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巴中龙泉外国语学校八年级2024年12月月考英语试题
（全卷满分150分，120分钟完卷）
注意事项：
答题之前，考生务必按要求将自己的姓名、班级、准考证号分别填写在试卷和答题卡上相应位置。
本试卷分第I卷和第II卷，共8页。所有题必须在答题卡上作答。
第I卷选择题，须用2B铅笔把相应题目的答案涂黑。
4．第II卷非选择题，须用0.5毫米的黑色墨迹签字笔作答，答题时不得超出答题框。
第I卷（共105分）
第一部分 听（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
A.听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
( )1. What does Tom think cities will be like in the future
A. Cities will be very crowded.
B. There will be more buildings in cities.
C. The air pollution will be very serious.
( )2. What does Nick think he will be when he grows up
A. An astronaut. B. An engineer. C. A doctor.
( )3. What are the students doing
Playing games. B. Cleaning the park. C. Planting trees.
( )4. Where will Henry work after leaving school
A. In London. B. In New York. C. In Shanghai.
( )5. How are the rivers now
A. They' re clear. B. They're polluted. C. They're long.
第二节 （共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
B.听对话, 请根据每段对活的内容回答问题，从每小题所给的三个选项中选出一最佳答案。每段对话听两遍。
听第一段对话，回答第6小题。
( )6. What does Bill drink every day
A. A glass of milk. B. A cup of tea. C. A bottle of orange juice.
听第二段对话，回答第7小题。
( )7. What does Molly like
A. Action movies. B. Talk shows. C. Sports shows.
听第三段对话，回答第8小题。
( )8. Where are the speakers
A. Bookstore. B. Supermarket C. Clothes store
听第四段对话，回答第9小题。
( )9. What does Susan need
A. A big watermelon and two spoons of honey.
B. A small watermelon and one spoon of honey.
C. A small watermelon and three spoons of honey.
听第五段对话，回答第10小题。
( )10. What did Michael wear to office last week
A jacket. B. A T-shirt. C. A shirt.
听第六段对话，回答第11-12小题。
( )11. What does Miss Green teach
A. English. B. Math. C. Chinese.
( )12. What does Miss Green look like
A. She has long curly hair. B. She has short curly hair.
C. She has long straight hair.
听第七段对话，回答第13-15小题。
( )13. When does the man want to see the movie
A. At nine o'clock. B. At ten o'clock. C. At eleven o'clock.
( )14. How much should the man pay
A. Fifty yuan. B. One hundred yuan. C. One hundred and fifty yuan.
( )15. How long is the movie
A. One and a half hours.
B. One hour and forty minutes.
C. One hour and fifty minutes.
C. 听短文, 请根据所听内容，从每小题所给的三个选项中选出一个最佳答案。短文听两遍。
( )16. Who is Tony
A. Linda's brother. B. Linda's classmate. C. Linda's cousin.
( )17. Where is Tony from
A. Canada. B. America. C. Australia.
( )18. What is Tony like at school
A. Quiet. B. Serious. C. Outgoing.
( )19. What is Tony's brother
A. An engineer. B. A doctor. C. A driver.
( )20. How does Tony usually go to school
A. On foot. B. By bus. C. Ву саr.
第二部分英语知识运用（一）（共两节，满分20分）
第一节：单项选择（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）
( )21. Parents should play _______important part in their kids' education.
a B. an C. the D. /
( )22. —Wow! How beautiful the paper-cutting is!
—Yes, paper-cutting is a _________Chinese art with a long history
traditional B. normal C. educational D.meaningless
( )23. Lucy is a_______. She often interviews some famous people.
writer B. teacher C. reporter D. programmer
( )24. — _______Jane_______at the party tonight
—Yes. She is already on the way.
Will; appear B. Does; appear C. Did; appear D. Is; appearing
( )25. —Can you go to the library with me this Sunday
—______. I'll help out on my grandpa's farm.
