浙江省杭州市北斗联盟2024-2025学年高一上学期期中联考英语试题(含答案,含听力原文及音频)

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浙江省杭州市北斗联盟2024-2025学年高一上学期期中联考英语试题(含答案,含听力原文及音频)

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2024学年第一学期北斗联盟期中考试联考
高一年级英语学科试题
考生须知:
1. 本卷共8页满分150分,考试时间120分钟。
2. 答题前,在答题卷制定区域填写班级、姓名、考场号、座位号及准考证号并填涂相应数字。
3. 所有答案必须写在答题纸上,写在试卷上无效。
4. 考试结束后,只需上交答题纸。
第I卷 选择题部分
第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分)
做题时,先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后,你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What is the probable relationship between the speakers
A. Doctor and patient. B. Husband and wife. C. Parent and child.
2. What is the weather like now
A. Rainy. B. Snowy. C. Sunny.
3. What is John doing now
A. Playing football. B. Watching TV. C. Doing revision.
4. When will the next bus leave
A. At 9:30. B. At 9:35. C. At 10:00.
5. Where does the woman plan to take her holiday this year
A. In Canada. B. In Turkey. C. In Italy.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。
6. Why is the blouse so expensive
A. It’s from China. B. It’s made of silk. C. It looks nice.
7. How much will the woman pay in total
A. 150 dollars. B. 240 dollars. C. 300 dollars.
听第7段材料,回答第8至10题。
8. What is the man planning to buy
A. A garden. B. A house. C. A farm.
9. What do we know about the house
A. It is large.
B. It needs fixing.
C. It has one bedroom.
10. What does the man suggest growing
A. Corn. B. Rice. C. Potatoes.
听第8段材料,回答第11至13题。
11. When did the man begin his first horse riding lesson
A. Yesterday. B. Last week. C. A month ago.
12. What did the man think of his first horse riding lesson
A. Boring. B. Difficult. C. Interesting.
13. What did the woman say about her teacher
A. She was a good teacher.
B. She was an excellent rider.
C. She was a humorous person.
听第9段材料,回答第14至16题。
14. Why does the woman go to England today
A. To visit a friend. B. To go shopping. C. To do business.
15. What kind of tickets will the woman buy
A. Single ones.
B. First-class ones.
C. Weekly return ones.
16. When will the return flight leave
A. At 8:15 am. B. At 6:50 pm. C. At 9:30 pm.
听第10段材料,回答第17至20题。
17. How long will it take to get to the museum
A. About 20 minutes.
B. About 30 minutes.
C. About 50 minutes.
18. What is special about the trip for the students
A. They can pick up ancient pots to study.
B. They can take old rings out of the glass case.
C. They’ll take a related test when back at school.
19. How do the students find information in the Technology Center
A. By using iPads.
B. By using computers.
C. By asking Jane Witton.
20. What does the speaker want the students to do after the trip
A. Make postcards. B. Draw posters. C. Give reports.
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
If you are longing for a hike in Alaska and aren’t sure where to start, here are our favorites. There’s something for all levels of skills and ambitions.
The Kenai River Trail
A half mile down this trail are wonderful views of Kenai River Canyon. There are really two trailheads; the main “upper” trail starts at mile 0.6 of Skilak Lake Rd, and the other at mile 2.3.
Turnagain Arm Trail
This 11-mile hike begins at Potter Trailhead (Mile 115). Originally used by Alaska Natives, the trail can also be accessible to points along the way: McHuge Creck(Mile 112), Rainbow(Mile 108)and Windy(Mile 107).
Iditarod National Historic Trail
The national historical Iditarod Trail is a 24-mile hike used by gold miners and sled-dog teams until 1918, when the Alaska Railroad was finished. It’s a two-to-three day hike through superb mountain scenery to Girdwood (where it’s known as the Crow Pass Trail), and is the region’s best backpack adventure.
Put up a tent at Echo Bend(Mile 3), or rent one of two yurts ($65 per night)close by. For a shorter outing you can turn around at the Perch, then return to the Dew Mound Trail at Echo Bend and then to the Nature Center, making this a scenic 8-mile trip.
