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东西湖区2024-2025学年度上学期期中考试
八年级 英语试卷
亲爱的同学，在你答题前，请认真阅读下面的注意事项：
1. 本试卷由第1卷 (选择题) 和第II卷 (非选择题) 两部分组成。全卷共10页，七大题，满分 120分。考试用时 120分钟。
2. 答第1卷 (选择题) 时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把”答题卡”上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案。不得答在”试卷”上。
3. 答第II卷 (非选择题) 时，答案用0. 5毫米黑色笔迹签字笔书写在”答题卡”上。答在”试卷”上无效。
4. 认真阅读”答题卡”上的注意事项。
预祝你取得优异成绩！
第Ⅰ卷 (选择题 共 80分)
第一部分 听力部分
一、听力测试 (共三节)
第一节 (共4 小题，每小题 1分，满分4分)
听下面4个问题。每个问题后有三个答语，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每个问题后，你都有 5秒钟的时间来作答和阅读下一小题。每个问题仅读一遍。
1. A. At 10: 00. B. Once a month. C. For 3 weeks.
2. A. To Beijing. B. Of course. C. My mother.
‘3. A. Very kind. B. By bus. C. Animal World.
4. A. Because it’s cheaper. B. It’s the worst. C. No, she isn’t.
第二节 (共8小题，每小题1分，满分8分)
听下面 8 段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
5. Why does Jenny like Wanda Plaza
A. It has the newest movie. B. It has the most comfortable seats. C. It has the best service.
6. What will they probably do this afternoon
A. Go to the mountains. B. Listen to the radio. C. Stay at home.
7. Who does the girl think runs the fastest
A. Lily. B. Kate. C. Lucy.
8. What does the man think of the book
A. He loves it. B. He doesn’t mind it. C. He can’t stand it.
9. When does Paul usually get home
A. At 4: 00 p. m. B. At 4: 30 p. m. C. At 5: 00 p. m.
10. Where are the two speakers talking
A. In the classroom. B. In an office. C. In a restaurant.
11. What would the woman probably say to the man next
A. No problem. B. Help yourself! C. Have a point.
12. Where did the woman go
A. B. C.
第三节 (共13 小题，每小题 1分，满分13分)
听下面4段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题 5 秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答13至15三个小题。
13. What does Mike plan to do after school
A. See a movie. B. Take a walk. C. Have a rest.
14. What is the movie about
A. Chang’ e. B. Hua Mulan. C. Monkey King.
15. Which is true according to the conversation
A. Jennie will watch the same movie.
B. Mike doesn’t like the movie.
C. The character in the movie is not smart.
听下面一段对话，回答16至18三个小题。
16. What does the girl think of ChatGPT
A. Interesting. B. Successful. C. Useful.
17. What can ChatGPT do according to the girl
A. Sing songs. B. Ask questions. C. Write stories.
18. What will students be like if they keep using ChatGPT to do their homework
A. More creative. B. Lazier. C. More talented.
听下面一段对话，回答19至22四个小题。
19. What’s the relationship (关系) between the two boys
A. Brothers. B. Friends. C. Classmates.
20. How often does Tom play tennis
A. Once a week. B. Twice a week. C. Five times a week.
21. How is Sam
A. He is more outgoing. B. He is quieter. C. He is more serious.
22. What does Sam like best
A. Books. B. Sports. C. Music.
听下面一段独白，回答23至25三个小题。
23. What did the monkey do
A. Swam in a lake. B. Looked for food. C. Climbed a mountain.
24. How did Betty feel at the top of Mount Tianzi
A. Scared. B. Relaxed. C. Amazed.
25. What is the text for
A. Sharing happiness with her parents.
B. Introducing Zhangjiajie to Lucy.
C. Giving some advice.
第二部分 笔试部分
二、选择填空 (共 10 小题，每小题 1分，满分 10分)
从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个最佳答案。将代表该答案的字母在答题卡上相应的位置涂黑。
26. —Granny, it’s good to have dumplings for Winter Solstice (冬至), but they are hard to make.
—Just follow me. Slowly. . . slowly. Yeah, ____________.
A. that’s it B. never mind C. I see D. my pleasure
27. —When should we go out for dinner
—____________. Any time is OK for me.
