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2024年下学期期中联考八年级试卷
英 语
温馨提示： 1、答题前，请考生先将自己的姓名、准考证号填写清楚，并认真核对条形码上的姓名、准考证号、考室和座位号； 2、必须在答题卡上答题，在草稿纸、试题卷上答题无效； 3、答题时，请考生注意各大题题号后面的答题提示； 4、请勿折叠答题卡，保持字体工整、笔迹清晰、卡面清洁; 5、答题卡上不得使用涂改液、涂改胶和贴纸； 6、本学科试卷中听力材料以中速朗读两遍。 试卷分为四个部分，共8页，61小题，时量100分钟，满分100分。
第一部分 听力理解（共两节，满分20分）
第一节 (共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。
1. How long does Tina take online piano lessons every week
A. For three hours. B. For four hours. C. For five hours.
2. What is Frank in the sitcom
A. A singer. B. A reporter. C. A dentist.
3. What subject is Nelly good at
A. History. B. Science. C. Music.
4. What did Lisa do on vacation
A. She went camping. B. She learned to dance. C. She fed the hens.
5. Where are the speakers now
A. In the cinema. B. In the hospital. C. In the park.
第二节 (共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分)
听下面6段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。
听第六段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. Where does Tom's uncle work
A. In a post office. B. In a museum. C. In a bank.
7. How long did Tom stay in Suzhou
A. For three days. B. For seven days. C. For ten days.
听第七段材料，回答第8、9题。
8. How often does Jim watch talk shows
A. Once a week. B. Twice a week. C. Three times a week.
9. What does Jim think of soap operas
A. He loves them. B. He doesn't mind them. C. He can't stand them.
听第八段材料，回答第10、11题。
What does Jeff look like
A. He wears glasses. B. He has black hair. C. He is thin.
11. In what competition did Jeff win first prize
A. Art. B. English. C. Science.
听第九段材料，回答第12至14题。
12. What does Mary drink every day
A. Milk. B. Juice. C. Tea.
13. What does Mary usually do before she goes to bed
A. She does some reading. B. She writes in the diary. C. She listens to the radio.
14. How old is Mary now
A.10. B. 12. C. 14.
听第十段材料，回答第15至17题。
15. Who does Peter plan to make fruit salad for
A. His grandma. B. His mother. C. His sister.
16. How does Peter plan to go to the supermarket this afternoon
A. By subway. B. By bus. C. By bike.
17. What time do the speakers plan to meet this afternoon
A. At 1:30. B. At 2:00. C. At 2:30.
听第十一段材料，回答第18至20题。
18. What does Joe usually cook for breakfast
A. Pancakes. B. Burgers. C. Eggs.
19. How does Joe often care about Susan
A. He shares jokes with her. B. He gives some cards to her. C. He helps her with homework.
20. What did Joe bring to Scott
A. The magazine. B. The notebook. C. The CD player.
第二部分．阅读理解（共两节，满分30分）
第一节 阅读选择（共11小题；每小题2分，满分22分）
阅读下列材料，从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
Welcome to Our School Clubs
Chinese Calligraphy (书法) Club Do you want to learn how to write traditional Chinese characters Do you want to enjoy the beauty of Chinese Calligraphy Ms. Zhao is waiting for you. Time: Every Thursday afternoon Room: 105 Beijing Opera Club Are you interested in music, dancing, painting or beautiful clothes You can enjoy all of these in our club. Sometimes we go to Mei Lanfang Theatre to watch Beijing Opera. Time: Friday afternoon Room:107
Taijiquan Club Choose something new and fun. Taiji is an interesting and traditional kind of exercise. It’s slow and quiet, but very good for your health. Time: 5:30 pm—6:30 pm (from Monday to Friday) Room: 201 Chinese Knot Club Do you like art Come to our Chinese Knot (结) Club. Make your own knots and learn something about Chinese culture. The traditional red knots bring you good luck. Time: Tuesday afternoon Room: 308
21．Beijing Opera Club is in ________.
A．Room 105 B．Room 201 C．Room 107
22．When can you go to the Taijiquan Club
A．At 5:00 pm on Sunday. B．At 6:00 pm on Wednesday.
C．At 5:00 pm on Tuesday.
23．In Chinese culture, the red knots can bring us ________.
A．good characters B．good luck C．beautiful clothes
B
Almost all the children love watching television, some children will spend six hours a day at school, then spent another four to six hours in front of the television set. Some even watch television for eight hours or more on Saturdays.
TV shows are like books or films. A child can learn both good things and bad things from them. Some programs help children understand the world better. Others introduce them to people and places from other countries or other times in history. With TV, a child does not have to go to the zoo to see animals or to the ocean to see a ship. Boys and girls can see plays, concerts or games at home. Television brings many places and events into our homes.