Reed Lakes Trail
Two alpine lakes, waterfalls, glaciers and towering granite walls: the 7-to-9 mile Reed Lakes Trail is one of the most wonderful hikes in the region, and worth the climb. Once you reach upper Reed Lake, continue 1 mile to Bomber Glacier, where the ruin of a B-29 bomber lies in memorial (纪念)to six men who died in a 1957 crash.
21. Which route was firstly used by Alaska Natives
A. Reed Lakes Trail B. Turnagain Arm Trail
C. The Kenai River Trail D. Iditarod National Historic Trail
22. What will visitors see at Bomber Glacier
A. A tower made of granite B. A memorial to six heroes
C. The ruin of a B-29 bomber D. One of the most splendid waterfalls
23. Who will be more interested in the text
A. Sports lovers B. Alaska explorers
C. Field researchers D. Nature photographers
B
The sound of my mother preparing breakfast fills the house – my morning alarm.
As I walk toward the kitchen, I’m greeted by my mother standing over the cooker. She effortlessly cooks a dish that mixes Western and Eastern styles, a beloved breakfast classic in our family. This is my grandmother’s recipe (食谱).
Since my grandmother’s passing, I’ve become more aware of my mother’s aging and her devotion to cooking for us. She has cooked for her family for more than 30 years, dividing her time between three countries – Korea, Canada and Germany. When my parents visit us from Korea, they stay with us for several months. My mother helps around the house, showing her cooking skills to provide delicious meals for me, my partner and our kids. In every other year, she and my dad will travel to Berlin to spend a couple of weeks with my sister and her partner.
According to Statista, most Canadians report spending between 31 and 60 minutes preparing an average weekday dinner for themselves and others in their houses. Ten percent stated that they spend more than an hour preparing their evening meal. My mother belongs to that 10 percent.
Her cooking goes beyond the kitchen, starting with careful grocery shopping trips where she examines produce and finds the best deals. She takes everyone’s preferences and needs into account. The meal she creates becomes a ritual (仪式), bringing the family together to connect and share. Helping her out in the kitchen requires a great deal of patience. Yet, I know it’s her way of expressing love. As I prepare the vegetables, she notices that my carrots are not evenly sized. She pushes me aside to take over the task. “Just do the dishes.”
24. What do we know about the author’s mother from paragraph 2
A. She has more than two daughters.
B. She has great cooking skills.
C. She lives with the author in Korea.
D. She invented the family beloved breakfast classic.
25. What’s the purpose of listing data(数据)about meal preparation time
A. To show her mother’s love.
B. To present a common problem.
C. To explain the reasons behind infrequent cooking.
D. To stress the importance of home-cooked meals.
26. What can be inferred from the underlined sentence in the last paragraph
A. Her mother gets angry easily.
B. Her mother wants to teach her everything.
C. Her mother dislikes being bothered.
D. Her mother expects perfection in cooking.
27. Which is the best title for the text
A. Mother’s Love Needs to Be Responded to
B. Mother’s Recipe Is the Best in the World
C. Mother’s Kitchen Draws Us Closer Together
D. Mother’s Selflessness Inspires My Family
C
Have you ever played a computer game for a long time and then kept seeing the game’s images afterward This happened to me with the classic shape-falling game Tetris (俄罗斯方块), created in 1985 by Alexey Pajitnov.
Feeling stressed one evening, I turned on my Switch to find a game to play and relax with. That’s when I discovered Tetris. Before I knew it, I was obsessed. Even when I stopped, my brain was still playing, with the blocks falling in my mind. I started looking at objects in the real world and thinking about how they could be moved and stacked together. I even dreamed about Tetris. I was experiencing the common “Tetris effect”.
Introduced by journalist Jeffrey Goldsmith in his 1994 Wired magazine article called This Is Your Brain on Tetris, the effect has been observed by psychologists and researchers. The lasting images of Tetris are due to the “Zeigarnik effect”, in which people have better memories of uncompleted tasks than those of completed ones. Tetris, being a game that technically never ends, keeps you thinking of the game’s unfinished task, reported Tech Times. And the catchy music stays with you, too.
