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2024 年秋八年级学段质量监测
英 语 答 题 卡
学 校 （先准确书写考号，再填涂考号）
班 级
姓 名
注意事项：
1.答题前,考生务必先将自己的学校、班级、姓名、考
号填写在相应位置，再用 2B 铅笔将考号准确填涂在相
应数字处。正确填涂样例:■
⒉保持答题卡清洁、完整；字体工整、笔迹清晰；严
格按题号所指的答题区域作答，超出答题区域书写的
答案无效。
第 I卷 选择题（共 100分）
听 力（1-20 小题，每小题 1.5 分，共 30 分。）
1.[A] [B] [C] 06.[A] [B] [C] 11.[A] [B] [C] 16.[A] [B] [C]
2.[A] [B] [C] 07.[A] [B] [C] 12.[A] [B] [C] 17.[A] [B] [C]
3.[A] [B] [C] 08.[A] [B] [C] 13.[A] [B] [C] 18.[A] [B] [C]
4.[A] [B] [C] 09.[A] [B] [C] 14.[A] [B] [C] 19.[A] [B] [C]
5.[A] [B] [C] 10.[A] [B] [C] 15.[A] [B] [C] 20.[A] [B] [C]
单项选择（21-30 小题，每小题 1分，共 10 分。）
21.[A] [B] [C] [D] 26.[A] [B] [C] [D]
22.[A] [B] [C] [D] 27.[A] [B] [C] [D]
23.[A] [B] [C] [D] 28.[A] [B] [C] [D]
24.[A] [B] [C] [D] 29.[A] [B] [C] [D]
25.[A] [B] [C] [D] 30.[A] [B] [C] [D]
完形填空 (31-50 小题，每小题 1分，共 20 分。)
31.[A] [B] [C] [D] 36.[A] [B] [C] [D] 41.[A] [B] [C] [D] 46.[A] [B] [C] [D]
32.[A] [B] [C] [D] 37.[A] [B] [C] [D] 42.[A] [B] [C] [D] 47.[A] [B] [C] [D]
33.[A] [B] [C] [D] 38.[A] [B] [C] [D] 43.[A] [B] [C] [D] 48.[A] [B] [C] [D]
34.[A] [B] [C] [D] 39.[A] [B] [C] [D] 44.[A] [B] [C] [D] 49.[A] [B] [C] [D]
35.[A] [B] [C] [D] 40.[A] [B] [C] [D] 45.[A] [B] [C] [D] 50.[A] [B] [C] [D]
阅读理解（51-70 小题，每小题 2分，共 40 分。）
51.[A] [B] [C] [D] 56.[A] [B] [C] [D] 61.[A] [B] [C] [D] 66.[A] [B] [C] [D] [E]
52.[A] [B] [C] [D] 57.[A] [B] [C] [D] 62.[A] [B] [C] [D] 67.[A] [B] [C] [D] [E]
53.[A] [B] [C] [D] 58.[A] [B] [C] [D] 63.[A] [B] [C] [D] 68.[A] [B] [C] [D] [E]
54.[A] [B] [C] [D] 59.[A] [B] [C] [D] 64.[A] [B] [C] [D] 69.[A] [B] [C] [D] [E]
55.[A] [B] [C] [D] 60.[A] [B] [C] [D] 65.[A] [B] [C] [D] 70.[A] [B] [C] [D] [E]
第 1 页 共 2 页
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学校： 班级： 姓名： 准考证号：
密 封 线
第 II 卷 非选择题（共 50 分）
第一节 语法填空（每小题 1.5 分，共 15 分）
71. 72. 73. 74. 75.
76. 77. 78. 79. 80.
第二节 信息提取（每小题 2分，共 10分）
81. 82. 83. 84. 85.
第三节 书面表达 （共 25 分）
My favorite movie
请在各题目的答题区域内作答，超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效！
请在各题目的答题区域内作答，超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效！
请在各题目的答题区域内作答，超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效！
第 2 页 共 2 页
{#{QQABSYYAggggQBJAAAhCUQFQCAIQkhGACQgGBAAMIAABSBNABAA=}#}2024 年秋八年级学段质量监测
英 语 试 题
考试时间：120 分钟 分值：150 分 命题人：县教研室赖静
说明: 1.本试卷分为第 I卷（选择题）和第 II卷（非选择题）。
2.考生必须在答题卡上答题，写在试卷上的的答案无效。选择题必须使用 2B铅笔填涂答案。非选
择题必须使用 0.5毫米黑色墨迹签字笔答题。
3.考试结束，将答题卡和试卷一并交回。
第 I 卷 （选择题 共 100 分）
第一部分 听力测试（共 2 节；30 分）
第一节 (共 5小题，每小题 1.5 分，共 7.5 分)
听下面 5段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三幅图中选出最佳选项。听每段对
话前，你有 5秒钟的时间阅读有关小题；听完后，各小题将给出 5 秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。
