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重庆市凤鸣山中学教育集团校2024—2025学年度上期
初2024级英语半期考试试题
考试说明：1．考试时间：120分钟；2．试题总分150分；3．试卷页数8页
第Ⅰ卷（共96分）
Ⅰ．听力测试。（共30分）
第一节（每小题1.5分，共9分）
听一遍。根据你所听到的句子，从A、B、C三个选项中选出最恰当的答语，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
1．A．Good morning! B．Good afternoon! C．Good evening!
2．A．China. B．Tomato plants. C．Baby chickens.
3．A．Yes, it is. B．No, it isn’t. C．Yes, I am.
4．A．Bottle. B．B-o-t-t-l-e. C．A bottle.
5．A．It’s a ruler. B．It’s white. C．It’s in the pencil-box.
6．A．I don’t know. B．I’m fine. C．You are welcome.
第二节（每小题1.5分，共9分）
听一遍。根据你所听到的对话和问题，从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
7．A．/blu:/. B．/bra n/. C．/bl k/.
8．A．Under the chair. B．On the chair. C．Behind the chair.
9．A． B． C．
10．A．Class 1. B．Class 2. C．Class 3.
11．A．Bill. B．Miller. C．Smith.
12．A．He’s 12. B．He’s 13. C．He’s 14.
第三节（每小题1.5分，共6分）
听两遍。根据你所听到的长对话，从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
听第一段材料，回答第13和14小题。
13．Who has a new pencil box
A．Coco. B．Yaming. C．Tengfei.
14．How many pencils are in the pencil box
A．2. B．3. C．4.
听第二段材料，回答第15和16小题。
15．Where may the two speakers （说话者） be
A．At school. B．At home. C．At a shop.
16．What does the boy have in his schoolbag
A．A pen. B．A key. C．An eraser.
第四节（每小题1.5分，共6分）
听两遍。根据你所听到的短文内容，从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
17．The farm is ______.
A．small and beautiful B．big and beautiful C．big and tidy
18．In the morning, the speaker gives food to ______.
A．the pigs and horses B．the cows and pigs C．the horses and the cows
19．The speaker has ______ ducks.
A．seven B．fifteen C．twenty
20．We can see ______ behind the tree.
A．a small lake B．some grass C．a red house
Ⅱ．语法填空。（每小题1分，共10分）
根据短文内容，从A、B、C三个选项中选出一个语法正确的答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
Look! This is my 21 farm. It is big 22 beautiful. There are 23 animals on it. Those 24 ten pigs. They’re eating （吃） now. There are two dogs. They are very clever （聪明的）, and 25 can help （帮助） my uncle a lot. What are 26 animals They are cows. They are black and white. They are eating grass. Look 27 the chickens over there. 28 chickens can you see There are five baby chickens and a hen （母鸡）. 29 rabbits are eating carrots. Look here! The 30 are in the lake. Welcome to the farm.
21．A．uncles B．uncle C．uncle’s
22．A．and B．but C．so
23．A．much B．many C．any
24．A．am B．is C．are
25．A．they B．them C．their
26．A．these B．this C．that
27．A．in B．at C．on
28．A．What B．Where C．How many
29．A．A B．An C．The
30．A．goose B．geese C．gooses
Ⅲ．选出下列各小题划线部分发音与其他不同的一项。（每小题1分，共6分）
31．A．home B．close C．rose D．hot
32．A．time B．rice C．like D．pig
33．A．bus B．run C．cute D．up
34．A．game B．cat C．late D．take
35．A．bed B．we C．she D．these
36．A．class B．circle C．carrot D．count
Ⅳ．完形填空。（每小题1.5分，共15分）
根据短文内容，从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个能填入相应空格内的最佳答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
Hi, my name is Tom Smith. Tom is my 37 name. I’m 12 years old. Now I live in 38 with my parents and I’m a student in Shanghai. I’m 39 here, so I don’t have many friends. Can you be my friend
My favorite sport is 40 , so I often play tennis with my parents. I have a friend. His name is Peter. He is 41 the UK. He is also my classmate. We are 42 in Class 7. Peter and I have 43 interest （兴趣）. We like music 44 . Peter can play the guitar and I can play the piano. We often 45 them together （一起）. I have 46 friend. She is a girl and her name is Sally. She lives in Australia.
