资源简介 考生注意：正确填涂方式：学校: 姓名: 班级:试室: 座位号:2024—2025学年度第一学期七年级期末检测题——英语科答题卡注意事项：答题前，考生在答题卡上用黑色字迹的签字笔或钢笔将考生信息填写在相应位置上。考 号[ 0 ] [ 0 ] [ 0 ] [ 0 ] [ 0 ] [ 0 ] [ 0 ] [ 0 ] [ 0 ] [ 0 ][ 1 ] [ 1 ] [ 1 ] [ 1 ] [ 1 ] [ 1 ] [ 1 ] [ 1 ] [ 1 ] [ 1 ][ 2 ] [ 2 ] [ 2 ] [ 2 ] [ 2 ] [ 2 ] [ 2 ] [ 2 ] [ 2 ] [ 2 ][ 3 ] [ 3 ] [ 3 ] [ 3 ] [ 3 ] [ 3 ] [ 3 ] [ 3 ] [ 3 ] [ 3 ][ 4 ] [ 4 ] [ 4 ] [ 4 ] [ 4 ] [ 4 ] [ 4 ] [ 4 ] [ 4 ] [ 4 ][ 5 ] [ 5 ] [ 5 ] [ 5 ] [ 5 ] [ 5 ] [ 5 ] [ 5 ] [ 5 ] [ 5 ][ 6 ] [ 6 ] [ 6 ] [ 6 ] [ 6 ] [ 6 ] [ 6 ] [ 6 ] [ 6 ] [ 6 ][ 7 ] [ 7 ] [ 7 ] [ 7 ] [ 7 ] [ 7 ] [ 7 ] [ 7 ] [ 7 ] [ 7 ][ 8 ] [ 8 ] [ 8 ] [ 8 ] [ 8 ] [ 8 ] [ 8 ] [ 8 ] [ 8 ] [ 8 ][ 9 ] [ 9 ] [ 9 ] [ 9 ] [ 9 ] [ 9 ] [ 9 ] [ 9 ] [ 9 ] [ 9 ]第一部分 听力理解（共四节，满分20分）1 [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 6 [A] [B] [C] 11 [A] [B] [C] 16 [A] [B] [C]2 [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 7 [A] [B] [C] 12 [A] [B] [C] 17 [A] [B] [C]3 [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 8 [A] [B] [C] 13 [A] [B] [C] 18 [A] [B] [C]4 [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 9 [A] [B] [C] 14 [A] [B] [C] 19 [A] [B] [C]5 [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 10 [A] [B] [C] 15 [A] [B] [C] 20 [A] [B] [C]第二部分 语言知识运用（共两节，满分25分）21 [A] [B] [C] 26 [A] [B] [C] 31 [A] [B] [C] 36 [A] [B] [C]22 [A] [B] [C] 27 [A] [B] [C] 32 [A] [B] [C] 37 [A] [B] [C]23 [A] [B] [C] 28 [A] [B] [C] 33 [A] [B] [C] 38 [A] [B] [C]24 [A] [B] [C] 29 [A] [B] [C] 34 [A] [B] [C] 39 [A] [B] [C]25 [A] [B] [C] 30 [A] [B] [C] 35 [A] [B] [C] 40 [A] [B] [C]第三部分 阅读理解（共三节，满分55分）41 [A] [B] [C] 46 [A] [B] [C] 51 [A] [B] [C] 56 [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] [F]42 [A] [B] [C] 47 [A] [B] [C] 52 [A] [B] [C] 57 [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] [F]43 [A] [B] [C] 48 [A] [B] [C] 53 [A] [B] [C] 58 [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] [F]44 [A] [B] [C] 49 [A] [B] [C] 54 [A] [B] [C] 59 [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] [F]45 [A] [B] [C] 50 [A] [B] [C] 55 [A] [B] [C] 60 [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] [F]第三节（共8小题，61至65每小题1分；66、67每小题2分；68小题6分，满分15分）阅读下面短文，根据短文内容按要求完成任务。61. 62. 63. 64. 65.66.67.68.第四部分 写作（满分20分）（须抄写已给出的文章开头）2024—2025 学年度第一学期海口市七年级英语科期末检测题听力材料第一节（共 5小题，每小题 1分，满分 5分）听句子录音，根据所听内容选择与句子意思一致的图画。句子读一遍。1. Linda enjoys singing. Look! She is singing with her friends.2. Chinese people usually eat mooncakes on Mid-autumn Festival.3. My favorite subject is maths. I think it’s interesting.4. Elephants are clever. They can do many things like people.5. It’s important for us to plant more trees year by year.第二节（共 5小题，每小题 1分，满分 5分）听句子录音，根据所听内容选出能正确回答句子的答语。句子读两遍。6. How many teachers are there in your school 7. Could I have a look at the flowers in your garden 8. When will you have your school trip 9. Let’s go to the library to do some reading.10. What do the pandas eat every day 第三节（共 5小题，每小题 1分，满分 5分）听对话录音，根据所听内容选出能回答所提问题的正确选项。对话读两遍。听第一段对话，回答第 11 和第 12 小题。M: Next week is Teachers’ Day, Anna.W: Yes, Dad. Well, how about a thank-you card for my teacher M: Um, great. What do you need for it W: Only colour pens and a card.M: So easy! Let’s go to the store and buy them.W: OK, let’s go!听第二段对话，回答第 13 至第 15 小题。W: Peter, what are you going to do this weekend M: Well, I’m planning to have a picnic with my cousins on Saturday.W: Good. And what are your plans for Sunday M: Nothing. I don’t have any plans.W: I plan to plant trees in the city park. Would you like to join me M: Yeah. What time shall we meet there The activity will start at nine o’clock in the morning.W: Let’s meet half an hour earlier.M: OK! See you then.第四节（共 5小题，每小题 1分，满分 5分）听短文录音，根据所听内容选择能填入空白处或回答问题的最佳选项。短文读两遍。Susan is an English girl. She is fourteen years old. She came to China with her parents twoyears ago. Her father is a teacher and her mother is a doctor. Now they both work in Guangzhou.It was the Dragon Boat Festival yesterday. When Susan got up in the morning, it was raining.After she had some zongzi for breakfast, the rain stopped. She walked towards the Pearl River withher parents and they arrived there twenty minutes later. At half past nine, the sun came out and thedragon boat race started. It was really exciting and it finished at half past ten. In the end, the teamfrom Zhuhai won first place, the team from Shenzhen won second place and the team fromGuangzhou won third place.12024—2025 学年度第一学期海口市七年级英语科期末检测题参考答案第一部分 听力第一节 1—5 BEACD第二节 6—10 CABBA第三节 11—15 ABBCA第四节 16—20 CABCA第二部分 语言知识运用第一节 21—25 BCABC 26—30 ABCAC第二节 31—15 BACAB 36—40 CBCAB第三部分 阅读理解第一节 41—45 CABCA 46—50 CBBAA 51—55 ABABC第二节 56—60 BDEFA第三节61. Beijing 62. Class 1 63. good 64. football 65. on weekends66．