1.Where did Tom go
A. B. C.
2.How does Tina want to get to the park
A. B. C.
3. What does the girl often do
A. B. C.
4.What does Ken like
A. B. C.
5.What does John’s brother look like
A. B. C.
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第二节 (共 15 小题，每小题 1.5 分，共 22.5 分)
听下面 5段对话或独白，每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳
选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各小题, 每小题 5 秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出 5 秒钟的作
答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第 6 段材料，回答第 6 至第 7小题。
6. What did Mike do just now
A. Watched an action movie. B. Visited an actor. C. Watched a comedy.
7. What does the girl think of comedy
A. It’s exciting. B. It’s fantastic. C. It’s funny.
听第 7段材料，回答第 8至第 10小题。
8.When does Mary usually help her mother do housework
A. On Saturday morning. B. On Sunday morning. C. On Sunday afternoon.
9.What does Peter usually do in the daytime on weekends
A. He does some cleaning. B. He does some reading. C. He does some writing.
10. How often does Peter watch Animal World
A. Once a week. B. Twice a week. C. Twice a month.
听第 8段材料，回答第 11至第 13小题。
11.Why is Dennis so happy
A. He came back from Canada. B. He made a new friend. C. He won a basketball game.
12.Who is more outgoing
A.Dennis. B. Frank. C. We don’t know
13. How long does Frank practice swimming every weekend
A. One hour. B. Two hours. C. Three hours.
听第 9段材料，回答第 14至第 16小题。
14.What sport does Bob like best
A. Football. B.Volleyball. C. Tennis.
15.Who is Bob’s favorite star
A. Yaoming. B. Messi. C. Ronaldo.
16.What club is Maria going to join
A. A football club. B. A basketball club. C. A tennis club.
听下面一段独白，回答第 17至第 20小题。
17.When was the talent show
A. October 11th. B. October 12th. C. October 20th.
18.How did students think of Julie’s short play
A. Funny. B. Interesting. C. Exciting.
19.What class was Sam from
A. Class Eight. B. Class Four. C. Class Five.
20.What did Barry show
A. A short play.
B.Different kinds of animals’ sounds.
C.Amagic show.
第二部分 基础知识运用（共 2 节；30 分）
第一节 单项选择(共 10 小题，每小题 1分，共 10 分)
从下列各小题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出能填入题中空缺处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将其
对应的字母代号涂黑。
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21. ——Did you buy anything special in the shopping mall
——No, I didn’t see______I like.
A.anything B. something C. everything D. nothing
22. ——How_____your last vocation
——Wonderful. I had a nice time with my grandparents in the countryside.
A.is B. does C.was D.do
23. ——What do you expect_____from this famous book
——Maybe I can learn some interesting stories about great people.
A.to watch B. to learn C. to talk D.to write
24. Reading is good for us all. The_____you read, the_____you know.
A.most,most B.most,more C.more,more D.more,most
25. ——What do you think of this new restaurant
——______! I really can’t stand the noise there.
A.Exciting B.Boring C.Fantastic D.Terrible
26. ——Tom, would you like to watch a movie with me this afternoon
——I’m afraid not. I_____to learn swimming.
A.liked B. planned C. expected D.hoped
27. Eliza is the_____ student in our class, we all like to play with her.
A. most interesting B. much interesting C. interesting D. more interesting
28. ——Why do you like scary movies so much
——I love it_____ it’s exciting.
A.but B. because of C. because D. though
29. ——Rick, is your twin brother_____ you
——No,we are different.He is much more outgoing and hardworking than me.
A. as tall as B. the same as C. different from D. be different from
30. ——What TV program do you want to watch tonight
——Well,_____.You decide.
A.I love it. B.I’d love to. C.I can’t stand. D. I don’t mind.
第二节 完形填空(共 20 小题，每小题 1分，共 20 分)
阅读下面短文，然后从后面各小题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出可以填入文中空缺处的最佳选
项, 并在答题卡上将其对应的字母代号涂黑。
( A )
My trip to Xi’an with my family during this summer vacation was unforgettable. We___31__by train and
stayed there for three days.
