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2024年秋期期中七年级阶段性调研
英语参考答案
一、听力理解（20小题，每小题1分，共20分）
1-5. BACCA 6-10. BCACB 11-15. BAACC
16. friend 17. bike 18. eight/8:00 19. English 20. colorful/colourful
二、阅读理解（15小题，每小题2分，共30分）
21-25. DBBCA 26-30. CDABD 31-35. DEBCA
三、完形填空（10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
36-40. DCACB 41-45. ABDCB
四、语言知识 (25小题，共25分)
第一节 46-50. DCABC
第二节 51. always 52. biology 53. visit 54. enjoy 55. Thursday
56. fifteen 57. green 58. loves 59. boxes 60. his
第三节 61. parents 62. Their 63. music 64. as 65. help
第四节 66. There 67. to 68. and 69. the 70. are
五、补全对话（5小题，每小题2分，共10分）(答案不唯一，合理即正确)
71. My name is Li Lei./ I’m Li Lei.
72. Where are you from
73. How do you usually come to school
74.（开放性答案，符合题意、步行之外的交通方式即可）
I often ride a bike to school./ I usually come to school by …
75. What time is it (now) / What’s the time (now)
六、书面表达
第一节 (5小题，每小题2分，共10分)
76. She is in Class Eight, Grade Seven./ She is in Class 8, Grade 7.
77. It’s/ It is a quarter past seven now./ It’s/ It is seven fifteen now.
78. There is a cat on the desk/ table.
79. Does he like singing / What does he like (doing)
80. What does he/ the man do
第二节（15分）
My Family
Hello, my name is Li Jiale, I’m twelve years old. I’m a student in Grade Seven. Let me tell you about my family.
There are four people in my family. They are my father, my mother, my sister and I. My father is a worker, and my mother is a doctor. My sister is a student in Grade Eight. We’re in the same school.
My family like sports. We often do sports at night, such as running and walking. Sometimes we play games at home.
I love my family.
That’s all. Thank you! (学生此句不写不扣分)
评分标准:
1. 第1-20小题，每小题1分。凡与答案不符的均不给分。
2. 第21-35小题，每小题2分。凡与答案不符的均不给分。
3. 第36-45小题，每小题1分。凡与答案不符的均不给分。
4. 第46-50小题，每小题1分。凡与答案不符的均不给分。
5. 第51-60小题，每小题1分。凡与答案不符的均不给分。
6. 第61-70小题，每小题1分。凡与答案不符的均不给分。
7. 第71-75小题，每小题2分。学生答案中出现单词拼写或语法错误，评分时视其对交际的影响程度酌情扣分。 如果考生写出的句子与所给答案不一致，但只要与情景相符，上下文意思连贯，符合英语表达习惯，语言表达准确,应给分。
8. 第76-80小题，每小题2分。本题根据标点符号写出陈述句或疑问句，答案不唯一，符合要求和图画情景，无错误，应当给分。不按标点符号要求写错句子者不给分；句中大小写错误，每两个扣0.5分；单词拼写错误，每个扣0.5分。本题分扣完为止，不打负分。
9. 短文写作：
(1) 本题总分为15分，按4个档次给合分。评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次。注意把握各个档次的给分范围，避免出现过于集中在每个档次的最低分数段。
(2) 学生对自己及家庭成员的介绍，以及对家庭成员职业、爱好和活动的描述可详可略，文章能够合理表达出家庭成员的概况即可。
(3) 词数少于50 的，从总分中减去2分；多于90的，建议不扣分。
(4) 拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
(5) 如书写较差影响内容表达，在本档次内可酌情扣分，但不能因书写影响对试题评判的客观性，避免把书写美观度作为主要评分标准。
各档次的给分范围和要求：
第四档：符合题目要求，内容完整，层次结构清晰，表达清楚，语言无误。13-15分。
第三档：基本符合题目要求，内容较完整，层次结构较清晰，表达较清楚，语言有少量错误。9-12分。
第二档：部分内容符合题目要求，内容不够完整，层次结构不够清晰，表达不够清楚，语言有较多错误。4-8分。
第一档：不符合题目要求，整篇表达不清楚，或照抄、拼凑几个词语。0-3分。2024年秋期期中七年级阶段性调研
英　 语
注意事项：
1．本试卷共8页，六个大题，满分120分。考试时间100分钟。
2．本试卷上不要答题，请按答题卡上注意事项的要求直接把答案写在答题卡上。答在试卷上的答案无效。
一、听力理解（20小题，每小题1分，共20分）
第一节 听下面五个句子。从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出与所听句子内容相符的图片。每个句子读两遍。