His favorite subject is music.67．Four. They are the basketball game, the school trip, the English party and the art festival.68．Yes, I do. Mike likes playing football. I like playing football, too. I want to make friends withhim and play football with him. (答案不唯一)第四部分 写作One possible version:Dear Mr Brown,I would like to recommend my family for “The Most Beautiful Family” in our class this year.There are three people in my family. My father is tall and strong. He is very kind and has agood sense of humor. He likes reading books in his free time. My mother is beautiful with long hair.She is kind and loves cooking delicious meals for us. I am an active student who enjoys playingsports. We often go for a walk in the park together on weekends. We also enjoy watching movies,sharing laughter and tears. I love my family. We always support and care about each other.I believe my family deserves this recommendation.Yours,Li Hua22024—2025学年度第一学期海口市七年级英语科期末检测题（温馨提示：本卷满分120分，考试时间90分钟。请将答案写在答题卡上）第一部分 听力（共四节，满分20分）第一节（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）听句子录音，根据所听内容选择与句子意思一致的图画。句子读一遍。A B C D E1. 2. 3. 4 . 5.第二节（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）听句子录音，根据所听内容选出能正确回答句子的答语。句子读两遍。6. A. They are kind. B. We love them. C. About 100.7. A. Yes, of course. B. They are beautiful. C. I have no idea.8. A. By bike. B. On Sunday. C. With our teachers.9. A. I like books. B. Good idea. C. Keep quiet！10. A. They eat bamboo. B. They’re very cute. C. They live in Sichuan.第三节（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）听对话录音，根据所听内容选出能回答所提问题的正确选项。对话读两遍。听第一段对话，回答第11和第12小题。11. What is Anna’s gift for her teacher A. A thank-you card. B. A color pen. C. A good book.12. Where will Anne and her father go now A. To the library. B. To the store. C. To the school.听第二段对话，回答第13至第15小题。13. Who is Peter planning to have a picnic with on Saturday A. His friends. B. His cousins. C. His parents.14. What does the girl plan to do in the park on Sunday A. Take a walk. B. Fly a kite. C. Plant trees.15. When is the girl going to meet Peter A. At 8:30 am. B. At 9:00 am. C. At 9:30 am.第四节（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）听短文录音，根据所听内容选择能填入空白处或回答问题的最佳选项。短文读两遍。16. What does Susan’s mother do A. A driver. B. A teacher. C. A doctor.17. How was the weather when Susan got up yesterday A. Rainy. B. Sunny. C. Cloudy.18. Who did Susan go to the Pearl River with A. Her friends. B. Her parents. C. Her cousins.19. When did the dragon boat race finish A. At 9 :20 am. B. At 10:20 am. C. At 10:30 am.20. Which team won first place in the dragon boat race A. Zhuhai. B. Guangzhou. C. Shenzhen.第二部分 语言知识运用（共两节，满分25分）第一节（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分）从A、B、C三个选项中选出一个能填入空白处的最佳选项。21. Science is __________ interesting subject. I like it very much.A. a B. an C. the22. The film Postmen in the Mountains tells us a touching story __________ the love between father and son.A. to B. for C. about23. This is my uncle. __________ is an English teacher.A. He B. His C. Him24. — It’s __________ to say “Hello” when you meet someone.— Sure!A. difficult B. polite C. nervous25. If you have any questions, please __________ your hand.A. look up B. get up C. put up26. —The girls are talking __________.—Yes, they have so many fun things to share.A. happily B. sadly C. suddenly27. Lingling’s mother usually __________ a walk with her dog after dinner.A. take B. takes C. is taking28. — do you go on the Internet —Once a week.A. How soon B. How long C. How often29. There __________ many new books in the library. I want to get some to read.A. are B. is C. be30. —Thank you for helping me water the flowers.—__________A. See you next time. B. Sorry to hear that. C. You are welcome.