇迹发生了，宝宝存活了下来。
41.A 考查形容词。根据空前“Being first time parents can be a really happy”可知，第一次当父母是一件开心
并且令人兴奋的事。
42.C：考查动词。根据空后“a new little baby in your arms”可知是把新生儿抱在怀里。hold“抱住”。
43.A 考查副词。根据上文内容第一次当父母是一件开心并且令人兴奋的事，几个月后，你就能抱着自己的小宝宝，这正是这对已婚夫妇Kate和David Ogg的感受。exactly“正是”。
44.B 3考查名词。根据下文“they found out that they were having twins. It is very exciting to have a baby, let alone having two at the same time”可知，他们很兴奋有了双胞胎，这是惊喜。
45.D 考查动词短语。根据空后“worry when Kate went into labor in just 26 weeks”可知，当Kate 26周就要分娩时，他们的生活充满了担忧。
46.B考查形容词。根据空前“Although it is pretty normal that twins are born without full term”可知，尽管大部分双胞胎不足月出生是很正常的，但是26周对某些人来说还是太早了些。
47.C 考查名词。根据上文可知，双胞胎早产太多，他们必定承受了很多压力和担忧。
48.A 考查动词。根据下文“However， the doctor said that the boy didn’t survive”可知，他们接到了令他们心碎的消息。
49.D 考查动词。根据本句内容可知，生产结束后，他们被告知有了一个男孩和一个女孩。tell“告知”。
50.C考查动词。根据下文“Kate immediately took the baby and held him... to her”可知，医生告诉他们小男孩没有活下来后把宝宝递过来给他们，Kate立马把宝宝抱在怀里。hand over“递交”。
51.B考查副词。根据本句内容可知，Kate二话没说，立马把宝宝抱着紧挨着自己。close“紧挨着”。
52.C考查名词。根据本句内容可知，Kate还叫丈夫爬上床，给宝宝尽可能多的热量。heat“热量”。
53.A 考查形容词。根据空后内容可知，奇迹出现了，宝宝活过来了，因此他们很震惊。
54.D 考查动词短语。根据上文可知，宝宝动了，重新开始呼吸，这里他们肯定是要立马喊医生过来确认和检查。
55.B考查名词。根据空前内容“Now, the twins are already 10 years old and are both at the most perfect”可知，这对双胞胎已经10岁了并且身体很健康。
56. came 57. months 58. will/am going to leave 59. difficult 60. with 61. better 62. because
63. them 64. interested 65. and
第一节
One possible version：
Green Travel
There are many ways we can choose from to travel to and from school. As shown in the pie chart, the most popular transportation among students is electric bikes, accounting for 50%. Private cars come in second place with 35%, while walking only makes up 10%. Only a small percentage of students use shared bicycles or public transportation.
While it’s great to see a high percentage of students using electric bikes, we should also consider the impact of private cars on the environment. Cars give out harmful gases that contribute to air pollution and climate change.
In my point of view, we should try to reduce our dependence on cars and encourage the use of more environmentally friendly transportation methods. Small changes in our daily lives can make a big difference.
第二节
One possible version：
Sitting at her desk, Rylee watched the teacher pass out their tests. Rubbing her fingers over the necklace, Rylee wished that just once she could get the highest mark. Later in the day, with the tests completed and marked, Rylee’s teacher spoke to the class, “I’m surprised by how poorly many of you did on your test, but one person did very well.” Walking across the room, the teacher handed Rylee her test. “Congratulations, Rylee, you got the highest mark.”
Rylee looked down at her test and found that her score was one hundred percent. She had never gotten one hundred percent before. Belinda, one of Rylee’s closest friends and the hardest working and smartest kid in the class, had only got ninety percent on the test. Rylee stared at her test again. Then she looked at Belinda, still upset over her marks. Rylee was getting a bad feeling about her good luck necklace. It turned out that getting something for nothing didn’t make people truely happy. She knew what she should do next.
