资源简介

2024-2025学年七年级半期检测
英语测试
Listening Part（听力部分，共30分）
一、 听句子，圈出句中所包含的单词，每个句子读两遍（每题1分，共10分）
( )1. A. fantastic B. dangerous C. interesting D. delicious
( )2. A. class B. glass C. cross D. grass
( )3. A. what B. want C. white D. when
( )4. A. factory B. chemistry C. library D. history
( )5. A. winner B. winter C. windy D. window
( ) 6. A. here B. there C. hair D. where
( )7. A. swim B. swam C. swimming D. singing
( ) 8. A. horse B. house C. south D. north
( )9. A. parent B. present C. peanut D. plant
( )10. A. happily B. healthy C. holiday D. worry
二、 听句子，判断下面的句子与所听内容是否相符，相符的写“A”，反之写“B”，每个句子读两遍。（每题1分，共5分）
11. Shanshan will do the housework tomorrow. ( )
12. Lingling has got a knife and fork. ( )
13. I’m not going to study French. ( )
14. It will be windy in Meishan. ( )
15. Amy can be my Chinese pen friend. ( )
三、 听问句，选答语，每个问句读两遍。（每题1分，5分）
（ ）16. A. You’re welcome. B. Thank you. C. Here you are. D. Hooray.
（ ）17. A. Yes. I can. B. Yes, please. C. Yes, I don’t D. Yes, I will.
（ ）18. A. Yes, it is. B. No, they aren’t. C. Yes, there is. D. Yes, it does.
（ ）19. A. At eight o’clock. B. By bike. C. Amy. D. It’s Amy’s.
（ ）20. A. That’s OK. B. That’s a good idea.
How about playing football D. Thank you.
四、 听对话，选出符合对话内容的图片番号，每个对话读两遍（每题1分，5分）
21. （ ）A B
22. （ ）
A B
23.（ ） A B
24.（ ）
A B
（ ）
A B
五、 听短文，根据短文内容填入所缺的单词，短文听三遍（每题1分，5分）
This is Lingling, She is 26 years old. Last July, She 27 to Xinjiang with her parents. Xinjiang is in the west of 28 . She rode a 29 . She climbed the Tianshan Mountains. She visited the Tianchi Lake. She had a lovely 30 there.
26 27 28 29 30
Writing Part（笔试部分，共90分）
找出与其他单词的画线部分读音不同的一项。（每题1分，5分）
( ) 31. A. ship B. kite C. rice
( ) 32. A. race B. face C. fat
( ) 33. A. red B. eraser C. egg
( ) 34. A. nose B. hospital C. sock
( )35. A.desk B.better C.we
单项选择。（每题1分，10分）
( ) 36. Bill is _______ English teacher. He likes playing _______ football.
A. an; the B. a; / C. an; /
( )37. Teachers’ Day is in _______.
A. October B. November C. September
( )38. －Whose book is it －It’s not _______. It’s _______ book.
A. mine; your B. my; yours C. mine; you
( ) 39. —What would you like —I’d like some _______. I’m hungry.
A. water B. sandwiches C. candies
( ) 40. —What time is it —It’s _______. It’s time to get up.
A. 6:30 a.m. B. 6:30 p.m. C. 12:00 p.m.
( ) 41. —_______is April Fool’s day —It’s on April 1st.
A. Where B. What C. When
(　 　 )42.The students ______ their homework every day. Now they ______ their homework.
A.does; doing B.doing; are doing C.do; are doing
( )43. —________did you go on your holiday —I went to Xinjiang.
A. What B. Where C. How
( )44. It’s snowy ______ Beijing.
on B. in C. at
(　 　)45. —Is there ______ “ o ”in the word “blue ”？ —No , there's ______ “ u ” in it.
an; a B. a; an C. an; an
三、 读一读，句图配对。（每题1分，5分）
46. 47. 48. 49. 50.
( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
A. Taking photos is my hobby.
B. Have you got a knife and fork or chopsticks
C. Last year he went to Haikou, and he swam in the sea.
D. She’s having lunch, but the phone rings.
E. The old man can’t sit down. A kind girl helps him.
四、读一读，按要求写句子。 (每小题2分，共10分）
51. What’s Sam doing (看图对答问题）
___________________________________________
goes my work father to o’clock every at eight morning ( . )
（连词成句）
____________________________________________________
He does homework every day. (用now来改写句子)
He __________ _________ homework now.
54. in there any are books bag the ( ) （连词成句）
____________________________________________________
55. go where on holiday you did your ( ) （连词成句）
____________________________________________________
五、读一读，根据句意及图片提示写单词，完成句子。（每题2分, 共10分）
56. –Do you want some meat
-- No, thank you. I want some
57. love bamboo, but tigers love meat.
58. – Will it be windy tomorrow
-- No , it won’t. It’ll be .
59. – What are you doing
-- I’m TV.
60. – This is Lingling’s.
-- It’s very beautiful.
六、阅读下面短文，根据短文内容，从A、B、C三个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。（共10小题；每小题1分，计10分）
Lily is a nice girl. In her family, she has two 61 . They’re John and Jack. Lily is tidy, 62 her brothers aren’t.
Now they’re in 63 room. The boy next to the bed is John. What’s that in 64 hands (手) Oh, it’s a model plane. The 65 of it is white. Can you 66 a hat on the floor It’s not John’s, but Jack’s. And John has 67 pencils. One, two ... Here are three on the floor. Where is the 68 one Ah, it’s under the bed.
Lily says to her brother John, “ 69 are everywhere in your room. You can put them in your pencil box.”