第二节（共10小题，每小题1.5分，满分15分）阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后从短文后各题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。My name is Bill. I get up 31 every day. It’s about 6: 20 am. My mother cooks 32 at home for me. After I have breakfast, I 33 at 7:20 am and get there at about 7:40 am.My school is very modern (现代的). There are many 34 buildings in our school. They’re classroom buildings, a lab building and an art building. I have most (多数的) lessons in the classroom building. I have music in the art building.I have eight subjects. I 35 very hard. I’m interested in many of them and good at maths. Some of 36 classmates often ask me questions about our maths homework. I can 37 them.Most of my teachers are very young. I like all of them. But my favourite teacher is Miss Li. She is funny. Her lessons are very 38 . My classmates and I all like her lessons. We often watch films and sing songs in class.There are many 39 in my school. I’m in the Basketball Club. Basketball is my favourite sport. I have basketball practice on the team. 40 I have the same favorite basketball player—Yao Ming as my teammates (队友).I’m happy at school and I like my school.31. A. slowly B. early C. late32. A. breakfast B. lunch C. dinner33. A. go home B. go to bed C. go to school34. A. beautiful B. old C. small35. A. play B. study C. think36. A. their B. your C. my37. A. ask B. help C. lend38. A. boring B. difficult C. interesting39. A. clubs B. buildings C. lessons40. A. But B. And C. Or第三部分 阅读理解（共三节，满分55分）第一节 （共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分）阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。AName：Jane Smith Age：12 Class：8 Grade：7 School：No.1 High SchoolFamily Job FavoriteColour Food AnimalGrandfather Farmer Green Bread CatsFather Driver White Meat BirdsMother Teacher Yellow Fish DogsSister Student Pink Hamburgers Pandas41. How old is Jane A. Seven. B. Eight. C. Twelve.42. What kind of animals does Jane’s grandfather like best A. Cats. B. Birds. C. Dogs.43. What does Jane’s father do A. A farmer. B. A driver. C. A teacher.44. Which food does Jane’s mother like A. Bread. B. Meat. C. Fish.45. What is Jane’s sister’s favourite colour A. Pink. B. White. C. Yellow.B①Junior high school has more homework and subjects than primary school. You have to know more learning ways. Listening to teachers is a good way. But teaching yourself (自学) is also a useful way to learn. So how do you teach yourself It is not a difficult thing.②First, you must read the textbooks. Read as much as you can.③Second, you must ask yourself questions. The questions are something you don’t understand or you want to know about. You can write down these questions. A clever student is also good at asking questions.④Third, you can learn to answer the questions in many ways, such as thinking by yourself, reading books and asking other people.⑤These are the ways of teaching yourself. If you work like this for a long time, you are sure to be more successful (成功的) in your study.46. The underlined word “It” refer to (指的是) “_______”.A. Reading books B. Doing homework C. Teaching yourself47 What should you do first when you teach yourself A. Think by yourself. B. Read textbooks. C. Ask questions.48. How can we learn to answer the questions a. thinking by yourself. b. reading books. c. asking other people. d. listening to the radio.A. bcd B. abc C. acd49. Which is the structure (结构) of the passage A. B. C.50. What is the best title (标题) of the passage A. Ways to teach yourself B. What to do in the classroomC. How to become a clever studentCEvery day, we see many things around us. Some things are living (有生命的)，and some are nonliving (无生命的). Let’s learn how they are different.Living thingsLiving things can grow and change. For example, plants are living things, like dandelions, bamboo and roses. Animals are living things. And guess what You’re living thing, too! Living things need to breathe air, and they have to eat and drink. People and animals can walk or move on their own. They can find food and water in different places.Plants don’t walk, but they are still living things. They make their own food using sunlight, water, and air. They can grow up tall to catch the sunlight. Water usually comes to them. What living things do you see every day Nonliving ThingsNonliving things don’t need to eat, breathe air or drink water. They can’t breathe at all. A toy is not a living thing. A ball can move around, but is it a living thing No, it’s not. A ball only runs when we kick(踢) it. It can’t move by itself. It doesn’t breathe and it doesn’t grow. It’s a not a living thing.Look around you. What nonliving things do you see All the living and nonliving things in our world are special. It’s important to take care of everything.51. The underlined(画线的) word “dandelions” might be the name of ________.A. a plant B. an animal C. a sport52．