37．A．first B．last C．full D．family
38．A．the US B．the UK C．Singapore D．China
39．A．old B．new C．fun D．great
40．A．football B．tennis C．basketball D．pingpong
41．A．in B．behind C．from D．under
42．A．both B．also C．even D．all
43．A．different B．same C．the same D．some
44．A．very B．much C．a lot D．lot
45．A．put B．play C．plant D．post
46．A．other B．the other C．others D．another
Ⅴ．阅读理解。（47-49小题，每小题1分，50-65小题，每小题2分，共35分）
阅读下列材料，从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
A
Four Farms in Sunshine Town （阳光小镇）
Name: Robert Telephone number （电话号码）: 328-6843 Plants: Potato plants and tomato plants Animals: Eleven cows, horses (three are brown and four are white.) Name: Mary Telephone number: 328-7856 Animals: Thirteen ducks, three pigs, ten rabbits, and fourteen baby chickens
Name: Julia Telephone number: 328-5916 Plants: Flowers, carrot plants, and twenty apple trees Name: Henry Telephone number: 328-5166 Animals: Fifteen pigs, twelve cows, and many chickens
47．______ has plants and animals on the farm.
A．Henry B．Julia C．Robert D．Mary
48．To buy （买） some ducks and rabbits, you can call ______.
A．328-5916 B．328-6843 C．328-5166 D．328-7856
49．We can go to ______ farm to buy some apples.
A．Robert’s B．Julia’s C．Mary’s D．Henry’s
B
I’m Amy. I am 12 years old. I like singing and I join （加入） our school’s singing club. I go there after class every day. I study singing in an art school too. I study there for two hours every Saturday.
I’m Mike. I often watch football games on TV. I think playing football is very interesting （有趣的）. Then I start to like football. Now I am a football player in our school. I want to play for our country. I think I can.
My name is Chen Jie. I like playing computer games. My teachers and parents say, “It is bad for your study. Stop it at once （立即）.” But I can’t. Now I don’t do well in my study. I feel regretful （后悔的）. And I don’t want to play computer games again.
50．Amy ______ after class every day.
A．sings at home B．sings with friends
C．studies singing in an art school D．goes to the singing club
51．What does the underlined word “it” in paragraph 3 （第三段） refer to （指代）
A．playing computer games B．playing games with friends
C．playing football D．studying well
52．What does Mike want to do
A．He wants to teach others to play football. B．He wants to watch football games on TV.
C．He wants to play football for his country. D．He wants to be a football player in his school.
53．What may Chen Jie do later on （稍后）
A．She may not study again. B．She may help others to play computer games.
C．She may study hard （努力地）. D．She may not like doing her homework.
C
My name is Alice. I don’t like having coffee （咖啡）, but I love making coffee. I can use the coffee maker （煮咖啡器）. It is easy for me. In the morning, I use the coffee maker at home to make a cup of white coffee for my mom. My mom likes having milk in her coffee. She has two white coffees in the morning and one in the afternoon every day. Then I use the coffee maker to make a cup of black coffee for my dad. My dad doesn’t like having milk in his coffee. He likes hot black coffee. He has a cup of hot black coffee every morning. He doesn’t like iced （冰的） coffee. My mom and dad do many things for me. So I make coffee for them to thank them. We’re a very happy family.
54．How many coffees does Alice’s mom have every day
A．1 B．2 C．3 D．4
55．What coffee does Alice’s dad like
A．White coffee B．Black coffee C．Iced coffee D．Milk coffee
56．Why （为什么） does Alice make coffee for Mom and Dad
A．To thank them B．To make them like her
C．To say sorry to them D．To make them help her
57．From the passage （文章） we can infer （推断）______.
A．Alice and her parents like coffee very much.
B．Making coffee isn’t easy for Alice.
C．Alice’s dad has a cup of hot black coffee every morning.
D．Alice loves her parents very much.
D
On Friday afternoon, Tom meets his good friend Jack and says, “Jack, can you come to my home after school I want you to meet my cousin （表弟）. He loves the same ball game as you.” Jack says happily, “Sure.”