Some programs show crime and other things that children shouldn’t watch, so parents need to help their kids to find out the good programs.
24．Some children usually spend ________ a day in school.
A．four hours B．four to six hours C．six hours
25．Some children spend eight hours or more ________ on Saturdays.
A．Studying B．playing card games C．watching TV
26．What does the underlined sentence mean
A．Television is bad for children.
B．Television makes people love their homes.
C．People can learn about things without going to see them.
27．What is the main idea of the passage
A．Why TV is bad. B．The good and had sides of TV. C．How kids watch TV.
C
Toby likes eating at restaurants with his family or his friends. He is excited as long as he gets his favorite food. However, eating at a restaurant too often is not healthy. It is difficult to know the cooking methods in restaurants behind the closed doors of their kitchen. Do they wash vegetables clean Do they use clean plates
Does that mean you shouldn’t eat at a restaurant any longer The answer is “no”. The key is to eat smartly. Here are some tips to eat healthily at a restaurant.
Drink some fresh fruit juice when you are eating at restaurants. Stay away from aerated drinks (碳酸饮料) as much as possible. They are not good for your health. Make sure to drink plenty of water. Water is not only important for your body, but also can help you not eat too much. Drink soups made from fresh vegetables, fish or white meat. Make sure that your meal is free from preservatives (防腐剂) .
Avoid eating too much salt and fat. Also, don’t eat too much food that is rich in sugar. It is unhealthy for your teeth.
28．What can we learn from paragraph 1
A．People should never eat in a restaurant.
B．It’s not good for one’s health if one often eats at restaurants.
C．Toby likes fast food very much.
29．When you eat at a restaurant, you’d better ________.
A．order aerated drinks
B．stay away from fresh juice
C．have soups made from fresh materials (食材)
30．What does the underlined word “Avoid” means It means______in Chinese
A．需要 B．应该 C．避免
31．What is the writer’s purpose (目的) of the passage
A．To tell restaurants how to attract(吸引）people.
B．To tell us what food at restaurants is usually like.
C．To advise us how to eat healthily at a restaurant.
第二节 语篇补全(共4小题；每小题2分，满分8分)
根据短文内容，从短文后面的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有一项是多余项。
Mid-Autumn Festival ( 中 秋 节) is one of the most important traditional Chinese festivals. There are many films about it. (32)_______
The film tells the story of a young girl Fei Fei. Fei Fei grows up listening to her mom telling the story of Chang'e. Sadly, Fei Fei's mom dies. A few years later, her father plans to get married (结婚) again. Fei Fei wants to stop him. (33)_______ She believes that if she can prove(证明) there is Chang'e on the moon to her dad, he'll think of his love for her mother and believe true love can last forever. On her trip, Fei Fei learns the meaning of love. She learns to face the pain in life and move on.
The story of Chang'e and the tradition of celebrating the Mid-Autumn Festival have been popular with Chinese people. (34)_______ In Vietnam, they call the festival T t Trung Thu, and Chang'e H ng Nga.
At the festival, kids go outside with pretty lanterns, symbolizing the moonlight. In Japan, the festival is Tsukimi, and there is a story about a rabbit making rice cakes on the moon. That is a symbol(象征） of Japanese people's hard-working spirit. In South Korea（韩国）, they call the festival Chuseok. People come together, share nice food, dance and play games.
Each country has different names and ways of celebration for the festival. (35)_______ People come together to show love for friends and family and respect (尊重) for their own culture and traditions.
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分25分）
第一节 完形填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Running from Sept 23 to Oct 8, the Hangzhou Asian Games (亚运会) have 40 sports. But there are just 32 sports in the Paris Olympic Games (巴黎奥运会) in 2024. Why do the Hangzhou Asian Games have 36 sports
According to the IOC (国际奥委会), sports in the Olympic Games should be 37 enough. For example, for a men’s sport in the Olympics, people should play it in more than 75 countries and on four continents (洲). For a women’s sport, people should play it in 38 40 countries and on three continents. What’s more, the Hangzhou Asian Games should have some different sports and people in Asia usually 39 playing them.
Kabaddi (卡巴迪) and sepak takraw (藤球) are two 40 . Kabaddi, with a history of 41 4,000 years, started in Asia. It’s just like the game “eagle catching chickens (老鹰捉小鸡)”, kabaddi only needs a place that is 13 meters long and 10 meters wide. Sepak takraw is also a sport that first 42 popular in Asia. When you do this sport, you will 43 you are playing the Chinese shuttlecock kicking (踢毽子). “ 44 it’s my first time to see these ‘non-Olympic’ sports, I am really interested in them. It’s always enjoyable to learn 45 new.” said a sports reporter from the US.