Which of the statements(陈述) about living things is TRUE(正确的) A. Plants don’t need food, water or air.B. Plants and animals are both living things.C. Animals can make food from sunlight, water and air.53. Which of the following is a nonliving thing A. B. C.54. What does the writer think of things around us A. They have nothing to do with us.B. We should love and care about them carefully.C. Living things are important but nonliving things are not.55. Where can we read the passage A．In a history book. B．In a math book. C. In a science book.第二节（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分）根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，选项中有一项为多余选项。Celebrating New Year happens in every country. But each country has its own way to celebrate New Year.56 One is on January 1st, and the other is in January or February. People have many activities to celebrate New Year, like watching lion dances or having a family dinner.People in Thailand (泰国) celebrate it by pouring (泼) water on friends and visitors. 57 Their New Year isn’t on January 1st. It is in April. 58In Switzerland (瑞士), people often go skiing to celebrate New Year. 59 They jump up and down to make the cow bells ring. They hope this will sweep away the bad luck of the old year.60 They often say “Happy New Year” to each other.A. People all over the world have a great time on New Year’s Day.B. The Chinese people celebrate New Year twice.C. We eat dumplings on that day.D. They think this will bring much rain in the next growing season.E. It is very hot at that time of a year in Thailand.F. They sing in the ice and snow world.56. 57. 58. 59 . 60.第三节（共8小题，61至65每小题1分；66、67每小题2分；68小题6分，满分15分）阅读下面短文，根据短文内容按要求完成任务。My name is Mike. I come from Beijing. I’m thirteen years old. I have a good habit. My favorite foods are eggs, vegetables and fish. I like playing football. I often play it with my friends on weekends. I am in Class One, Grade Seven at No. 5 Middle School. I am good at Chinese and English, but I like music best. I think it is interesting. Now I will tell you something about our school activities this term.We have a busy term. On September 9th, we have a basketball game at four in the afternoon. I think it is interesting. We can see some great basketball stars. In October, we have a school trip. It’s relaxing for us. In November, we have an English party. It is in our classroom. And we have an art festival on December 30th. I play the piano with my good friend Linda. We win the first prize. How happy we are! Do you want to make friends with me Task I Finish the chart according to the article. Fill in each blank with no more than 3 words.61. 62. 63. 64 . 65.Task Ⅱ Answer the following questions.66. What is Mike’s favorite subject 67. How many school activities does Mike’s school have What are they 68. Do you want to make friends with Mike Explain your reasons in about 20 words.第四部分 写作（满分20分）假如你是李华，你所在班级的外教老师Mr Brown组织了一场“最美家庭（The Most Beautiful Family）”的评选活动。请根据以下提示内容，向Mr Brown提交一篇不少于 70 词的推荐信，推荐你的家庭。1. 文章须包含图中的主要信息，可适当发挥；2. 不得出现真实姓名和学校名称；3. 70词左右，开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数。Dear Mr Brown,I would like to recommend my family for “The Most Beautiful Family” in our class this year.__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________I believe my family deserves this recommendation.Yours,Li Hua线封密学校_____________________________班级__________________姓名___________________座号_____________PAGE七年级英语 第7页（共8页）2024—2025学年度第一学期海口市七年级英语科期末检测题听力材料第一节（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）听句子录音，根据所听内容选择与句子意思一致的图画。句子读一遍。