There are also positives to the Tetris Effect. In his 1991 study, psychologist Richard Haier at the University of California found that continuously playing Tetris resulted in the thickness of the cerebral cortex (大脑皮层)increasing, which improves brain efficiency (效率), reported psychology website Practical Pie. Haier’s discovery got Tetris put into the Guinness World Records Video Gamer’s Edition 2008, as the “first video game to be proven to improve brain functioning and efficiency”.
So, the next time you want to play a computer game, why not try the classic Tetris and see if it improves your brain function But be warned, you’ll likely be seeing falling blocks everywhere.
28. What does the underlined word “obsessed” in paragraph 2 probably mean
A. quite shocked. B. extremely interested. C. highly satisfied. D. very curious.
29. What can we learn about the “Tetris Effect” from the text
A. It is connected to the way our memory works.
B. It is an uncommon occurrence among children.
C. It can cause the “Zeigarnik effect”.
D. It is primarily related to the game’s music.
30. What benefit can people get from continuously playing Tetris, according to Haier
A. Improved memory. B. Lifted mood.
C. Better brain function. D. Fewer painful experiences.
31. What is the author’s tone in the last paragraph
A. Serious. B. Amusing.
C. Worried. D. Doubtful.
D
“An increase of just 2 ℃ in global temperatures could make the world much drier and more desert-like,” new research has warned.
According to it, more than a quarter of the world’s land surface would become drier and wildfires could be widespread. The most affected areas are parts of South East Asia, Southern Europe, Southern Africa, Central America and Southern Australia. These areas are home to more than 20 percent of the world’s population -- that’s over 1.5 billion people. However, scientists found that limiting global warming to 1.5 ℃ would greatly reduce the percentage of the Earth’s surface affected.
“Aridification(干旱化)would emerge over 20 to 30 percent of the world’s land surface by the time the global temperature change reaches 2 ℃,” said Dr. Manoj Joshi from the University of East Anglia’s school of Environmental Sciences and one of the study’s co-author. The study looked at the present rate of global temperature increase and compared it to data from before the industrial revolution(工业革命). The world has already warmed by 1℃ since then.
The Paris Agreement, which was first signed in 2015, is an international agreement to control climate change. It hopes to hold the increase in the global average temperature to well below 2 ℃ and to take efforts to limit the temperature increase to 1.5 ℃. In June, President Trump, however, announced his intention for the US, the second largest producer of greenhouse gases in the world, to withdraw from the agreement.
Drought is one of the biggest concerns in some parts of the world, where rainfall is rare and water is not enough. Some parks of Kenya, for example, can go an entire year without a drop of rain.
32. What will happen if the global temperature increases by 1.5 ℃
A. Many areas of the world will become much drier.
B. The percentage of the Earth’s affected surface will be lower.
C. The greenhouse effect will be far worse.
D. Many people will leave their home for safer places.
33. Which country is most likely to be affected by aridification
A. China B. Russia
C. Canada D. Philippine
34. What is Dr. Manoj’s attitude towards the global temperature change
A. Doubtful B. Supportive
C. Concerned D. Unclear
35. What’s the main idea of the passage
A. To call on every country to control greenhouse gases.
B. To encourage every country to protect the earth.
C. To introduce the possible effect of climate change.
D. To raise some suggestions on preventing climate change.
第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Group volunteer opportunities are multi-person service projects that improve volunteers’ towns, regions, or even the world. 36 , and that will encourage them to contribute to the broader community. Here are some of the best group volunteering ideas.
Help the homeless. According to an official report, more than three million individuals are now homeless in North America. 37 However, you can help the homeless by volunteering. For example, you can partner with a local food bank or a homeless shelter by helping raise money, provide food, or collect donations.
38 This volunteering idea might be perfect for your team if you have members crazy about planting vegetables. It is a great way to connect with nearby residents and enjoy the great outdoors. Plus, you’ll get to share the fruits of your labor with the whole community. After a backbreaking planting session, there is nothing better than tasting a juicy tomato straight off the vine (藤)with neighbors.