A. I don't mind it B. I'd love to
C. I'm afraid I can't D. It sounds really great
第二节：完形填空（共10小题，每小题1.5分，满分15分）
Long ago, three rabbit brothers lived with their parents in a hole. One day, the father said, “ My sons, you are all 26 enough to look after yourselves now. You must go out and 27 your own holes. A rabbit’s hole is very important, 28 do your best to make the hole long and narrow (狭窄的) . ”
The first rabbit thought, “ I dislike living in a hole! I 29 living in a little house. ” He used a box to make a lovely little house. Suddenly, a fox (狐狸) came. When he saw the little 30 , he laughed. In a few seconds, the fox broke it, 31 the rabbit, and ate him.
The second rabbit also 32 of living in a house. He used branches (树枝) , leaves and grass to build his house. The fox came again. He laughed when he saw the house. He broke the house 33 and got the rabbit.
The youngest rabbit was 34 from his brothers. He took his father’s 35 and made a long, narrow hole. The fox couldn’t get into the hole. The rabbit was safe.
( )26. A. young B. old C. pretty D. successful
( )27. A. share B. send C. lose D. dig
( )28. A. though B. because C. so D. or
( )29. A. feel like B. look like C. care about D. find out
( )30. A. rabbit B. house C. meal D. prize
( )31. A. expected B. covered C. touched D. caught
( )32. A. celebrated B. believed C. dreamed D. prepared
( )33. A. easily B. loudly C. truly D. carefully
( )34. A. safe B. different C. far D. free
( )35. A. role B. hobby C. advice D. promise
三部分阅读理解（共两节，满分50分）
第二节：阅读理解（共 20小题，每小题2分，满分 40分）
A
Welcome to our Science Festival! Are you interested in Science Do you want to learn more about robots Welcome to the Science Museum! Place: No. 16, Renmin Road, Qingyang District, Chengdu. Opening Hours 9:00 a.m. -5:00 p.m. (Tuesday to Sunday) Robot show: 9:30 a.m. - 4:30 p.m. (Wednesday to Sunday) A group of 12 people or more can have its own tour guide for free.
Tour Prices Adults（成年人）： 15.00 Children&teenagers (5- 17): 78.00. It's free for children under five. If there are more than 15 visitors in a group, one child or teenager can be free.
Where to eat A restaurant called Greenwood is next to the museum. It serves delicious food and drinks for lunch, dinner and afternoon tea every day. Monday-Friday 11:00 a.m.-2:00 p.m. & 3:30 p.m.-9:30 p.m. Weekends 11:00 a.m.-8:00pm
How to get here We advise you to come here by bus or by taxi. The nearest car park is on North Bridge, far from the museum. At last, remember not to bring large bags with you. If you do, we won't let you in.
( )36. Visitors can enjoy the robot show__________.
A. at 9:00 a.m. on Tuesday B. at 2:00 p.m. on Friday
C. at 5:30 p.m. on Saturday D. at 8:30 p.m. on Thursday
( )37. If a group of 5 eight-year-old children, and 12 adults with one little baby visits the museum, they will___________.
A. pay 212 for their tickets B. only need to pay for 17 people
C. pay for two guides to show them around D. pay 220 for their tickets
( )38. How long is Greenwood open on Sunday
A. 6 hours. B. 7 hours C. 8 hours. D. 9 hours
( )39. Which of the following statement is TRUE about Greenwood
A. It's across from the museum. B. It serves three meals to people.
C. It serves afternoon tea every day. D. It is open till midnight at weekends.
( )40. From the poster, we know that_________.
A. visitors can't take buses to the museum
B. visitors shouldn't bring large bags with them
C. it's a good choice for visitors to drive to the museum
D. visitors can park their cars near the museum
B
When I was in junior high school, I hated PE lessons. I didn't do well in sports, and I hated team sports because I felt like I always made my teammates disappointed (失望的).