A. Let’s go B. Help yourself C. No problem D. Up to you
28. —Remember this, Paul. ____________ you are, ____________ grades you will get.
—Thanks a lot, Ms. Miller.
A. The more careful; the best B. The more careful; the better
C. The more carefully; the best D. The more carefully; the better
29. —How was the weather yesterday
—Terrible. It rained so ____________ that we could ____________ go out.
A. hardly, hardly B. hard, hard C. hard, hardly D. hardly, hard
30. —What a pity! I missed the opening of the Asian Games.
—If you want to ____________ more about it, you can go online.
A. bring out B. find out C. work out D. think out
31. —Danny likes to share everything on WeChat like the address and the telephone number.
—Oh, it’s dangerous for us to give away too much ____________ on the Internet.
A. news B. trouble C. importance D. information
32. —Hey, Michelle, which one do you want, green tea or black tea
—____________ is OK with me. Tea is my favorite.
A. Both B. Any C. Either D. All
33. —Poor Jerry, why were you late again
—Bad luck. My watch ____________ 30 minutes this morning.
A. broke B. won C. lost D. shared
34. —You will get old fast if you often stay up late.
—You have a (n) ____________. I will follow your advice.
A. point B. excuse C. result D. reason
35. —Studies show that friends ____________ more DNA than strangers. You may have more in common with your friends than you think.
—That sounds interesting!
A. choose B. share C. win D. touch
三、完形填空 (共15小题，每小题 1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
My friend Mr. Johnson is a famous doctor and has a hospital. So he has enough money to 36 all over the world. And he’s been to a lot of places of interest. He likes to play with children and has a lot of little 37 . They often ask him to tell them all kinds of funny things he 38 . It makes them happy and his 39 is always full of children when he’s free.
It was my little son’s seventh birthday yesterday. The boy wanted to 40 his old friend Mr. Johnson to the party. He 41 Mr. Johnson himself and told him about it. The doctor accepted (接受) his invitation happily. At half past seven the boy was 42 his coming at the gate. 43 he saw his car, he ran towards him. Mr. Johnson 44 on time, with a nice present in his hand. After dinner the children sat around the traveler and asked him to 45 them some funny stories. Mr. Smith agreed and his stories made them 46 again and again. At last he told them the funniest story. He said, “Once I reached a city on a foggy day. The fog was the 47 in the world . . .”
“Please wait a 48 , Mr. Johnson, “ my son 49 the doctor, “It’s said the fog in London is the thickest in the world.”
“You’re 50 , my clever boy.” said the funny doctor. “The city had much fog that day . . .” “What’s it, then ” the boy couldn’t wait to ask again.
“The fog was so thick that I couldn’t see it at all,” the funny doctor said with a smile.
36. A. work B. fight C. live D. travel
37. A. friends B. brothers C. workers D. classmates
38. A. read B. wrote C. thought D. saw
39. A. home B. room C. hospital D. dinner
40. A. send B. ask C. carry D. get
41. A. knew B. caught C. taught D. called
42. A. waiting for B. dressing up C. looking around D. caring about
43. A. Before B. As soon as C. Until D. Since
44. A. came B. answered C. said D. played
45. A. speak B. say C. tell D. talk
46. A. think B. laugh C. cry D. fear
47. A. thinnest B. finest C. heaviest D. biggest
48. A. moment B. day C. week D. year
49. A. thanked B. broke C. stopped D. followed
50. A. sorry B. sad C. wrong D. right
四、阅读理解 (共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分)
阅读下面三篇材料，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
Little explainers (讲解员) On July 26, 2024, at Suining County Museum in Xuzhou, little explainers in Hanfu talked to visitors about the rich and colorful intangible cultural heritage (非物质文化遗产) and history of Suining. By becoming little explainers, the children help visitors know more about traditional Chinese culture. The Diving (跳水) Festival On July 31, 2024, people of Gangbian Village, Congjiang County met by the Sanbai River. They celebrated the Diving Festival on the 14th day of the sixth lunar (农历的) month. The villagers joined in different activities. They dived, sang Zhuang songs and played with water. _______________________ On the evening of April 15, many people put water lanterns into the Weiyuan River in Jinggu Dai and Yi Autonomous County. They made a scene (场面) like a galaxy (星系) in the water. Putting water lanterns into the river is a historical activity. It is a way for people to send their best wishes. A concert near the old city wall of Xi’an Chinese artists played in a concert near the old city wall of Xi’an on September22. Xi’an has a history of about3, 100 years. It is the capital of Shaanxi Province. It is also the starting point of the old Silk Road, so different kinds of music around the world met here.