On the first day, we visited the Shanxi History Museum to___32___about the rich history of the city.
The___33___in Xi’an is also very famous and delicious, so we went to the well-known Huimin Street in the
evening to try some.___34___next day, we visited the Terracotta Army(兵马俑). It is one of the Eight Wonders of
the World and is a___35___for travelers in Xi’an. The warriors are life-sized. On the___36___ day, we went to
Dayan Pagoda to enjoy the development of Buddhism(佛教) in China.___37___that, we took a walk around it and
talked with local people. They are___38___and nice to us, we felt very happy. Then we enjoyed the music
fountain there.
If you are also interested___39___history, Xi’an is really a good choice to visit. My family had a great time
there. I hope we can travel to some___40___places in the future.
31.A. went B. go C. come D. came
32.A. talk B. care C. think D. learn
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33.A. neighbourhood B. food C. restaurant D. theater
34.A. / B. The C. A D. One
35.A. place B. fact C. must D. building
36.A. two B.second C.three D. third
37.A. After B. Before C. With D. Without
38.A. shy B. friendly C. lazy D. quiet
39.A. in B. on C. at D. about
40.A. another B. other C. others D. other’s
( B )
One day a village head was walking through the forest when he saw a farmer cutting wood. It was ___41___
work and the man was very tired. As the head watched there, he heard someone saying“Hunh!”every time the
axe(斧头) came down on the wood. Then the head saw a man not far. He was the ___42___ man in the village.
The village head want to know___43___ he was doing this, but he didn’t say anything.
The next day, the farmer went to___44___ his wood. As he was going to put the coins into his bag, the lazy
man came up to him and said,“___45___of the money is mine. I did half of the work.”
The farmer was ___46___ and said,“Why did you say so I cut the wood all by ___47___.”The lazy man
didn’t think so. The two men began to fight. At last, they went to the village head. After listening to ___48___ of
them, the head told the farmer to put the coins on a desk. The coins jingled (发出叮当声) as they touched the desk.
The head then said to the lazy man,“Did you___49___that ”
“Yes.”the lazy man answered.
“Great,”the village head said.
“The jingle is yours and the coins are the farmer’s.”
Hearing this, the lazy man didn’t know what to say and left ___50___.
41. A. boring B. hard C. simple D. relaxing
42. A. laziest B. smartest C. richest D. poorest
43. A. when B. how C. why D. where
44. A. watch B. move C. sell D. dry
45. A. None B. Half C. Most D. All
46. A. worried B. scared C. interested D. surprised
47. A. himself B. ourselves C. myself D. yourself
48. A. both B. all C. those D. these
49. A. hear B. see C. lose D. practice
50. A. happy B. happily C. unhappy D. unhappily
第三部分 阅读理解（共 2节；40 分）
第一节 阅读选择(共 15 小题，每小题 2分，共 30 分)
阅读下列短文，然后从后面各小题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将其
对应的字母代号涂黑。
( A )
Art Show Tennis Game
Piano performance by different great artists You are welcome to enjoy the most exciting tennis game
will be on show in the Music e and of the year in the City Stadium. Don’t miss it! Book the ticket
enjoy them. on www..
Time: 9:00 ~ 17:30 Time: Sunday, October 13th
October 1st ~ December 2nd Ticket: 40 for adults
Ticket: 50 for adults (成人) 15 for students
20 for students Tel: 4123 4573
100 for a family of three
Tel: 4236 0002
Chinese Kung Fu Magic show
Are you interested in Chinese Kung Fu Or If you like magic, you’ll have a fantastic night at the
do you want to do some exercise to keep healthy Great Magic Club! Do you want to take photos with your
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Come to our Chinese Kung Fu Center. favorite magicians Do you want to work with them to do
Time: 18:30 ~ 21:30 magic
September 30th ~ November 30th Time: 18:00 ~ 21:00, November 30th
Price: 150 /lesson Price: 60
Tel: 4283 6033 Tel: 4357 1352
If you want to practice magic with the magicians, please
email us your name, phone number and one photo at
Gmclub@.