36．A．more B．less C．better
37．A．necessary B．popular C．pretty
38．A．as long as B．at least C．at last
39．A．enjoy B．mind C．stand
40．A．prizes B．cartoons C．examples
41．A．over B．at C．by
42．A．won B．tried C．got
43．A．bring out B．feel like C．find out
44．A．If B．Though C．So
45．A．someone B．somewhere C．something
第二节 语法填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读下面的材料，在空白处填入一个适当的词，或填入括号内所给单词的正确形式（每空最多不超过三个单词）。
I don’t like to stay at home during the vacation. Last summer, my family took a trip to Hong Kong. It was a 46 (wonder) trip.
We went there 47 plane, because we wanted to get there as soon as possible. We 48 (arrive) there at about eleven o’clock and we had lunch there. We ate 49 (noodle). They were delicious. The weather was 50 (sun) and hot, so we swam in the sea. There 51 (be) about 100 people on the beach.
Disneyland is one of the 52 (good) places in Hong Kong, so we also visited the Disneyland. After visiting it, we had a meal in one of the restaurants in the park. My parents felt 53 little tired, so I met Mickey Mouse and Donald Duck by myself. We stayed in Hong Kong for a week. We took many photos but we didn’t buy 54 (something) because things in the store were too expensive. And then, we went back home.
It was 55 (real) a fantastic trip. I enjoyed the trip.
第四部分 综合技能 （共两节，满分25分）
第一节 阅读表达（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
阅读下面的短文，回答问题或将划线部分译成英文或中文。
Ella loves her grandpa. He lives in Texas and comes to visit her once a month. Ella wishes he could come to visit every week because he tells great stories and makes her favorite dinner.
(59)爷爷做饭很有天赋。Ella loves the barbeque chicken ( 烤 鸡) that Grandpa makes.
One day, Ella asked her mom to make the chicken. Ella’s mom said,“OK, I will try.” Ella watched her mom prepare the sauce (准备酱汁) for the chicken. It looked delicious. When the chicken was ready, Ella’s family sat down to eat. Her mom tasted the chicken and then said, “(60) It doesn’t taste as good as Grandpa’s. What do you think of it, Ella ”Ella thought so, too.
The next time her grandpa came to visit, Ella told him the story about her mom trying to make the chicken. Her grandpa laughed,“That is a fantastic story.”Then he taught Ella and her mom how to make the chicken.
Ella and her mom make the barbeque chicken once a week. But they still can’t make the barbeque chicken as well as Grandpa.
56. Where does Ella’s grandpa live
_________________________________
57. What did Ella tell her grandpa
_________________________________
58. How often do Ella and her mom make the barbeque chicken
_________________________________
59. 将短文中画线句子翻译成英文。
_________________________________
60. 将短文中画线句子翻译成中文。
_________________________________
第二节 书面表达（满分15分）
61．朋友就像是夜空里的星星和月亮，彼此鼓励，彼此守望。学校英语社以“朋友”为主题发起征文活动。假如Mike是你最好的朋友，请以“My best friend”为题，从以下五个方面写一篇英文作文介绍他:
1.是一个帅气的男孩，在班上他个子最高，性格最外向；
2.每天起得最早，喜欢做运动，每周锻炼三四次，身体很健康；
3.喜欢吃蔬菜和水果，有一个好的饮食习惯；
4.在班上学习最努力，最喜欢英语学科，平时爱看英语书，认为英语比数学有趣；
5.喜欢看新闻，希望了解世界各地正在发生的事情。
注意:
文中不得出现真实人名和校名。可适当发挥，但必须包含所给信息，80词左右。
My best friend
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试卷第1页，共2页八年级期中英语
参考答案和评分标准：
1-20小题（每小题1分，共20分)；21-35小题(每小题2分，共30分)36-45小题（每小题1.5分，共15分）
题号 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
答案 A C B C A C B B C A
题号 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
答案 C A C B C B C A A B
题号 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
答案 C B B C C C B B C C
题号 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
答案 C A B E C A B B A C
题号 41 42 43 44 45
答案 A C B B C
46-55小题（每小题1分，共10分）
46．wonderful 47．by 48．arrived 49．noodles 50．sunny 51．were 52．best 53．a 54．anything 55．really
56-60小题（每小题2分，共10分）
He lives in Texas.
She told her grandpa the story about her mom trying to make the chichen.
Once a week.
My grandpa is talented in cooking.
它的味道不如爷爷的好。
书面表达（15分）：略
答案第1页，共2页

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