51. In which section of the newspaper can we read the material
A. ART B. SPORTS. C. LIFE. D. CULTURE.
52. When did people of Gangbian Village celebrate the Diving Festival
A. On April 15, 2024. B. On June 14, 2024.
C. On July 31, 2024. D. On September 22, 2024
53. A girl explainer at Suining County Museum may wear ____________.
A. B. C. .D
54. What is the best heading for the third piece of news
A. A scene like a galaxy. B. Setting off water lanterns.
C. A historical activity. D. Best wishes for people in Jinggu.
55. Why did different kinds of music around the world meet in Xi’an
A. Because the old Silk Road started here. B. Because it’s the capital of Shaanxi Province.
C. Because many people are interested in music. D. Because Xi’an has a history of about 3, 100 years.
B
In the town of Lampang in northern Thailand, there is an unusual group of musicians. They play many different kinds of music ---- from traditional Thai songs to music by Beethoven. Both children and adults love this group. What makes them so popular Is it their music Their looks Yes, it’s both of these things, but it’s also something else: they’re elephants.
These musical elephants are from the Thai Elephant Conservation Center (TECC) in Lampang. The TECC protects elephants. It teaches people to understand and care for these huge, but gentle animals. And, like many zoos around the world, the TECC encourages elephants to paint.
Richard Lair works with the TECC. He knew that elephants hear better than they see. So he had an idea: if elephants are intelligent and they have good hearing, maybe they can play music. To test his idea, Lair and a friend started the Thai Elephant Orchestra. During a performance, the elephants play many kinds of instruments, such as the drums and the xylophone. The animals also use their voices and trunks to make sounds.
But can elephants really make music properly Yes, says Lair. They’re very creative. Humans may encourage the animals to play instruments, but the elephants make their own songs; they don’t just copy their trainers or other people. There are now CDs of the group’s music, which make money for the TECC. And the music these artists create is pretty amazing.
56. Where can we most probably read this passage
A. A science newspaper. B. An animal magazine.
C. A story book. D. A history book.
57. What does the underlined word “them” refer to (指代) in the passage
A. Musicians. B. Children. C. Adults. D. Songs.
58. What can be inferred (推断) from the passage
A. Richard Lair started the Thai Elephant Orchestra by himself.
B. The elephants in the TECC can only play traditional Thai songs.
C. The CDs of the Thai Elephant Orchestra are popular with people.
D. The elephants can only play the drums and xylophone.
59. The underlined word “intelligent” in para. 3 is the closest to ____________ in meaning.
A. too slow in learning something
B. feeling pleased in doing something
C. getting bored when doing something again and again
D. having the high ability to learn and understand
60. The best title of the passage would probably be ____________.
A. Save the elephants B. Join the TECC
C. Elephants’ special talents D. Musical instruments
C
Peter Pan is one of the best-loved children’s books of all time. Fee Pan The story begins with “All children grow up, except one”. It tells the story of Peter Pan, a little boy who never grows up and can fly.
Wendy, John and Michael Darling live in London with their parents and their nurse, a dog called Nana. One night when Mr. and Mrs. Darling went out, Peter got into the house through the window and met Wendy. Peter taught the Darling children to fly and took them away to Neverland, an island to which people could reach only by flying. It was an island that was full of fun and happiness, and only children who did not want to grow up could live there. On Neverland, they met pirates (海盗), fairies (精灵), Indians and mermaids (美人鱼) and had lots of adventures.
On the island, Wendy became a mother for some children called the Lost Boys. They lived with Peter Pan in a house under the ground. But Captain Hook, an evil pirate who had an iron hook (钩) instead of a right hand, caught Wendy and the boys. Peter went to the pirate ship to rescue them and there was a dramatic sword fight between him and the captain. The fight was long and hard. At last, Hook failed and was eaten by the crocodile. After that, the children flew back to their home in London. Mrs Darling agreed to adopt (收养) all the Lost Boys. She offered to adopt Peter, too, but he didn’t want to grow up and returned to Neverland. Many years passed, when Peter visited Wendy again, she had a daughter of her own. Peter took her daughter to Neverland for a visit, and then years later he took her daughter’s daughter.