51. Jack is a student. If he wants to watch the art show with his parents, they should pay at least ______ yuan.
A. 100 B. 120 C. 150 D. 170
52.How can people buy tickets of the tennis Game
A. Call 4283 6033. B. E-mail to Gmclub@.
C. Visit www.. D. Go to the Music Centre.
53. What time can we go to Chinese Kung Fu lesson
A.10:00 on October 10th B.18:30 on September 10th
C.19:00 on October 20th D.19:30 on December 5th
54. Which one is true according to the passage
A. The ticket of the art show is the cheapest.
B. People can exercise three hours in Chinese Kung Fu Center.
C. You can go to all the four activities in October.
D. You can watch the magic show on the morning of November 30th.
55. Who might be interested in this passage
A. Ella, who is studying for her exam. B. Mike, who is interested in pop music.
C. John, who wants to have fun in his free time. D. Linda, who tries to get good grades at school.
( B )
Online eating shows or Mukbang shows, come from South Korea, and are well-known all over the world.
Many hosts of such shows become popular for their ability to eat lots of food. But some people think it’s a
waste (浪费) of food. While some hosts can eat so much food, some may fake it. They show eating a lot of food
in front of the camera, but actually later threw it away.To stop it, many video and live-streaming platforms (直播
平台 ), including Douyin, Kuaishou and Bilibili,have stopped showing videos about food waste, and encourage
people to stop food waste and eat reasonably.
In June 2020, the United Nations reported that the world will face the worst food shortage in 50 years.Many
children, especially in South Africa,Iran,India, don’t have enough food to eat. Some of them even die because
they have nothing to eat.About a third of the world’s food, 1.3 billion tons, is wasted every year. In China, 50
million tons of food becomes rubbish every year.
Recently, actions against food waste have been taken all over China. In August, President Xi stressed the
need for having safe food and stopping food waste. Many restaurants have taken their own actions to control food
waste.In Wuhan, restaurants ask customers to take the “N-1 mode”. For example, a group of ten people should
only order enough for nine people at first. More food is only brought to the table if they really need it. And a
nationwide“Clean Your Plate” activity has been started online. Users of Weibo can share photos or videos of
empty plates after finishing their meals.More and more people joined in cleaning their plates and sharing it online
to fight against food waste.
We are sure there will be less waste of food in the world if everyone realizes the bad result of it and stops
wasting.
56. Hosts of Mukbang shows are welcomed by people because _______.
A. they are too hungry B. they can eat very special food
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C. they can eat quite a lot of food D. they can cook delicious food
57. The underlined word “fake” in the second paragraph means _______.
A. 消化 B. 坚持 C. 赞扬 D. 伪造
58. Which of the following is TRUE
A. Ten people can only order food for nine in restaurants in China.
B. Many people around the world may not have enough food according to the UN.
C. People must take photos or videos to show their empty plates in Weibo.
D. 1.3 billion tons of food is wasted in China every year.
59. Which of the following is right according to the “N-1 mode”
A.Order much more dishes than the number of people when eating out.
B.Order less one dishes than the number of people when eating out.
C.Cook much more food than you can eat at home every day.
D.Buy as much food as you like whenever you go shopping.
60. The writer wants to ask people to _______.
A. watch online eating shows B. eat more healthy food
C. put an end to food waste D. spend less money on food
（C）
You pretty, he ugly (丑陋). You swan (天鹅), he frog !” Foreign people just love this funny English sentence,
and use it around the Chinese internet.
It all came from a foreign girl named Kris.She posted a sad photo online. It looked like her boyfriend made
her cry. Some nice Chinese people tried to cheer her up. They asked her to find someone better. Some made funny
Chinglish to make her feel happy, such as “You swan, he frog.”
This became a hit with foreigners. Many found it cool. They shared it a lot online and made funny pictures
with it. Some of them wanted to know why Chinese people use “swan” and “frog” to describe this couple.After
looking into it, they learned that it came from a famous old Chinese story, and got interested in both Chinese
stories and culture.
In the past, people often said Chinglish is wrong because it was not real English. However, people from
different countries can now share their ideas more often now. Different styles of speaking English are becoming
common and even accepted. Chinglish even becomes popular. For example, the well-known “add oil” is now in
the Oxford dictionary and people use it widely. The phrase comes from Chinese culture.
“Once I understood the full meaning, it became much funnier,” said Cody, a young man from New Zealand,
when asked about “You swan, he frog”. “It’s great that more Chinese culture is being shared all over the world,”
he said.
61.Who made the sentence “You swan, he frog”
A.A foreign girl Kris. B.Kris’ boyfriend.