Host a community clean-munity clean-up events bring people together to improve their environment while strengthening social bonds between neighbors and volunteers. These activities can make the community look beautiful and contribute to a healthier environment. 39
Gather and donate pet food. Animal-loving groups can take part in a month-long challenge to gather and distribute as much pet food as possible. If you are looking for a way to gather pet food, then visit pet businesses in your neighborhood, or ask for donations from family and friends. 40 , so the team members can clean animals for a bag of pet food in this activity.
A. Grow a garden for the community.
B. Help neighbors do a bit of gardening.
C. You could also organize a “Pet Wash”.
D. Unfortunately, many people overlook this situation.
E. These projects can give teammates a shared purpose.
F. They also encourage a sense of pride and responsibility among locals.
G. They are vital for improving the overall confidence of those they serve.
第三部分 语言运用(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
I was travelling on a bus. The bus was so 41 that many people had to stand in the aisle(过道),including me. The people sitting near the windows 42 happy faces, while the people seated near the aisle were 43 with the standing persons who had to sometimes touch their shoulders.
After about two hours, I was feeling extremely 44 . I tried to balance myself and move the body weight from one leg to the other to feel a little comfortable. I 45 sensed a soft hand touching my arm. I thought this man sitting near me must be 46 that my body was touching his shoulder. I 47 and looked down at him with a questioning expression. The man 48 me with a kind smile on his face. He stood up and 49 me that I could take his seat for a few minutes. I was very surprised and immediately sat down without wasting a second. He was happily standing in my place and looking around in 50 . Another 20 minutes passed and I stood up and let him take his 51 .
A person who was seated near the window was watching us. He stood up and 52 his seat to another standing man. Suddenly this game of 53 spread around and almost all standing people could sit for a few minutes. People were talking to each other while 54 the seats. Needless to say, the rest of the journey became quite 55 .
41. A. dirty B. crowded C. extra D. dark
42. A. exploring B. preferred C. wore D. stored
43. A. unhappy B. strict C. familiar D. patient
44. A. annoyed B. tired C. frightened D. excited
45. A. suddenly B. actually C. obviously D. extremely
46. A. anxious B. curious C. upset D. confident
47. A. came along B. fell apart C. calmed down D. turned around
48. A. kept up with B. looked up at C. lived up to D. got along with
49. A. promised B. wished C. warned D. told
50. A. shock B. doubt C. amusement D. surprise
51. A. breath B. seat C. flight D. responsibility
52. A. delivered B. returned C. offered D. passed
53. A. exploring B. cheating C. checking D. sharing
54. A. exchanging B. taking C. searching D. holding
55. A. enjoyable B. painful C. boring D. interesting
第II卷 非选择题部分
注意:将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
第二节 语法填空(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Shanghai, “Hu” for short, is an international financial, trade and shipping center. Shanghai enjoys 56 typical subtropical(亚热带)climate, mild and humid, with four distinct seasons, abundant sunshine and rainfall. As the 57 (busy)container port in the world, Shanghai port was opened in November 1843 under the “Treaty(条约)of Nanking” and became one of the five treaty ports 58 (force)to trade with foreign powers. Since then, the history of the Shanghai International Settlement 59 (begin). In the process of its development, it constantly absorbed different cultures in the surrounding areas.
In 1990, through the development and opening up policy of Pudong, Shanghai’s economic 60 (grow)was improved rapidly. After the approval of the Shanghai Free Trade Zone in 2013, Shanghai saw further economic development and 61 (final)became a world-class city. Shanghai is home 62 the Shanghai Stock(股票)Exchange, 63 is one of the world’s largest stock exchanges.
Shanghai is a model of Chinese modern and contemporary economic development. It has many landmarks, 64 (include)Yuyuan, the City God Temple, Nanjing Road, the Bund, 65 Lujiazui skyscraper skyline. Mandarin (普通话)is the official language of Shanghai, but in daily life, the public speak Shanghai dialect, which is completely different from Mandarin.