1. Linda enjoys singing. Look! She is singing with her friends.2. Chinese people usually eat mooncakes on Mid-autumn Festival.3. My favorite subject is maths. I think it’s interesting.4. Elephants are clever. They can do many things like people.5. It’s important for us to plant more trees year by year.第二节（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）听句子录音，根据所听内容选出能正确回答句子的答语。句子读两遍。6. How many teachers are there in your school 7. Could I have a look at the flowers in your garden 8. When will you have your school trip 9. Let’s go to the library to do some reading.10. What do the pandas eat every day 第三节（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）听对话录音，根据所听内容选出能回答所提问题的正确选项。对话读两遍。听第一段对话，回答第11和第12小题。M: Next week is Teachers’ Day, Anna.W: Yes, Dad. Well, how about a thank-you card for my teacher M: Um, great. What do you need for it W: Only colour pens and a card.M: So easy! Let’s go to the store and buy them.W: OK, let’s go!听第二段对话，回答第13至第15小题。W: Peter, what are you going to do this weekend M: Well, I’m planning to have a picnic with my cousins on Saturday.W: Good. And what are your plans for Sunday M: Nothing. I don’t have any plans.W: I plan to plant trees in the city park. Would you like to join me M: Yeah. What time shall we meet there The activity will start at nine o’clock in the morning.W: Let’s meet half an hour earlier.M: OK! See you then.第四节（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）听短文录音，根据所听内容选择能填入空白处或回答问题的最佳选项。短文读两遍。Susan is an English girl. She is fourteen years old. She came to China with her parents two years ago. Her father is a teacher and her mother is a doctor. Now they both work in Guangzhou.It was the Dragon Boat Festival yesterday. When Susan got up in the morning, it was raining. After she had some zongzi for breakfast, the rain stopped. She walked towards the Pearl River with her parents and they arrived there twenty minutes later. At half past nine, the sun came out and the dragon boat race started. It was really exciting and it finished at half past ten. In the end, the team from Zhuhai won first place, the team from Shenzhen won second place and the team from Guangzhou won third place.2024—2025学年度第一学期海口市七年级英语科期末检测题参考答案第一部分 听力第一节1—5 BEACD第二节6—10 CABBA第三节11—15 ABBCA第四节16—20 CABCA第二部分 语言知识运用第一节 21—25 BCABC 26—30 ABCAC第二节 31—15 BACAB 36—40 CBCAB第三部分 阅读理解第一节 41—45 CABCA 46—50 CBBAA 51—55 ABABC第二节 56—60 BDEFA第三节61. Beijing 62. Class 1 63. good 64. football 65. on weekends66．His favorite subject is music.67．Four. They are the basketball game, the school trip, the English party and the art festival. 68．Yes, I do. Mike likes playing football. I like playing football, too. I want to make friends with him and play football with him. (答案不唯一)第四部分 写作One possible version:Dear Mr Brown,I would like to recommend my family for “The Most Beautiful Family” in our class this year.There are three people in my family. My father is tall and strong. He is very kind and has a good sense of humor. He likes reading books in his free time. My mother is beautiful with long hair. She is kind and loves cooking delicious meals for us. I am an active student who enjoys playing sports. We often go for a walk in the park together on weekends. We also enjoy watching movies, sharing laughter and tears. I love my family. We always support and care about each other.I believe my family deserves this recommendation.Yours,Li Hua22024—2025 学年度第一学期海口市七年级英语科期末检测题（温馨提示：本卷满分 120分，考试时间 90分钟。请将答案写在答题卡上）第一部分 听力（共四节，满分 20 分）第一节（共 5小题，每小题 1分，满分 5分）听句子录音，根据所听内容选择与句子意思一致的图画。句子读一遍。A B C D E1. 2. 3. 4 . 5.第二节（共 5小题，每小题 1分，满分 5分）听句子录音，根据所听内容选出能正确回答句子的答语。句子读两遍。6. A. They are kind. B. We love them. C. About 100.7. A. Yes, of course. B. They are beautiful. C. I have no idea.8. A. By bike. B. On Sunday. C. With our teachers.9. A. I like books. B. Good idea. C. Keep quiet！10. A. They eat bamboo. B. They’re very cute. C. They live in Sichuan.第三节（共 5小题，每小题 1分，满分 5分）听对话录音，根据所听内容选出能回答所提问题的正确选项。对话读两遍。听第一段对话，回答第 11 和第 12 小题。11. What is Anna’s gift for her teacher A. A thank-you card. B. A color pen. C. A good book.12. Where will Anne and her father go now A. To the library. B. To the store. C. To the school.听第二段对话，回答第 13 至第 15 小题。