1. A. B. C.
2. A. B. C.
3. A. B. C.
4. A. B. C.
5. A. B. C.
第二节　听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。
6. When is it now
A. In the evening. B. In the morning. C. In the afternoon.
7. Where does Jim’s father work
A. In a school. B. In a factory. C. In a hospital.
8. What color is the girl’s dress
A. Pink. B. Yellow. C. Blue.
9. What subject does Mark teach
A. History. B. English. C. Chinese.
10. Where does Li Juan read books after school
A. At home. B. In the library. C. In the classroom.
　　第三节 听下面一段对话或一段独白。对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。对话或独白读两遍。
　　听下面一段对话，回答第11至第12两个小题。
11. The man has ________ clubs.
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4
12. What club can the girl join
A. The Art Club. B. The Music Club. C. The Sports Club.
　　听下面一段独白，回答第13至第15三个小题。
13. Who is the girl in a white dress
A. Ma Li. B. Ma Huan. C. Xiao Ya.
14. Her father is a _______.
A. doctor B. teacher C. driver
15. How old is Ma Huan
A. She is 12. B. She is 13. C. She is 14.
第四节 听下面一篇短文。根据你所听到的短文内容，完成下面表格，每空填一词。短文读两遍。
Name I have a good 16 . His name is Liu Chang.
At school He always goes to school by 17 . Classes start at 18 in the morning. His favorite subject is 19 .
After school He takes part in some after-school activities.
His school life is 20 . He is very happy.
二、阅读理解（15小题，每小题2分，共30分）
阅读下面三篇语言材料，然后按要求做题。
A
根据材料内容选择最佳答案。
21. What activities are there in the English club
①Watch English films ②Read the writers’ books ③ Put on English plays
④Ask the writers questions ⑤Sing English songs
A. ①②③ B. ①②④ C. ②③⑤ D. ①③⑤
22. Where can you meet the writers
A. In the school hall. B. In the school library.
C. In the science building. D. In the teaching building.
22. What time does the science club open
A. At 5:30 p.m. every Tuesday. B. At 1:00 p.m. every Friday.
C. At 1:00 p.m. every Wednesday. D. At 3:00 p.m. every Friday.
24. Who teaches you to make a film
A. Mr. Wang. B. Mrs. Wang. C. Mr. Zhang. D. Mrs. Zhang.
25. The three posters (海报) are for _______.
A. the students B. the teachers C. the parents D. the doctors
B
David is a student of Grade Seven. He is an American boy. He comes to Beijing with his parents. His parents work here.
David learns Chinese and some other subjects. He studies hard. He lives not far from his school. He often goes to school at half past seven on foot. He likes history best because he can learn about the history of China. He doesn’t like biology. His favorite days are Monday and Wednesday because he has a history class on Monday and a PE class on Wednesday. There are many clubs in his school. David and his classmates can join clubs for fun.
After school, he often swims and plays football. He has many friends in Beijing now. He is happy in China.
根据材料内容选择最佳答案。
26. When does David often go to school
A. At 6:30. B. At 6:45. C. At 7:30. D. At 8:00.
27. Why does David like history best
A. Because it’s interesting. B. Because he can have great fun.
C. Because the teacher is kind. D. Because he can know China’s history.
28. Which day does David like best
A. Monday and Wednesday. B. Monday and Tuesday.
C. Tuesday and Wednesday. D. Tuesday and Saturday.
29. What does David often do after school
A. Reading and running. B. Swimming and playing football.
C. Swimming and running. D. Reading and playing basketball.
30. What’s the text about
A. David’s friends. B. David’s family.
C. David’s teachers. D. David’s school life.
C
Look at the photo. It’s my family. They are my grandparents. 31 He works hard and he loves his job. My grandmother is a teacher in a school. 32 The man in blue is my father. He is a bus driver. The woman in a pink dress is my mother. She is a doctor in a hospital. They love their jobs. 33 I’m a student. I study hard at school. At home, I often help mother do chores.
34 We go to Fangcheng to see my grandparents every week. It’s my best time there. We often cook a big dinner (晚餐) at grandparents’ home. 35 I help my grandfather set the table and do the dishes with my grandmother after dinner. We have a happy family time.
根据材料内容，从下面五个选项中选出能填入文中空缺处的最佳选项，使文章意思通顺、内容完整。
A. My parents cook nice food.
B. The boy in a white T-shirt is me.
C. I live in Nanyang with my parents now.
D. My grandfather is a worker in Fangcheng.
E. She is kind to her students and all of them like her.
三、完形填空（10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
先通读短文，掌握其大意，然后从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入相应空白处的最佳答案。
Here is a survey (调查) about students’ favorite subjects and after-school activities.
I’m Steve. My favorite subject is PE because it’s 36 . I go to the sports club after school. I can play football 37 my friends. That’s very nice.