When they get to Tom’s home, it’s about 5:45 p. m. Tom’s cousin Jim is in the living room （客厅） watching a basketball game on TV. Tom says to him, “Jim, this is my good friend Jack.”
Jim says to Jack, “Hi, Jack! Nice to meet you. I’m Jim.”
“Nice to meet you too, Jim,” Jack says. “You know what I have a pen friend called Jim. He comes from Wuhan,” says Jack.
“Oh, really What’s his last name ” asks Jim.
“Brown.”
“Really I am Jim Brown and I come from Wuhan,” Jim says. “And I have a pen friend here. His name is Jack Miller. He loves playing basketball. His birthday is on 12th June.”
Hearing （听见） this, Tom says to Jack, “______ You are my good friend. And you are my cousin’s pen friend too.”
58．What does Jack go to Tom’s home for
A．Meeting Tom’s cousin. B．Playing basketball.
C．Watching TV. D．Playing computer games.
59．Which of the following （以下的） can we put in ______
A．Oh, have a good day! B．Oh, what a coincidence （巧合）!
C．Oh, what a mess （一团糟）! D．Oh, what good friends!
60．Which of the following is true （符合事实的）
A．①--good friends; ②--cousins; ③--pen friends
B．①--pen friends; ②--cousins; ③--good friends
C．①--cousins; ②--good friends; ③--pen friends
D．①--good friends; ②--pen friends; ③--cousins
61．What can we know from the passage
A．Jim has a pen friend from Wuhan. B．Jack sees Jim in the morning.
C．Jack and Jim love the same ball game. D．Jim’s birthday is on 12th June.
E
Joey has many animal friends ---four squirrels （松鼠）, two rabbits, and many colourful birds. They like playing in the big yard behind Joey’s house.
One day, Joey finds one of the trees in the yard is not happy. He asks, “Why are you unhappy ”
“I’m too small. No one （没有人） needs me or loves me,” the tree says.
That evening, Joey and his parents have a meeting. Joey says he can make some seats under the small tree. People can sit on them under the tree. Joey’s dad says he can help and he starts to make the seats.
When Joey’s animal friends know that, they want to help the small tree too.
Early the next morning, when Joey gets up, he sees birds sitting in the small tree, squirrels running up and down in it, and rabbits eating grass under the tree. The small tree is happy now.
62．The small tree is not happy because （因为）______.
A．Joey doesn’t sit on it B．it thinks no one likes it
C．It is the only （唯一的） tree in the yard D．it doesn’t like its colour
63．What is the correct order （正确的顺序）
①Joey’s dad starts to make the seats. ②The rabbits eat grass under the small tree.
③Joey has a meeting with his parents. ④Joey finds the tree is unhappy.
A．①④③② B．②①④③ C．③④②① D．④③①②
64．What does the underlined word “seat” mean （意思是） in the passage
A．A seat is a part （部分） of a tree. B．A seat is a kind of plant.
C．A seat is a thing that you can sit on. D．A seat is a kind of animal.
65．What is the main idea （主题） of the passage .
A．Joey’s friends live in the yard. B．Joey has a good dad.
C．Joey with his parents and friends helps the tree. D．A tree in the yard is small and unhappy.
第Ⅱ卷（共54分）
Ⅵ．口语应用。（每小题1分，共5分）
阅读下面对话，从方框内7个选项中选出5个恰当的句子完成此对话，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
A: Good morning, Mr Yang!
B: Good morning! 66
A: No, Mr Yang. I’m Lisa.
B: Sorry, Lisa. How old are you
A: 67
B: Where are you from
A: 68 G. I’m in Class 4, Grade 7.
B: Wow, that’s far. What class are you in
A: 69
B: Well, Lisa. 70
A: Nice to meet you too.
A．Nice to meet you.
B．London.
C．How do you spell your name
D．I’m twelve years old.
E．Are you Pauline
F．You are welcome.
Ⅶ．任务型阅读。（71-73题，每小题2分，74题3分，共9分）
Wu Zeyin, 11, comes from Hubei, China. He goes to Botswana with his family and finds that many vegetables （蔬菜） there are very small. And some of them are not good. The carrots are small and the tomatoes are green. But they are expensive （昂贵的）. And he knows that Botswana needs to buy many vegetables from other countries to meet the needs of its people. Wu wants to do something to help.