When I started senior high school, I decided to try kungfu and I joined a kungfu club. I didn’t expect I would loved it so much! I used to do kungfu on Wednesday and Saturday. It is not a team sport, so I never felt unhappy about not being very good. And I could train in pairs and meet new people and talk to them. I also knew that the main goal of the classes was getting better at kungfu instead of exercising to change my body. Unluckily, in the last year of senior high school, I was too busy to do kungfu.
Six years ago, I would say I didn't like to play sports at all and I would never like to play sports. Now I think that everyone should try as many sports as possible because playing sports is good for us. Playing sports brings me a lot of happiness and gives me enough energy. I think a lot of people don't enjoy basketball or football at school but maybe they may enjoy yoga (瑜伽), climbing mountains or going swimming.
( )41.The writer didn't like PE classes because__________.
A. he wasn't good at playing sports B. his teammates didn't want to play with him
C. he didn't join a sports club D. he made his teammates unhappy.
( )42.The writer did kungfu__________.
A. once a week B. twice a week
C. three times a week D. every day
( )43.The third paragraph is mainly about_________.
the writer's ideas on doing sports B. the writer's favorite sports now
C. what the writer did to keep healthy D. why the writer didn’t like sports
( )44.What can NOT we learn from the passage
A. The writer didn't do kungfu during the last year of senior high school.
B. The writer didn't feel unhappy when he didn't do well in doing kungfu.
C. The writer thought the main goal of doing kungfu was to keep healthy.
D. The writer was able to have a talk with people while doing kungfu.
( )45.What is the best title for the passage
A. How to play sports B. Why students need to play sports
C. My story about playing sports. D. Sports Habit.
C
①Liu Lingli has a special dream, and she has a special job.
②When Liu Lingli was young, there lived a woman next door. The woman was unable to hear or speak. Her husband (丈夫) was always angry with her. She wanted to leave, but she couldn’t find a job.
③Liu Lingli was concerned about the woman. When Liu went to college in Nanjing, she studied special education. She learned how to teach people who cannot hear, speak or see.
④After she finished college in 1991, Liu went to work in a special education school in Hengyang, Hunan. The students in the school are all disabled (残疾的).
⑤Liu’s students cannot hear or speak. They can’t use any sign language (手语). They don’t know how to learn, either. Liu looks after them every day and she teaches them carefully. For example, she asks them to buy what they want from her in the classroom, so that they can buy things in a real shop.
⑥“If a disabled person gets a good education, he may find a job and live a different life,” Liu said. With her help, over 20 children went to college. Liu met one of them days ago. The student is a mother of three now, and she has a happy life.
( )46.The problem with the woman was that she couldn’t ________.
A．read B．see C．hear or speak D．have a family
( )47.The underlined word “concerned” means ________.
A．认真 B．小心 C．激动 D．担心
( )48.What can we learn from the fifth paragraph
A．Liu works hard. B．The school is popular.
C．There are not enough teachers. D．Liu feels tired working in the school.
( )49.Liu Lingli’s dream is to ________.
A．live a happy life B．be a famous teacher
C．have a special school D．help the disabled live a happy life
( )50.The structure(结构)of the passage may be_________.
(①=Para.(自然段)1 ②=Para. 2 ③=Para. 3 ④=Para. 4 ⑤=Para. 5 ⑥=Para. 6)
A. ①②/③④⑤/⑥ B. ①/②③④⑤/⑥
C. ①/②③④⑤⑥ D. ①/②③④/⑤⑥
D
China is a noodle paradise(天堂). The home of wheaten food(面食)across the world is China，and the home of wheaten food in China is Shanxi province. As an American student, my first experience with noodles was in Shanxi when I was an exchange(交换) student.
Everyone knows noodles are the king of Shanxi food. There are more than 100 ways to make noodles. Among them，my favorite is the knife-cut noodles.The knife-cut noodles are one of the top five noodles in China, with the other four being Hubei' s hot dry noodles, Sichuan' s Dan Dan noodles, Beijing's fried sauce noodles and Shandong' s Yifu noodles.