C. Some nice Chinese people. D.Some foreigners.
62. Why did “You swan, he frog” become popular among foreigners
A. They found it funny and cool. B. They found it easy to remember.
C. It shows that Chinese people are friendly. D. It was part of a famous English poem.
63. What does a hit in para 3 probably mean
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A. exciting B. popular C. boring D. scary
64. Where can we find the expression“add oil”
A. In text books. B. In Chinese-English dictionary.
C. In English-Chinese dictionary. D. In Oxford dictionary.
65. What is the passage mainly about
A. Foreigners love Chinglish about animals.
B. Chinglish are becoming popular among foreigners.
C. Chinese people are getting better at speaking English.
D. Foreigners find it hard to understand Chinese culture.
第二节 短文填空(共 5小题，每小题 2分，共 10分)
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将其对应的字母代号
涂黑。
When I was a kid, my mom would let me help her make popcorn on cold winter nights. We would get out a
pan (平底锅), some oil and butter.All the kids sat around with expectation to wait for the first popcorn to jump
with an exciting sound.___66___Shake, shake, shake, and pop, pop, pop,until the pan was filled with delicious
popcorn!Mom would pour it all into a big bowl and add some sugar on top.
___67___Dad would sit in his chair, while my mom, brothers, and I would relax on the sofa.___68___ And
mom even let me eat the half-popped ones.
The funny thing is that I have already forgotten the shows we watched, but I still remember the smell of the
popcorn, the warmth of the bowl, and the joy of being with my family.___69___We didn’t have a big house,
expensive snacks or much money, but our love for each other was everything.
It’s the little moments like these that matter most.___70___They’re magical gifts and memories that last
forever.They are what truly make life beautiful.
A. I felt so loved, safe and happy.
B. So, remember to enjoy these moments and the love.
C. Later, we would all come to the living room.
D. Then, we would shake the pan over the stove (炉子) to keep the popcorn from burning.
E. There was always a lot of popcorn to share with all the family.
第 II 卷 非选择题 （共 50 分）
第四部分 写（共 3 节；50 分）
第一节 语法填空（共 10 小题，每小题 1.5 分，共 15 分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个或二个恰当的单词或括号内所给提示词的适当变形，并将答案写在
答题卡相应的横线上。
The magic of Disney
Jacobs works in Florida’s Walt Disney World. Months ago he shared a___71___(touch) story online. At
first,he was a VIP tour guide with good pay in the park, but later he___72___(move) to the character
department(角色部门)because of the experience.
It was about 20 years___73___.One day, two nurses took two little girls to Jacobs. One girl was in a
wheelchair(轮椅)and___74___(other) looked terrible. The nurses told Jacobs the girls___75___(be) from foreign
countries and they just lost their parents in a car accident. They wanted some money for the girls’ tickets and
helped them go back home. After___76___(give) their money, Jacobs still showed the girls around the park. On
the way, he tried his best___77___(make) the girls happy: he told them jokes, bought them ice-cream and took
them on rides, but they said___78___(no) and never smiled. Finally, he asked Mickey Mouse ___79___ help and
it worked! The two girls began to talk and even got excited when they met Mickey.They forgot about their
___80___(sad) at that moment and were lost in a magical world.“I saw magic and it felt so good to be part of that,”
2024 年秋八年级学段质量监测 英语试题 第 7 页，共 8页
{#{QQABSYYAggggQBJAAAhCUQFQCAIQkhGACQgGBAAMIAABSBNABAA=}#}
said Jacobs.
第二节 信息提取（共 5 小题，每小题 2 分，共 10 分）
阅读下面短文，根据短文内容，在下面的表格中填入与文章意思最符合的单词，每空填一词。并将所
填内容写在答题卡相应的位置。
Work is helpful to health. Scientists find that the hard-working people live longer than those who have no
jobs.Studies show that the jobless are in poorer health than job-holders. The women have jobs are healthier than
housewives.
Why is work good for health It is because work keeps people busy, away from feeling lonely. Researches
show that people feel unhappy and worried when they have nothing to do. The happiest people are those who are
busy. Many high achievers who love their jobs feel they are the happiest when they are working hard. They work
as a bridge between their dream and reality, so they have energy every day. By work, people get to know each
other. By taking part in all kinds of activities, they find friendship and warmth. This is helpful to health. The loss
（丧失）of work means the loss of everything. It makes people down and it will cause more illnesses.
Besides, work makes one feel hopeful and proud. When a writer finishes his writing or a doctor successfully
operates on a patient or a teacher sees his students grow, they are very happy.
From the above, we can come to a conclusion: the more you work, the happier and healthier you will be.
Work helps people keep___81___
Scientists find that the hard-working people live___82___and more healthily than the jobless.
Work keeps people busy, away from feeling lonely.