He makes an app for the farmers. It’s called Farm Assistant. With the app, the farmers can know the information of many kinds of vegetables, like their planting time and watering needs.
Wu says, “It’s better to teach people to fish than to give him fish.”
71．Is Wu Zeyin from Chongqing
72．What does Botswana need to buy from other countries
73．How does Wu help the farmers in Botswana
74．Do you think Wu Zeyin is kind Why
______. Because ______
Ⅷ．完成句子。（每空1分，共10分）
根据所给提示，完成句子。每空一词，含缩略词。
75．This is my grandpa’s farm. （改为一般疑问句）
______ ______ your grandpa’s farm
76．Grace and her parents live in Sydney, Australia. （改为同义句）
Grace ______ her parents ______ in Sydney, Australia.
77．Mr Wang is our English teacher. （对划线部分提问）
______ ______ English teacher
78．付星想与宋梅梅交朋友。（完成译句）
Fu Xing wants to ______ ______ with Song Meimei.
79．are, the desk, my, on, pencils. （连词成句）
____________________________________________________________________________________________
Ⅸ．词汇运用。（每空1分，共10分）
根据所给提示，用单词的适当形式填空。
80．He often makes a ______ (/m 'steIk/) in his homework.
81．______ (/i:t /) of the teachers in our class is kind to us.
82．Students in my class have different ______ (hobby).
83．A pair of socks ______ (be) under the bed.
84．______ (he) favorite place is the Great Wall.
85．My friend Xiao Hong can’t ______ (find) her bicycle.
86．Sherry ______ (like) Chinese food very much.
87．I would like ______ (meet) friends from different countries in the world.
88．Mr Brown has a big farm. There are ten ______ (sheep) on the farm.
89．Everyone in our class is happy to help others. So our class ______ (be) like （像）a big family.
Ⅹ．书面表达（满分20分）
假设你刚搬进新居，你很开心有了属于自己的房间，并想与你的外国笔友Tom一起分享这份快乐。下面是一张你房间的图片，请你根据图片及提示问题写一篇小短文，向Tom介绍一下你的房间。
提示问题：1．What’s in your room What do you have
2．Where do you put your things
3．What do you think of your room （你认为你的房间怎么样）
要求：1．按照一定的空间顺序（由近及远、从左到右等），介绍房间里的物品及位置；
2．恰当使用连词and使内容衔接紧密；
3．正确使用方位介词，房间内物品名词的单复数形式；
4．40词左右，开头已给出，不计入总词数。
参考词汇：computer n.电脑，lamp n. 台灯
Hello, everyone. This is a picture of my room.
____________________________________________________________________________________________
重庆市凤鸣山中学教育集团校2024—2025学年度上期
2024级英语学科半期考试试题
听力原文
第一节（每小题1.5分，共9分）
听一遍。根据你所听到的句子，从A、B、C三个选项中选出最恰当的答语，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
1．Good morning!
2．Where are you from
3．Are you in Grade seven
4．How do you spell it
5．What’s this
6．Thank you for helping me, Helen.
第二节（每小题1.5分，共9分）
听一遍。根据你所听到的对话和问题，从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
7．W: What color is your bicycle, Tom
M: It’s black.
Q: What color is Tom’s bicycle
8．W: Do you see my eraser, Tengfei I can’t find it.
M: No, Fu Xing. I don’t see it. Oh, wait a minute. It’s under the chair.
Q: Where is Fu Xing’s eraser
9．W: What animal does your grandpa have on the farm, David
M: He has cows and chickens.
Q: What animal does David’s grandpa have on the farm
10．M: I’m in Class 2. Anne, what class are you in
W: Oh, we are in the same class.
Q: What class is Anne in
11．M: Who is your English teacher, Emma
W: Bill Miller. Oh, no, Bill Smith.
Q: What is the English teacher’s last name
12．W: How old are you, Peter
M: I’m 12 years old.
Q: How old is Peter
第三节（每小题1.5分，共6分）
听两遍。根据你所听到的长对话，从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
听第一段材料，回答第13和14小题。
M: Good morning, Coco!
W: Good morning, Yaming!
M: Wow, the pencil box is so beautiful. Is it new
W: Yes. My mom buys it for me.