13. Who is Peter planning to have a picnic with on Saturday A. His friends. B. His cousins. C. His parents.14. What does the girl plan to do in the park on Sunday A. Take a walk. B. Fly a kite. C. Plant trees.15. When is the girl going to meet Peter A. At 8:30 am. B. At 9:00 am. C. At 9:30 am.七年级英语 第 1 页（共 8 页）学校_____________________________班级__________________姓名___________________座号_____________密 封 线第四节（共 5小题，每小题 1分，满分 5分）听短文录音，根据所听内容选择能填入空白处或回答问题的最佳选项。短文读两遍。16. What does Susan’s mother do A. A driver. B. A teacher. C. A doctor.17. How was the weather when Susan got up yesterday A. Rainy. B. Sunny. C. Cloudy.18. Who did Susan go to the Pearl River with A. Her friends. B. Her parents. C. Her cousins.19. When did the dragon boat race finish A. At 9 :20 am. B. At 10:20 am. C. At 10:30 am.20. Which team won first place in the dragon boat race A. Zhuhai. B. Guangzhou. C. Shenzhen.第二部分 语言知识运用（共两节，满分 25 分）第一节（共 10小题，每小题 1分，满分 10分）从 A、B、C 三个选项中选出一个能填入空白处的最佳选项。21. Science is __________ interesting subject. I like it very much.A. a B. an C. the22. The film Postmen in the Mountains tells us a touching story __________ the love between fatherand son.A. to B. for C. about23. This is my uncle. __________ is an English teacher.A. He B. His C. Him24. — It’s __________ to say “Hello” when you meet someone.— Sure!A. difficult B. polite C. nervous25. If you have any questions, please __________ your hand.A. look up B. get up C. put up26. —The girls are talking __________.—Yes, they have so many fun things to share.A. happily B. sadly C. suddenly27. Lingling’s mother usually __________ a walk with her dog after dinner.A. take B. takes C. is taking28. — do you go on the Internet —Once a week.A. How soon B. How long C. How often29. There __________ many new books in the library. I want to get some to read.A. are B. is C. be30. —Thank you for helping me water the flowers.—__________A. See you next time. B. Sorry to hear that. C. You are welcome.七年级英语 第 2 页（共 8 页）第二节（共 10 小题，每小题 1.5 分，满分 15 分）阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后从短文后各题所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。My name is Bill. I get up 31 every day. It’s about 6: 20 am. Mymother cooks 32 at home for me. After I have breakfast, I 33 at7:20 am and get there at about 7:40 am.My school is very modern (现代的). There are many 34 buildings inour school. They’re classroom buildings, a lab building and an art building. I have most ( 多数的 )lessons in the classroom building. I have music in the art building.I have eight subjects. I 35 very hard. I’m interested in many of them and good at maths.Some of 36 classmates often ask me questions about our maths homework. I can 37them.Most of my teachers are very young. I like all of them. But my favourite teacher is Miss Li. Sheis funny. Her lessons are very 38 . My classmates and I all like her lessons. We often watch filmsand sing songs in class.There are many 39 in my school. I’m in the Basketball Club. Basketball is my favouritesport. I have basketball practice on the team. 40 I have the same favorite basketballplayer—Yao Ming as my teammates (队友).I’m happy at school and I like my school.31. A. slowly B. early C. late32. A. breakfast B. lunch C. dinner33. A. go home B. go to bed C. go to school34. A. beautiful B. old C. small35. A. play B. study C. think36. A. their B. your C. my37. A. ask B. help C. lend38. A. boring B. difficult C. interesting39. A. clubs B. buildings C. lessons40. A. But B. And C. Or七年级英语 第 3 页（共 8 页）第三部分 阅读理解（共三节，满分 55 分）第一节 （共 15 小题，每小题 2 分，满分 30 分）阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。AName：Jane Smith Age：12 Class：8 Grade：7 School：No.1 High SchoolFavoriteFamily JobColour Food AnimalGrandfather Farmer Green Bread CatsFather Driver White Meat BirdsMother Teacher Yellow Fish DogsSister Student Pink Hamburgers Pandas41. How old is Jane A. Seven. B. Eight. C. Twelve.42. What kind of animals does Jane’s grandfather like best A. Cats. B. Birds. C. Dogs.43. What does Jane’s father do A. A farmer. B. A driver. C. A teacher.44. Which food does Jane’s mother like A. Bread. B. Meat. C. Fish.45. What is Jane’s sister’s favourite colour A. Pink. B. White. C. Yellow.B①Junior high school has more homework and subjects than primary school. You have to knowmore learning ways. Listening to teachers is a good way. But teaching yourself (自学) is also a usefulway to learn. So how do you teach yourself It is not a difficult thing.