Once in a restaurant, I ordered knife-cut noodles and I was lucky to see how the cook made them from the window of the kitchen.I felt really surprised to see the cook shave(削)the noodles so quickly! When I tasted the noodles for the first time, I felt super glad.
When I first learned to make knife-cut noodles, the more I practiced, the harder it seemed. But later, when I got the angle（角度）right，it became a lot easier. In fact，you need a lot of skills if you want to cook them. The first thing you need to do is to make a dough(和面). After that, let your dough rest for 5 to 10 minutes. Then cut the noodles by running the knife up and down. The most difficult part is getting the right angle between the knife and noodles. Finally, let them cook in the hot water for 5 minutes.
The reason why people like knife-cut noodles is that they have a special taste. Also, the way to make them is an art form that takes years of practice.
( )51.Where are hot-dry noodles from？
A. Shanxi. B. Hubei. C. Sichuan. D.Shangdong
( )52.How did the writer feel when he first tasted knife-cut noodles？
A. Glad. B. Surprised. C. Upset. D.Relaxing
( )53.What do we know about the writer？
He is a Chinese student who studies in America.
Among all noodles, knife-cut noodles are his favorite.
C. It's easy for him to learn how to cook knife-cut noodles.
D. When he tasted the noodles for the first time, he didn't like it at all.
( )54. How do we make knife-cut noodles？
①Cook the noodles in the hot water for 5 minutes.
②Let the dough rest for 5 to 10 minutes.
③Cut the noodles by running the knife up and down.
④Make a dough.
A. ④①③② B. ④②①③ C. ④②③① D. ②③①④
( )55.Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage？
A. Shanxi is a good place for noodle lovers from all over the world.
B. Knife-cut noodles are not only food but also a symbol of the art form.
C. In every place of China, you can eat a bowl of knife-cut noodles.
D. The reason why people like knife-cut noodles is that they have a special taste.
第二节：补全短文（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分）
Many students get ill easily in winter. 56 What can we do to keep ourselves healthy Here are some tips.
Enough healthy food. 57 Some students don't like to eat breakfast. They make a big mistake, Breakfast is a very important meal in a day. If you want to be healthy, you should eat less junk food. Vegetables and fruit are delicious and healthy. We'd better dink 500ml milk every day.
58 Doing exercise is another way to make you healthy. So you should do some sports after class. Doing sports can make you strong.
Enough smiles. Smile is the best way to make you healthy. Try to find the things that can make you laugh and you will be happy every day. You should try to be optimistic (乐观的) about life. 59
Enough time of rest. Don't stay up! Students usually go to bed at 10:00. 60 There is a famous saying, "Early to bed and early to rise makes a person healthy, wealthy and wise." It tells us enough time of rest is important.
A. Having some good eating habits is really important.
B. Enough exercise.
C. They have to go to the hospital and may miss a lot of classes.
D. Remember smile is the best medicine.
E. If you want to have a good grade, you must have a good rest
第II卷（共50分）
第四部分英语知识运用（二）（共10小题，每题1.5分，满分15分）
短文填空，然后将答案写到答题卡相应的位置上。每空一词。
Once a scholar went back to his hometown and visited his childhood friend.
He saw a lot of big houses along the way.When he arrived, he found his friend's house was 61 than any other house in the village. The friend lived with his brothers and they had 62 to eat. When they were hungry, they just picked some fruit from a tree behind the house, sold it, and then bought some food.
The scholar was worried 63 his friend after seeing this. So he 64 to do something to help him solve the problem. Then a(n) 65 came to his mind. In the evening, when everyone was asleep, the scholar got up, cut down the tree, and ran away. The next morning, the friend and his brothers woke up and saw the tree down. They were so 66 that they said the scholar wasn't a true friend.