第四部分:写作(共两节,满分40分)
第一节 根据首字母单词拼写(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
(注意:请在答题纸上书写单词的完整形式。)
66. To our sadness, this ancient building was completely d________ by a big fire.
67. Learning that volunteers for the sport meet are needed, I’m writing to a________ for the post.
68. The policeman was so c________ about the cause of the accident that he set out to do the research right away.
69. The film star wears sunglasses. Therefore, he can go shopping without being r________.
70. Michael Jordan says that the secret to his success is learning from many f________.
71. Shy people often do not have enough c________ in starting up conversations with strangers.
72. There are many reasons why teenagers are easily a________ to computer games.
73. Having been learning English for 10 years, I have no difficulty speaking English f________.
74. Finding time for both studies and sports is a big challenge, so I need to make a workable s________.
75. The 2008 Olympics Games is one of big sports e________ ever held in Beijing.
76. On 28 July 1976, a deadly earthquake s________ Tangshan, making the whole city lie in ruins.
77. When I heard the good result of the exam, I e________ a big smile with my good friend.
78. Although he is only 5 years old, his amazing speech made a deep i________ on the listeners.
79. The coach told me that I didn’t play well enough. I was o________ unhappy, but I wouldn’t quit.
80. It is an h________ to share with you the story of how music has had a positive effect on my life.
第二节 应用文写作(满分25分)
假设你是李华,对探索太空很感兴趣,将要参加一个关于太空探险的夏令营,但是父母却反对,
觉得你应该关注学习。对此,你很苦恼,向你的网友Tom寻求建议。
内容包括:1.阐述问题;2寻求建议。
注意:1.写作词数应为80个左右;
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Dear Tom,
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Hua
2024 学年第一学期北斗联盟期中考试联考
高一年级英语学科参考答案
第一部分 听力(共两节,每小题1.5分,满分30分)
1-5 AACCB 6-10 BBCBC 11-15 AABCC 16-20 BAAAB
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
21-23 BCB 24-27 BADC 28-31 BACB 32-35 BDCC
第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)
36-40 EDAFC
第三部分 语言运用(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
41-45 BCABA 46-50 CDBDC 51-55 BCDAA
第二节 语法填空(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
56. a 57. busiest 58. forced 59. has begun 60. growth
61. finally 62. to 63. which 64. including 65. and
第四部分:写作(共两节,满分40分)
第一节 根据首字母单词拼写(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
66. destroyed 67. apply 68. curious 69. recognized/ recognized 70. failures
71. confidence 72. addicted 73. fluently 74. schedule 75. events
76. struck 77. exchanged 78. impression 79. obviously 80. honor/ honour
第二节 应用文写作(满分 25 分)
One possible version
Dear Tom,
How is everything going Recently I feel upset and are eager for your suggestion.
As you know, I have a preference for space exploration and have a good command of it. However, whenever I read relevant books and watch videos, my parents will explode with anger. What’s worse, they even command me to give it up and focus on my study. What makes me most annoyed now is that they prevent me from signing up for the summer camp related to exploring space which will be held next month. I have no idea how to change their minds, and I’m wondering whether you can offer me some advice.
I would be thankful if you could give me some help. Looking forward to your early reply.
Yours,
Li Hua
听力原文材料
第一节:
(Text 1)
M: Madam, what seems to be the problem
W: I feel terrible. I’ve got a cold and I have a pain here on my neck. I’m not sleeping well either.
(Text 2)
M: It’s raining again. The weather report says it’s going to snow tonight. I don’t like this kind of weather.
W: But it’s going to be sunny this weekend.
(Text 3)
M: Kate, don’t make noise. This football match is great.
W: I think you should turn off the TV. Both John and I are going over our lessons.
(Text 4)
M: When does the bus leave for the zoo
W: The buses leave every half an hour. You just missed the nine-thirty bus by five minutes.
(Text 5)
M: Are you going on holiday with your sister again this year
W: Yes. She’ll come home from Canada tomorrow, and then we’re going away next week.