“I know,” John says. “But 70 is my pencil box ”
( ) 61. A. friends B. cousins C. brothers
( ) 62.. A. so B. but C. and
( ) 63.. A. Lily’s B. John’s C. Jack’s
( ) 64. A. her B. his C. their
( ) 65. A. colour B. name C. number
( ) 66. A. spell B. see C. think
( ) 67. A. four B. five C. six
( ) 68. A. first B. middle C. last
( ) 69. A. Hats B. Pencils C. Models
( ) 70. A. where B. what C. how
七、情景交际。（每空2分，共10分，有两个选项是多余的）
A. Did you climbed Mount Emei(峨眉山) B. How did you go there C. Did you go with your parents D. When are you going there E. Are you going to Three-su Temple(三苏祠) next week F. What did you do yesterday G. Can I go with you
A: Hi, John. You look so tired. 71. ________
B: I climbed Mount Emei yesterday.
A：72. ________
B: No, I went there with my uncle.
A：73. ________
B: We went there by car.
A：74. ________
B: Yes, I am going there next week.
A：75. ________
B: Of course! Let's go together next week.
八、阅读理解（每小题2分，共20分）
A
In ancient (古代的) China, people have three names: their family name, given name, and courtesy name (字). Take famous poet Li Bai as an example. His family name is Li, his given name is Bai, and his courtesy name is Taibai.
People use their given names when they are with their family or friends. And your elders like your grandparents and parents call your given name at home. But in the workplace, people use their courtesy names.
Men get their courtesy names when they are 20 years old. Women get their courtesy names after they get married (结婚).
People’s courtesy names have something to do with their given names. For example, Zhuge Liang’s given name is Liang. It means “bright”. His courtesy name is Kongming. And the meaning is “very bright”.
76．The three names of ancient Chinese people are ________.
a. Family name b. Middle name c. Given name d. Courtesy name
A．abc B．abd C．acd D．bcd
77．Li Bai’s probably gets his courtesy name when he ________.
A．is 15 years old B．gets married
C．gets his given name D．is 20 years old
78．The underlined word “it” in Paragraph (段落) 4 refers to (指) ________.
A．people’s courtesy names B．people’s given names
C．Zhuge Liang’s given name D．Zhuge Liang’s courtesy name
79．Where do people use their courtesy names
A. At home B.when they are with their family or friends. C.Everywhere D. In the workplace .
80. We can learn from the passage (文章) that________.
A．parents call kids their family name at home
B．people use courtesy names at work
C．women can’t have courtesy names
D．courtesy names have no relation (关系)with given names
B
阅读短文，将答案番号写在题前括号内。
Jack and John are twins. They are good at English. They like to swim and ride bikes in their holidays. They like to fly kites too. They often fly kites near the lake. But they don’t like all the same things. Jack likes playing football，but John likes playing ping pong. Jack likes listening to music，but John likes drawing pictures. They often help each other.
( )81. What are they good at
A.Chinese. B. Maths. C. English. D. Science.
( )82. What do they like to do in their holiday
A. Play ping-pong and run. B. Swim and ride bikes.*
C. Swim and play basketball. D. Play ping-pong and ride bikes.
( )83. Where do they fly kites
A. Near the lake. B. In the park.
C. on the beach. D. Near the river. 原创
( )84. Who likes playing football
A. Jack and John. B. John. C. Jack. D. Nobody
( )85. Do they often help each other
A. Yes, he does. B. No, he doesn’t.
C. Yes, they do. D. No, they doesn’t. 【
书面表达（10分）
假设你是John,请你用英语写一篇小短文向全班同学介绍一下你和你父母的情况。内容包括：
你今年13岁，在第九中学初一8班就读，并描述你的爱好；
你父母的工作；
你最喜欢紫色，你的紫色书包里面有一串钥匙、一本英语书和一幅中国地图。
你的联系电话是986-1314,电子邮箱地址为John@.
写作要求：
1.不得在作文中出现真实的学校名称及学生的真实姓名；
2.语句连贯，注意分段，不少于50词。开头已经给出，但不计入总词数。2024-2025学年七年级半期检测
英语答案
一、 听句子，圈出句中所包含的单词，每个句子读两遍（每题1分，共10分）
1-5 BDBAB 6-10 BCBAC
二、 听句子，判断下面的句子与所听内容是否相符，相符的写“A”，反之写“B”，每个句子读两遍。（每题1分，共5分）
11-15 ABAAB
三、 听问句，选答语，每个问句读两遍。（每题1分，5分）
16-20 BBCBC
四、 听对话，选出符合对话内容的图片番号，每个对话读两遍（每题1分，5分）
21-25 AABAB
五、 听短文，根据短文内容填入所缺的单词，短文听三遍（每题1分，5分）
26. nine/9 27. went 28. China 29. horse 30. time
Writing Part（笔试部分，共90分）
一、找出与其他单词的画线部分读音不同的一项。（每题1分，5分）
31-35 ACBAC
二、单项选择。（每题1分，10分）
36-40 CCABA 41-45 CCBBA
三、 读一读，句图配对。（每题1分，5分）
46-50 CADBE
四、读一读，按要求写句子。 (每小题2分，共10分）
51. He is running.
52. My father goes to work at eight every morning.
53. is doing
54.Are there any books in the bag
55. Where did you go on your holiday
五、读一读，根据句意及图片提示写单词，完成句子。（每题2分, 共10分）
56. rice 57. Pandas 58. sunny 59. watching 60. dress
六、完型填空。（每小题1分，共10分）
61-65 CBBBA 66-70 BACBA
七、情景交际。（每空2分，共10分，有两个选项是多余的）
71-75 FCBEG
八、阅读理解（每小题2分，共20分）
76-80CDBDB 81-85CBACC
九、书面表达（10分） 略

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