Peter Pan has become the symbol of “eternal (永恒的) childhood”. The novel praises the valuable memories in childhood, which is the most beautiful music of life. There is a Peter Pan in everyone’s mind where they do believe fairy tales.
61. Peter Pan fought with Captain Hook because ____________.
A. Captain Hook was a pirate B. Captain Hook took Wendy and her brothers
C. he wanted to kill the captain D. he wanted to rescue Wendy and the boys
62. What does the underlined word “rescue” mean in the third paragraph
A. admire B. encourage C. save D. deal
63. Why didn’t Peter Pan choose to live with Wendy’s family in London
A. Because he didn’t want to grow up:
B. Because he didn’t want to leave his friends on Neverland.
C. Because he didn’t like Wendy.
D. Because he was wounded by Captain Cook.
64. Which is the right order of what happened in the story
①Peter had a fight with Captain Hook, and Hook was eaten by the crocodile.
②Peter refused Mrs. Darling and flew back to Neverland.
③Peter got into the house through the window and met Wendy.
④Peter Pan taught the Darling children to fly and took them to Neverland.
A. ④③②① B. ③④①② C. ③①②④ D. ④①②③
65. What does the writer want to tell us
A. Everyone could get to the island Neverland.
B. We shouldn’t learn to grow up.
C. Wendy loved the Neverland and had a wonderful time there.
D. Everyone must grow up, but a Peter Pan can live in our mind.
第II卷 (非选择题 共40 分)
五、词与短语填空 (共 5 小题，每小题 2分，满分10分)
阅读下面短文，用方框中所给的单词或短语填空，使短文在结构、句意和逻辑上正确。 (提示：方框中有二个单词或短语是多余的。)
The Puning Yingge dance, a traditional Chinese folk dance, is a mix (混合) of dance, opera and kungfu. It is a symbol of good luck and peace. People usually ____________ (66) it during the traditional Chinese festivals. In February 2024, a group of dancers from Guangdong became popular in London. They gave a ____________ (67) performance on the street to welcome the Chinese New Year. They had colorful faces and each held two short sticks (棍子) . With the loud sound of drums, gongs, and shouts, the dancers walked and danced, 68 the sticks. “Practicing the dance is hard work but we will ____________ (69) our best.” A man said excitedly. They wanted to ____________ (70) their culture and bring good luck in the Year of Loong to people in the UK.
六、综合填空 (共 10 小题，每小题1分，满分 10分)
阅读下面短文，根据上下文或括号内单词等提示，在空白处填入适当的单词或括号内单词的适当形式。
In a small village, a boy named Mark lived with his father, a wise old man. One day, Mark told his father (sad) that he made little progress in learning the guitar. No matter____________ (72) hard he tried, he couldn’t improve. So Mark went to his father ____________ (73) (ask) for some help.
“Follow me, and I will lead you to the high hills around the, village tomorrow,” said his father. The next day, they set out. The road was long and difficult, ____________ (74) Mark still followed his father. As they got higher, the father said that he wanted to go to the top of the ____________ (75) (high) hill where he had never been to.
Mark was ____________ (76) (surprise) but decided to help his father. ____________ (77) great difficulty, Mark helped his father climb the hill. Sometimes he even carried his father on his back. When they finally got to the top, he and his father smiled at each other. They ____________ (78) (enjoy) the blue sky, white clouds and the smaller hills under their feet as if they were on the top of the world.
“When you were a little boy, all the small ____________ (79) (child) called this hill “Mount Impossible”, because you guys couldn’t reach its top. And the elder children often laughed at you. Do you remember ”
Mark nodded. “And today,” said his father, “you not only climbed here, but also helped me to get here.”
“I became bigger and stronger than before,” said Mark.
“You played on the smaller hills and became better at ____________ (80) (climb),” said his father. “It became possible for you to climb Mount Impossible while you weren’t even thinking about it. So will the guitar.”