Three years later, the scholar was back again. He was afraid to see his friend, 67 when he finally visited his friend. To his 68 , this time, his friend had a big house. Instead of (而不是) being angry, his friend invited him to his big house. And the friend said, “Now we know 69 you cut down that tree. We wouldn't try 70 best to make money and live unless the tree was cut down.”
第五部分写作（共两节，满分35分）
第一节：阅读下列短文, 根据短文中的信息完成文后表格。（共5小题,每小题2分,满分10分）
Parramore is a very poor neighborhood in Orlando, the United States. There are no supermarkets that sell fresh food.
"Right now in our neighborhood, all that sells is fast food," said Jordan, a student at Jones High School. People there need natural and healthy food.
So Nick came up with an idea. He is the head of Kids Zone, a program run by the city to help poor young people. Nick hoped that children started their own business (生意) by selling honey. Many of the kids were excited to test their skills (技巧).
Twenty students chose to join. They called their honey Black Bee Honey. They sold four kinds of honey. They first bought the honey from Dadant & Sons, a large bee-keeping farm. Then they worked on their own to put the honey into bottles. They also had meetings every week and discussed sales and marketing.
Their honey business is successful. Each bottle of honey sells for $12. They make about $960 from honey every week. The money is used to cover expenses (花销), pay the students for their work and support the Kids Zone.
City Officer Regina Hill said the kids were learning to work as a team. Selling honey also opened a new door to their future.
Christopher Thornton, 17, is one of the team members. He hopes to go to college and study computer engineering. One day, he might start his own business. By joining Black Bee Honey, he is able to make a living by himself.
Students' honey business in parramore
71._______for the business People in Parramore need natural and 72.________ food. It can test children's life skills.
How to run the business Students buy the honey from the bee-keeping farm. They put the honey into bottles They meet and 73.________ sales and marketing every week.
Success of the business They make about 74.________from the honey business every week.
Benefits of the business It helps the kids to work as a 75.________. It is good for their future
第二节:书面表达（满分25分）
作为新时代的青年，我们应当不断提升自己。假如你是李华，最近你们学校英文杂志以“How to Be a Better Person”为主题组织征文活动，请你根据以下要点，写一篇英语短文, 谈谈你应该怎么做。
内容要点：
健康生活
兴趣爱好
学习及人际关系
要求：1. 参考以上提示信息，可适当发挥；
2. 语句通顺，意思连贯，书写工整；
3. 文中不得出现任何你的真实信息（校名、姓名和地名等）；
4. 词数80左右。
2023年8年级上12月月考英语试题
英语参考答案
第I 卷 选择题(共 105 分）
第一部分 听力部分（每小题 1.5分，满分30分）
1-5 CACBB 6-10 CBBBC
11-15 BAABC 16-20 BCACA
第二部分 基础知识运用(一) (21~25 每小题1分，满分5分；26~35每小题
1.5分，满分 15 分)
单选；21~25 BACAC
完形填空：26~30 BDCAB 31~35 DCABC
第三部分
第一节：阅读理解（每小题2分，满分40分）
36~40 BADCB 41~45 DBACC
46~50 CDADB 51~55 BABCC
第二节：补全短文（每小题2分，满分10分）
56~60: CABDE
第II 卷 非选择题(共 45 分）
第四部分 英语知识运用（二）（共10小题，每题1.5分，满分15分）
61. smaller 62. nothing 63. about 64. decided 65. idea
angry 67. but 68. surprise 69. why 70. our
第五部分 写作（共两节，满分 30 分）
第一节：阅读表达（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分）
Reasons
healthy
discuss
$960
team
第二节 书面表达（满分25分）
angry 67. but 68. surprise 69. why 70. our
第五部分 写作（共两节，满分 30 分）
第一节：阅读表达（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分）
Reasons
healthy
discuss
$960
team
第二节 书面表达（满分25分）

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