②First, you must read the textbooks. Read as much as you can.③Second, you must ask yourself questions. The questions are something you don’t understand oryou want to know about. You can write down these questions. A clever student is also good at askingquestions.④Third, you can learn to answer the questions in many ways, such as thinking by yourself, readingbooks and asking other people.⑤These are the ways of teaching yourself. If you work like this for a long time, you are sure to bemore successful (成功的) in your study.七年级英语 第 4 页（共 8 页）46. The underlined word “It” refer to (指的是) “_______”.A. Reading books B. Doing homework C. Teaching yourself47. What should you do first when you teach yourself A. Think by yourself. B. Read textbooks. C. Ask questions.48. How can we learn to answer the questions a. thinking by yourself. b. reading books. c. asking other people. d. listening to the radio.A. bcd B. abc C. acd49. Which is the structure (结构) of the passage A. B. C.50. What is the best title (标题) of the passage A. Ways to teach yourself B. What to do in the classroomC. How to become a clever studentCEvery day, we see many things around us. Some things are living (有生命的)，and some arenonliving (无生命的). Let’s learn how they are different.Living thingsLiving things can grow and change. For example, plants are living things, like dandelions,bamboo and roses. Animals are living things. And guess what You’re living thing, too! Living thingsneed to breathe air, and they have to eat and drink. People and animals can walk or move on their own.They can find food and water in different places.Plants don’t walk, but they are still living things. They make their own food using sunlight,water, and air. They can grow up tall to catch the sunlight. Water usually comes to them. What livingthings do you see every day Nonliving ThingsNonliving things don’t need to eat, breathe air or drink water. They can’t breathe at all. A toy isnot a living thing. A ball can move around, but is it a living thing No, it’s not. A ball only runs whenwe kick(踢) it. It can’t move by itself. It doesn’t breathe and it doesn’t grow. It’s a not a living thing.Look around you. What nonliving things do you see All the living and nonliving things in ourworld are special. It’s important to take care of everything.七年级英语 第 5 页（共 8 页）51. The underlined(画线的) word “dandelions” might be the name of ________.A. a plant B. an animal C. a sport52．Which of the statements(陈述) about living things is TRUE(正确的) A. Plants don’t need food, water or air.B. Plants and animals are both living things.C. Animals can make food from sunlight, water and air.53. Which of the following is a nonliving thing A. B. C.54. What does the writer think of things around us A. They have nothing to do with us.B. We should love and care about them carefully.C. Living things are important but nonliving things are not.55. Where can we read the passage A．In a history book. B．In a math book. C. In a science book.第二节（共 5 小题，每小题 2 分，满分 10 分）根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，选项中有一项为多余选项。Celebrating New Year happens in every country. But each country has its own way to celebrateNew Year.56 One is on January 1st, and the other is in January or February. People have manyactivities to celebrate New Year, like watching lion dances or having a family dinner.People in Thailand (泰国) celebrate it by pouring (泼) water on friends and visitors. 57 TheirNew Year isn’t on January 1st. It is in April. 58In Switzerland (瑞士), people often go skiing to celebrate New Year. 59 They jump up anddown to make the cow bells ring. They hope this will sweep away the bad luck of the old year.60 They often say “Happy New Year” to each other.七年级英语 第 6 页（共 8 页）A. People all over the world have a great time on New Year’s Day.B. The Chinese people celebrate New Year twice.C. We eat dumplings on that day.D. They think this will bring much rain in the next growing season.E. It is very hot at that time of a year in Thailand.F. They sing in the ice and snow world.56. 57. 58. 59 . 60.第三节（共 8 小题，61 至 65 每小题 1 分；66、67 每小题 2 分；68 小题 6 分，满分 15 分）阅读下面短文，根据短文内容按要求完成任务。