听力部分录音材料
(Text 1)
W: Students should be allowed to use dictionaries when writing a paper.
M: Yes, but they should only use English-English dictionaries.
(Text 2)
W: I thought you had planned to practise the piano today, Tom.
M: Well, I did nothing but write letters all day.
(Text 3)
M: Hey, what advice does Marry give you on this project
W: Oh, she suggests starting early.
M: Yeah, that’s true. And I think it is also very important to do background research and invite more people to join us.
(Text 4)
W: I forgot to bring a book for the journey. I could have bought some magazines at the airport.
M: You can borrow my book if you like. I’ll probably read the newspaper on the plane.
W: Great! Thanks.
(Text 5)
W: Hey, Zack, what do you think of milk tea
M: Hmm...it’s not my cup of tea. But my sister thinks it is quite delicious.
W: Well, I also like it, even though it makes me fatter.
(Text 6)
W: Michael, your little brother was very impolite to me last week. I was really surprised.
M: I’m sorry, Janice. He will be sixteen in three weeks, and he has changed a lot since he started high school.
W: I have two younger brothers myself, and they are not the easiest people to get along with, so I guess I can understand.
M: In all honesty, I know I was a pain in the neck when I was his age, too.
(Text 7)
M: Excuse me, I am new here. Could you please tell me where the nearest bookstore is
W: Oh, go down the road till you see a big supermarket. Then turn right, you can find the bookstore. It’s next to a bank. You can’t miss it. Hmm...but it’s a little far to walk there.
M: Well, I see. How long will it take
W: Probably thirty minutes. So you can take the subway and get off at the third stop, or take the bus for six stops.
M: Oh, the subway is a good choice! Thanks a lot!
(Text 8)
M: Have you found your passport The trip is in two days!
W: No, not yet, but I know it is somewhere around here!
M: Honey, you’d better find it! These tickets to France are not cheap.
W: I will. You know me, always losing everything and then finding it at the last second...
M: Did you check the bathroom Maybe it’s in your handbag. You could fit a house in that thing.
W: Why would I put it in there, Tim That’s just silly. It probably fell under the desk.
M: If I check in the bathroom and it’s there, you have to buy me a drink! That’ll be the first thing we do when we get to the airport.
W: If you say so. I’m very certain I’m not that forgetful, though. Anyway, the drinks at the airport are usually pretty pricey.
M: Well, I guess you’d better start saving...
W: Why
M: Guess what I found in your handbag
(Text 9)
W: What attracted you to our school
M: I like your sports centre, especially the swimming pool.
W: Do you play many sports
M: Yes. I like basketball and volleyball.
W: Good, we have great teams here and you can join them. Where did you go to school before
M: No. 2 Middle School of the City.
W: What subjects did you take there
M: English, maths, physics, biology, chemistry and computer science.
W: Do you have your last report card
M: Yes, here it is.
W: I see you got a “D” in biology. How come
M: Well. I felt biology was not very interesting, so I didn’t want to spend much time on it. Can I drop it for history
W: Maybe you can. I’ll report it to the headmaster.
M: Thanks a lot.
(Text 10)
M/W: Everyone has a natural sleep timetable. You go to bed and wake up at a certain time. But everyone’s timetable is not the same. Some people—the early birds—get up very early and wake up easily in the morning. They go to bed around 9: 00 or 10: 00 p. m. Most people are the nightbirds—stay awake until midnight or later. For them, it is difficult to wake up early. What do we know about early birds and nightbirds Here is what studies show.
Teenagers are natural nightbirds. Also, most need nine to ten hours’ sleep a night. But in many places, the school or work day starts at 8: 00 a. m. For this reason, only one in five teenagers sleeps enough. More early birds get good grades in school, but nightbirds do better on some IQ tests, according to a study of 1,000 Spanish teens. People with high scores on these tests usually get good jobs.

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