My name is Jane. I like maths best. I 38 like the art class, too. The maths class begins at ten to nine. I often 39 my hand and answer questions in the maths class. I usually go to the 40 club after school to draw pictures there. I can draw well. It’s 41 favorite activity.
I’m Ted. I have 42 classes a day. There are four classes in the morning and three classes in the afternoon. My favorite 43 begins at 1:00 in the afternoon. It’s music. I love 44 and dancing with my classmates. I can play the guitar. So I go to the music club after school. I 45 with other students in the music club, and now I have many good friends. That’s very great.
36. A. new B. hard C. busy D. interesting
37. A. for B. to C. with D. on
38. A. also B. only C. never D. seldom
39. A. show B. see C. raise D. play
40. A. music B. art C. computer D. science
41. A. my B. your C. his D. her
42. A. six B. seven C. eight D. ten
43. A. sport B. book C. job D. subject
44. A. running B. swimming C. singing D. reading
45. A. do sports B. make friends C. watch TV D. take photos
四、语言知识（25小题，每小题1分，共25分）
第一节 从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出划线部分读音与其它三个不同的一项。
46. A. name B. grade C. age D. flag
47. A. meet B. see C. ten D. she
48. A. thin B. hike C. time D. life
49. A. game B. geography C. girl D. great
50. A. his B. has C. desk D. busy
第二节 根据语境和所给提示完成句子。
51. I seldom play basketball after school. I a________ play the guitar.
52. My favorite subject at school is b________. It’s very interesting.
53. —Do your grandparents live with you
—No, they don’t. But I v_________ them on weekends.
54. —What’s your name, please
—My name is Xiao Ya, and I e________ hiking.
55. It’s ________ (星期四) today. We don’t have a PE class.
56. —How old is your sister
—She is ________(十五岁) years old.
57. —What color is your schoolbag
—It’s ________ (绿色的).
58. —Do you like singing
—Yes, I do. And my sister ________ (love) singing, too.
59. —Are there any ________ (box) in the boy’s hands
—Yes, there are.
60. —Kangkang’s uncle is a bus driver. He likes ________ (he) job.
第三节 阅读短文，从方框中选择适当的词并用其正确形式填空，使短文通顺、意思完整。每空限填一词，每词限用一次。
help parent as music they
My name is Alice Green. I live in Zhengzhou with my 61 now because they work here.
I have two good friends. 62 names are Lin Yang and Wang Yue. Lin Yang is quiet and she likes listening to 63 . Wang Yue is cute and she often plays the guitar. We also do many things together, such 64 swimming and running.
Lin Yang and Wang Yue are friendly. They often 65 me with my Chinese. I love them very much. I am happy every day.
第四节 阅读短文，根据语篇要求填空，使短文通顺、意思完整。每空限填一词。
My school is very beautiful. 66 is a tall teaching building in it. It has five floors. Next 67 the building, there is a garden. It is small but beautiful. You can see a lot of trees 68 flowers in it. We also have a big playground. After class, we often play basketball on 69 playground. Sometimes our teachers play with us. They 70 kind to us. I love my teachers and my school!
五、补全对话（5小题，每小题2分，共10分）
根据下面的对话情景，在每个空白处填上一个适当的句子，使对话的意思连贯、完整。
A: Hi, I’m Zhang Hui. What’s your name
B: 71.____________________.
A: Nice to meet you, Li Lei.
Nice to meet you, too. 72.____________________
I’m from Nanyang. And you
I’m from Luoyang. 73.____________________
A: I usually come to school on foot. What about you
B. 74.____________________.
A :That’s really cool.
B: 75.____________________
A: It’s 8 o’clock. It’s time for class. Let’s go!
六、书面表达（共25分）
第一节 看图写句子 (5小题，每小题2分，共10分)
根据图示、提示词和标点符号，写出一个与图画情景相符的句子。
76. she, in 77. it, now 78. there be 79. he, like 80. what, do
76.__________________________________________________________________.
77.__________________________________________________________________.
78.__________________________________________________________________.
79.__________________________________________________________________
80.__________________________________________________________________
第二节 短文写作 (15分)
下周，学校将举行“和谐家庭”主题演讲活动。假如你是李佳乐，请你根据下面的提示和要求，用英语写一篇短文，向大家介绍你自己和你的家人。
(
My Family
…
O
ur likes or activities
M
y
f
amily
members and their jobs
M
y
name, age (12岁）
…
)
参考词汇：farmer 农民；office worker办公室职员
写作要求：1）文中须包含所给的所有要点提示，可适当发挥；
2）短文通顺连贯，语言表达准确，书写规范整洁；
3）文中不得出现考生的真实姓名和学校名称；
4）词数70左右。
My Family
_______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
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