My name is Mike. I come from Beijing. I’m thirteen years old. I have a good habit. My favoritefoods are eggs, vegetables and fish. I like playing football. I often play it with my friends on weekends.I am in Class One, Grade Seven at No. 5 Middle School. I am good at Chinese and English, but I likemusic best. I think it is interesting. Now I will tell you something about our school activities this term.We have a busy term. On September 9th, we have a basketball game at four in the afternoon. Ithink it is interesting. We can see some great basketball stars. In October, we have a school trip. It’srelaxing for us. In November, we have an English party. It is in our classroom. And we have an artfestival on December 30th. I play the piano with my good friend Linda. We win the first prize. Howhappy we are! Do you want to make friends with me Task I Finish the chart according to the article. Fill in each blank with no more than 3 words.61. 62. 63. 64 . 65.七年级英语 第 7 页（共 8 页）Task Ⅱ Answer the following questions.66. What is Mike’s favorite subject 67. How many school activities does Mike’s school have What are they 68. Do you want to make friends with Mike Explain your reasons in about 20 words.第四部分 写作（满分 20 分）假如你是李华，你所在班级的外教老师 Mr Brown 组织了一场“最美家庭（The Most BeautifulFamily）”的评选活动。请根据以下提示内容，向 Mr Brown 提交一篇不少于 70 词的推荐信，推荐你的家庭。1. 文章须包含图中的主要信息，可适当发挥；2. 不得出现真实姓名和学校名称；3. 70 词左右，开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数。Dear Mr Brown,I would like to recommend my family for “The Most Beautiful Family” in our class this year.__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________I believe my family deserves this recommendation.Yours,Li Hua七年级英语 第 8 页（共 8 页）2024—2025 学年度第一学期七年级期末检测题——英语科答题卡学校: 姓名: 班级:试室: 座位号: 考 号[ 0 ] [ 0 ] [ 0 ] [ 0 ] [ 0 ] [ 0 ] [ 0 ] [ 0 ] [ 0 ] [ 0 ][ 1 ] [ 1 ] [ 1 ] [ 1 ] [ 1 ] [ 1 ] [ 1 ] [ 1 ] [ 1 ] [ 1 ]注意事项：答题前，考生在答题卡上用黑色字迹的签 [ 2 ] [ 2 ] [ 2 ] [ 2 ] [ 2 ] [ 2 ] [ 2 ] [ 2 ] [ 2 ] [ 2 ]字笔或钢笔将考生信息填写在相应位置上。 [ 3 ] [ 3 ] [ 3 ] [ 3 ] [ 3 ] [ 3 ] [ 3 ] [ 3 ] [ 3 ] [ 3 ][ 4 ] [ 4 ] [ 4 ] [ 4 ] [ 4 ] [ 4 ] [ 4 ] [ 4 ] [ 4 ] [ 4 ][ 5 ] [ 5 ] [ 5 ] [ 5 ] [ 5 ] [ 5 ] [ 5 ] [ 5 ] [ 5 ] [ 5 ][ 6 ] [ 6 ] [ 6 ] [ 6 ] [ 6 ] [ 6 ] [ 6 ] [ 6 ] [ 6 ] [ 6 ]考生注意： [ 7 ] [ 7 ] [ 7 ] [ 7 ] [ 7 ] [ 7 ] [ 7 ] [ 7 ] [ 7 ] [ 7 ][ 8 ] [ 8 ] [ 8 ] [ 8 ] [ 8 ] [ 8 ] [ 8 ] [ 8 ] [ 8 ] [ 8 ]正确填涂方式：[ 9 ] [ 9 ] [ 9 ] [ 9 ] [ 9 ] [ 9 ] [ 9 ] [ 9 ] [ 9 ] [ 9 ]第一部分 听力理解（共四节，满分 20 分）1 [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 6 [A] [B] [C] 11 [A] [B] [C] 16 [A] [B] [C]2 [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 7 [A] [B] [C] 12 [A] [B] [C] 17 [A] [B] [C]3 [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 8 [A] [B] [C] 13 [A] [B] [C] 18 [A] [B] [C]4 [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 9 [A] [B] [C] 14 [A] [B] [C] 19 [A] [B] [C]5 [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 10 [A] [B] [C] 15 [A] [B] [C] 20 [A] [B] [C]第二部分 语言知识运用（共两节，满分 25 分）21 [A] [B] [C] 26 [A] [B] [C] 31 [A] [B] [C] 36 [A] [B] [C]22 [A] [B] [C] 27 [A] [B] [C] 32 [A] [B] [C] 37 [A] [B] [C]23 [A] [B] [C] 28 [A] [B] [C] 33 [A] [B] [C] 38 [A] [B] [C]24 [A] [B] [C] 29 [A] [B] [C] 34 [A] [B] [C] 39 [A] [B] [C]25 [A] [B] [C] 30 [A] [B] [C] 35 [A] [B] [C] 40 [A] [B] [C]第三部分 阅读理解（共三节，满分 55 分）41 [A] [B] [C] 46 [A] [B] [C] 51 [A] [B] [C] 56 [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] [F]42 [A] [B] [C] 47 [A] [B] [C] 52 [A] [B] [C] 57 [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] [F]43 [A] [B] [C] 48 [A] [B] [C] 53 [A] [B] [C] 58 [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] [F]44 [A] [B] [C] 49 [A] [B] [C] 54 [A] [B] [C] 59 [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] [F]45 [A] [B] [C] 50 [A] [B] [C] 55 [A] [B] [C] 60 [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] [F]英语 第 页（共 2 页）第三节（共 8 小题，61 至 65 每小题 1 分；66、67 每小题 2 分；68 小题 6 分，满分 15 分）阅读下面短文，根据短文内容按要求完成任务。61. 62. 63. 64. 65.66.67.68.第四部分 写作（满分 20 分）（须抄写已给出的文章开头）英语 第 页（共 2 页） 展开更多...... 收起↑ 资源列表 2024-2025七上期末海口英语检测答案定稿.docx 2024-2025七上期末海口英语检测答案定稿.pdf 2024-2025七上期末海口英语检测题定稿.doc 2024-2025七上期末海口英语检测题定稿.pdf 2024-2025学年度第一学期海口市七年级英语期末检测题 (1).wav 2024-2025年七年级英语科第一学期期末检测题（答题卡）.doc 2024-2025年七年级英语科第一学期期末检测题（答题卡）.pdf
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