M: What are in your pencil box
W: There are three pencils, an eraser and a ruler.
听第二段材料，回答第15和16小题。
W: Good morning, dear. Are you happy on your first day at school
M: Yes, Mom!
W: Is everything in your schoolbag
M: Yes, I have a pencil, an eraser and a book.
W: Good. Do you have your cap
M: Yes, it’s in my bag.
W: Do you have your lunch box
M: I will do it now. Thanks, Mom!
第四节（每小题1.5分，共6分）
听两遍。根据你所听到的短文内容，从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
Welcome to my farm! It is very big and beautiful. I have many animals here. In the morning, I give food to the pigs and horses. The cows are black and white, and I have seven cows. They give me milk every day. The sheep are white, and I have twenty sheep. They like to eat grass. The ducks swim in a small lake. I have fifteen ducks, and they love the water. Behind the big tree, you can see my red house. I love my farm. It’s a fun place to visit.
参考答案
I．听力测试（每小题1.5分，共30分）
1-6 AACBAC 7-12 CACBCA 13-16 ABBC 17-20 BABC
II．语法填空（每小题1分，共10分）
21-25CABCA 26-30 ABCCB
III．语音题（每小题1分，共6分）
31-36 DDCBAB
IV．完形填空（每小题1.5分，共15分）
37-41 ADBBC 42-46 ACCBD
V．阅读理解（47-49小题，每小题1分，50-65小题，每小题2分，共35分）
47-49 CDB 50-53 DACC 54-57 CBAD 58-61 ABAC 62-65 BDCC
VI．口语运用（每小题1分，共5分）
66-70 EDBGA
VII．任务型阅读（71-73每小题2分，74题3分，共9分）
71．No./No, he isn’t.
72．Vegetables./Many vegetables.
73．He make an app for the farmers.
74．One Possible version: Yes. Because he helps the farmers in Botswana. （回答Yes1分，语法1分，理由1分） ( 之有理即可）
VIII．完成句子。（每空1分，共10分）
75．Is, this 76．with, lives 77．Who’s your 78．make friends
79．My pencils are on the desk. （若句子顺序正确，单词写错一个或者首字母没大写或者标点符号不对扣0.5分，若句子顺序不对不给分）
IX．词汇运用
80．mistake 81．Each 82．hobbies 83．is 84．His
85．find 86．likes 87．to meet 88．sheep 89．is
X．书面表达。（满分20分）
One Possible version:
Hello, everyone. This is a picture of my room. A bed, a desk and a chair are in the room. Look at the schoolbag. It’s green. It’s on the bed. My books, pencil box, cap and three keys are in the schoolbag. I have a blue bottle. It’s on the desk. My computer and lamp are on the desk too. Can you see a basketball It’s under the desk
My room is not big but very tidy. I like my room very much.
评分总则：
1. 本题总分为20分，按各档次打分。
2. 评分时，先根据文章的内容和结构初步确定所属档次，再根据语言酌情打分。
给分范围和要求：
第五档（优秀） （19—20分） 高水平完成了试题规定的任务 ☆结构完整、条理清晰、逻辑严密、过渡自然 ☆思想健康、符合题意、中心突出、内容充实 ☆语言流畅、表达贴切、感情真挚、富有创意
第四档（良好） （16—18分） 较好完成了试题规定的任 ☆结构完整、条理分明、逻辑清晰、过渡自然 ☆思想健康、符合题意、中心明确、内容充实 ☆语言流畅、表达较贴切、感情真实
第三档（中等） （13—15分） 基本完成了试题规定的任务 ☆结构较完整、条例较分明、有一定逻辑性 ☆思想健康、符合题意、中心明确、内容较为充实 ☆较准确地使用语言、能清楚表达意思
第二档（较差） （8—12分） 未恰当完成试题规定的任务 ☆结构不完整、条例不分明、逻辑不严密 ☆思想健康、中心较明确、内容不充实、不能完全满足写作任务的要求 ☆语言不够连贯、错误较多、影响对写作内容的理解
第一档（差） （0—7分） 未完成试题规定的任务 ☆思想健康、内容严重缺失 ☆语言错漏太多、无法传达有效信息、不能满足写作任务的要求 （与规定内容无关的抄袭或思想不健康，均为0分）

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