M: Where are you going
W: I’ve booked a hotel in Turkey. My sister wants to go to Italy again, so I hope she doesn’t mind.
(停顿 5 秒)
第二节:
(Text 6)
W: That sleeveless blouse looks very nice. How much is it
M: 150 dollars, Madam.
W: Oh, why do you want so much for it An ordinary blouse costs only about 50 dollars. So what is so special about this one
M: It is made of Chinese silk. If you’re wearing a blouse made of real silk, you’ll feel very cool on a hot day.
W: Well, since it’s so good, I’ll buy one.
M: If you buy two, you can have them for 120 dollars each.
W: OK, I can give one to my mother.
(Text 7)
W: Oh, where are we going
M: I want to show you something.
W: I know, but what is it
M: A farm. It’s just down this road. It’s a small place, but at least it would be our own.
W: A farm How can we afford to buy a farm
M: It isn’t large, only one acre. We wouldn’t have to pay very much right now.
W: Is there a house on the farm
M: A small one with two bedrooms, but it needs to be repaired. I can do the job myself.
W: OK. Is there enough space for a kitchen garden
M: There is about half an acre behind the house. That’s plenty of space. We can probably grow a lot of our own food.
W: What are you thinking about growing
M: Well, it really isn’t big enough for corn or rice. I think we may try to raise a crop of potatoes.
W: Do we have enough money to get all of these
M: I think we’ve saved enough. We can also ask John about the money he borrowed from us.
(Text 8)
W: Hi, I hear you’re having horse riding lessons
M: Yes. We’ll be able to go riding together.
W: Great! When did you start
M: I saw an advertisement about a month ago. So Mum phoned the place and we visited it last week, but I only had my first lesson yesterday.
W: How was it
M: All we did was brush the horses. It wasn’t difficult but I wanted to ride. I hope the next lesson will be interesting.
W: I remember my first lesson. I got a riding hat as a birthday present, plus boots and trousers, so I had lots of things. But my friend’s mum had to lend me her jacket because it was so cold that day.
M: What was your teacher like
W: She won a lot of prizes for horse riding, but I don’t think she really knew how to teach us and she wasn’t always fun. But I kept going, and now I love riding!
(Text 9)
W: I would like to buy two tickets for me and my friend to England, please. And I need to leave today. There is something urgent on business.
M: Are you aware that prices without two weeks’ advance notice will be very high And today is Saturday. I’m afraid there may be no tickets left. Oh, luckily, here are two tickets to London, but it’s economy, not first-class. Will that be one-way or round-trip
W: I wish I could stay there, but unfortunately it will have to be a round-trip ticket.
M: When would you like to return
W: I will stay there for seven days.
M: OK. I have you booked on Flight 513 leaving at 8: 15 am and arriving in England at 8: 05 pm tonight. The return is Flight
514 leaving on 5th November at 6: 50 pm and arriving in New York at 9: 30 pm on the very day.
W: Perfect! I still have time to go to the shops in the airport before I go. Oh, but how much are they
M: Two weekly return tickets to New York. It is 150 pounds in total.
(Text 10)
W: Hello, everyone. I’m going to tell you about our trip to the City Museum. The museum isn’t far----it’ll only take us about 20 minutes to get there. There will be several events during the day and you’ll have the chance to walk around the museum for at least 50 minutes. At first we’ll listen to the museum director Jane Witton for about 30 minutes, telling us about what there is to see. Usually in a museum you’re not allowed to touch what’s on show, but on this visit, we are! You’ll all work in groups, and each group will be given pots to pick up and look at, and think about what they were used for. You’ll study some ancient rings too, although I’m afraid they’ll stay in their glass case. The museum also has a Technology Center for education and research. You’ll be able to find out lots of interesting facts. Rather than using computers, though, iPads will be provided. You can work on these to search for information. When you’ve finished your research, for the final activity you’ll do a quiz to see how much you can remember. When we get back to school, I’d like you to design and make something for other students to see. The museum has sent us some of their postcards, which can give you ideas for the posters I want you to draw.

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