七、书面表达 (共1大题，满分20分)
朋友是生命中的阳光，人生得一知己足矣。幸运的是，你有这样的一位朋友。请你根据以下内容提示写一篇演讲稿，从好朋友的外貌、个性、爱好、生活习惯和学习等方面介绍你最好的朋友。
内容提示：
What is your best friend like
What are the differences and similarities between you
How do you like him/ her Why
Something more about friendship.
注意：
文中不得透露个人真实姓名和学校；词数：100 左右；标题和开头已给出，不计入总词数。
My best friend
Hello, everyone! Today I want to tell you something about my best friend. __________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
东西湖区2024-2025学年度上学期期中考试
八年级 英语试卷 参考答案
一、听力部分 (共25小题，每小题1分，满分25分)
1-5 BACCA 6-10CBABC 11-15 ABACA 16-20 CCBAB 21-25 BCBCA
二、选择填空 (共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分)
26-30 ADBCB 31-35DCCAB
三、完形填空 (本题共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分)
36-40 DADBB 41-45 DABAC 46-50 BCACD
四、阅读理解 (本题共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分)
51-55 DCABA 56-60 BACDC 61-65DCABD
五、词与短语填空 (本题共5小题，每小题2分，本题共10分)
66. perform 67. fantastic 68. swinging 69. bring out 70. share
六、综合填空 (本题共10小题，每小题1分，本题共10分)
71. sadly 72. how 73. to ask 74. but 75. highest
76. surprised 77. With 78. enjoyed 79. children 80. climbing
七、书面表达 (本题共1小题，满分20分)
My best friend
Hello, everyone! Today I want to tell you something about my best friend. My best friend is Fu Xing, a tall and thin boy with black eyes and short straight hair. He is more outgoing and I’m quieter. He likes sports, so he is stronger and healthier than me. We both like nature, so we often go to the parks, rivers, mountains and forests. The moments we spent together are really wonderful to us. Of course, when either of us meets trouble, we’ll have a heart-to- heart talk to encourage each other.
I always feel lucky to have such a close friend. Our friendship means the world to me, and I hope it lasts forever.
Thank you!
附：书面表达评分标准
一、评分原则
评分时，先根据短文的内容、语言和思维逻辑以及写作规范初步判定其所属档次，然后根据该档次的具体要求来确定或调整档次，最后给分。这一原则也称为整体评分或印象评分。
评分时，应关注的短文内容为：内容要点表达的清楚程度、完整性及准确性；应关注的短文语言和思维逻辑为：运用词汇和语法结构的准确性及上下文语意的流畅性和完整性。
评分时， 应关注的短文写作规范为：词数不少于 60 词，拼写和标点符号符合写作规范 (英、美拼写及词汇用法均视为符合要求) ，如书写较差，以致影响交际，建议将分数降低一个档次。
二、档次判定
英语书面表达题的评判一般把学生写作的短文分为五个档次。
第五档次： (13~15 分)
短文能呈现所有内容要点，写出的句子语意表达清楚、逻辑合理且基本无错误。
(信息无缺项、语言准确、逻辑缜密、错点≦2-3 个、书写美观，建议判 13 分)
第四档次： (10~12 分)
短文能呈现绝大部分内容要点，写出的句子语意表达清楚且无严重错误，逻辑比较合理，有少数单词拼写错误。
(词法错误≦4-5 个、句法错误≦1-2 个，建议判 10 分；较之好者，考虑档内高分)
第三档次： (7~9 分)
短文能呈现大部分内容要点，写出的句子虽然有语法错误但能表达基本信息，逻辑基本合理，有较多的单词拼写错误。
(只有 1-2 个表述正确句、其他仅能表意、有多处词法句法错误，建议判 7 分；较之好者，考虑档内高分)
第二档次： (4~6 分)
短文包含部分内容要点，写出的句子有较严重的语法错误，表达的意思也不清楚，有较多的单词拼写错误。
(有三个关键词和 1-2 个有表意功能的句子，建议判 4 分；较之好者，考虑档内高分)
第一档次： (1~3 分)
短文包含少量内容要点，写出的句子有严重语法错误，基本不能表达语意，或只写出几个关键词。
(仅抄写三个问题 3 分、两个问题2 分、一个问题 1 分；有句子但与要点无关，不给分。)
注意： 如短文出现以下情况之一，建议判零分。
1) 未能传递任何信息；
2) 内容太少，无法评判；
3) 所写内容均与题目要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。

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