Working hard makes many high achievers happy.
___83___ By work, people get to know each other and get more___84___and warmth.
Work makes one feel hopeful and proud.
Conclusion The___85___ you work, the happier and healthier you will be.
第三节 书面表达（共 25分）
请以“My favorite movie”为题，谈谈你最喜欢的电影。内容包含以下：电影的类型、内容简介、喜欢
的原因，你的观后感。
写作要求:
1.文中不得出现真实姓名和校名;
2.内容连贯,可以适当进行合理拓展;
4.词数 80词左右。
My favorite movie
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2024 年秋八年级学段质量监测 英语试题 第 8 页，共 8页
{#{QQABSYYAggggQBJAAAhCUQFQCAIQkhGACQgGBAAMIAABSBNABAA=}#}2024年春八年级期末质量监测--英语听力材料及参考答案
听力材料
第一节
1.W:Tom,where did you go last National Holiday
M:I went to the beach in Qingdao with my family.
2. M: Tina, shall we ride a bike or take a bus to the park
W: Well, it is not far from here.Let’s walk there.
3. M: Larry,what do you usually do in your spare time
W:I never watch TV and I do some sports outdoors.
4.W:Ken,what kind of TV shows do you like
M:Sports show is my favorite because I love sports.
5.M: John,you look tall and thin. Is your brother as tall as you
W: No,we’re quite different.He is much shorter and heavier than me.
第二节
听第6段材料，回答第6至第7小题。
W: Hi, Mike! What are you doing
M: I’m watching an action movie.Do you like action movies
W: Well,I don’t mind it.But my favorite is comedy because it’s funny.
M: Haha,I like action movie best because I think it’s exciting,and the actors are fantastic.
听第7段材料，回答第8至第10小题。
M: Hi, Grace. Are you free this weekend
W: Hmm... I'm usually quite busy on weekends, Peter.
M: Really How come
W: I have drawing and dancing lessons on Saturday.And I have to help my mom do housework on Sunday afternoon.What about your weekends, Peter
M: I usually do some reading in the daytime and watch TV at night on weekends.
W: What kind of TV program do you like
M: Animal World.I usually watch it once a week, on Saturday night.
听第8段材料，回答第11至第13小题。
W: Dennis, why are you so happy
M: I made a new friend recently.His name is Frank and he comes from Canada.
W: Is he the same as you
M: No,he is a little taller and more outgoing than me.But I swim better than him.
W:Does he like swimming
M: Yes, and he practices it for three hours every weekend. Would you like to make friends with him
W: I’d love to.Thank you!
听第9段材料，回答第14至第16小题。
W: Hi, Bob! I hear you are a football fan, aren’t you
M: Yes, Maria. I love football matches.My favorite star is Messi.
M: Oh, he is really a superman.I like him, too.
W: Do you often play football
M: Not much.I like tennis and I’m going to join a tennis club.
W: That’s a good idea.You can make more friends there.
M: May be you are right.
听下面一段独白，回答第17至第20小题。
M/W: On October 12th, there was a talent show in our school hall.Many students tried to show their talents.Julie and her classmates from Class Eight gave us a short play.It was the funniest of all the shows. Every student couldn’t stop laughing.Sam from Class Five was the best actor for sure.He was a talented magician.Barry from Class Four showed different kinds of animals’ sounds on the talent show.The talent show was so great.
参考答案
1-5:CCBAB 6-10:ACCBA 11-15:BBCAB 16-20:CBACB
21-25:ACBCD 26-30:BACBD
31-35:ADBBC 36-40:DABAB 41-45:BACCB 46-50:DCAAD
51-55:ACCBC 56-60:CDBBC 61-65:CABDB 66-70:DCEAB
71.touching 72.moved 73.ago 74.the other 75.were
76.giving 77.to make 78.nothing 79.for 80.sadness
81.healthy/happy 82.longer 83. Why 84.friends/friendship 85.more
书面表达评分参考标准
档次 分值范围 评 分 标 准
一档 20-25 作文涵盖所有要点，并适当拓展；无语法、单词错误；用词准确，能正确使用不同的时态，语句连贯、通顺；书写美观。
二档 13-20 作文基本涵盖所有要点；语法、单词错误少于3处；用词基本准确，语句通顺；书写工整。
三档 6-12 作文要点涵盖不全；语法、单词错误多余3处；语句基本能读懂；书写不工整。
四档 0-5 作文内容与要点无关；句意不完整；语句不通顺，影响理解；书写差。

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