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2024-2025 学年第一学期期末考试
六年级英语试题参考答案及评分标准
第 I卷 （选择题,共 65分）
一 ～ 三题
（一）一 ～ 三题答案：
1-5 ABCBA 6-10 CBCBA 11-15 BBBCC 16-20 DABDC 21-25 DDDBD
26-30 ACBAC 31-35 BAADC 36-40 BBDCA 41-45 CCCBD 46-50 BABCC
（二）评分说明：
1、1-30 题，每小题 1 分;
2、31-50 题，每小题 2 分。
3、与答案不符, 不得分。
第 II卷 （非选择题,共 55分）
四、听力填表
（一）参考答案：
51. amazing 52. sets 53. purple 54. volleyball 55. such as
（二）评分说明:
1、本题共 5 分，每小题 1 分，
2、大小写错误每处扣 0.5 分，
3、与所给答案不符，只要语法、意义、拼写（含大小写）正确，符合题目要求，也可酌情给分。
五、句型转换
(一) 参考答案:
56. Why do most tourists go to Chengdu
57. Who is your class teacher
58. Does your father spend a lot of time fishing
59. There aren’t any trees in front of the sports field.
60. Is there a teachers’ building across from the school hall / Is there a school hall across from the teachers’
building
(二) 评分说明：
1、本题共 5 分，每题 1 分；
2、与所给答案不符，只要语法、意义、拼写（含大小写）正确，符合题目要求，也可酌情给分。
六、动词填空
(一) 参考答案:
61. is 62. know 63. call 64. does 65. means
66. see es 68. are 69. can't wait 70. to go
(二) 评分说明：
1、本题共 10 分，每空 1 分;
2、非所给单词形式变化者，不得分。
3、与所给答案不符，只要语法、意义、拼写（含大小写）正确，符合题目要求，也可酌情给分。
七、综合填空
（一）参考答案:
71. busy 72. gym 73. favourite 74. makes 75. excellent
76. instruments 77. future 78. What
（二）评分说明：
1、本题共 8 分，每空 1 分;
2、与所给答案不符，只要首字母符合，语法、意义、拼写（含大小写）正确，符合题目要求，也可酌
情给分。
七、阅读表达
（一）参考答案:
79. The last name.
80. Because in the UK, a woman often changes her family name to her husband’s family name.
81.我爸爸的名字和我爷爷的一样。
82.名字代表家庭关系/名字是家庭纽带/名字展示家庭关系。
（二）评分说明：
1、本题共 8 分，每小题 2 分；
2、虽与答案表达方式不同，但与所给参考答案意思一致，无语言错误，符合题目要求，也可酌情给
分。
八、书面表达
（一）One possible version：
Hello, Peter! You have problems in making new friends at school Here's some of my advice.
First, don't be shy! Try to talk to all of your classmates. Ask their names and give them your name.
Second, ask questions! Ask about school, sport, music, and more! So you can know more about each other.
Last, don't forget to share! Tell your classmates something interesting about yourself.
I hope you find my advice helpful! Now go make some new friends!
（二）评分说明：
评分时，要从内容与结构、表达的逻辑性、层次性、连贯性和创造性、语法运用的恰当程度、单词拼
写、标点符号的使用等方面综合考虑。本题共 14分，分四档评分：
１、短文通顺完整，表达清楚,语言基本无误，12－14分；
２、短文较通顺完整，表达基本清楚，语言有少量错误，9－11分；
３、能写明基本要点，短文不够通顺完整，语言有较多错误，但尚能达意，5－8分；
４、仅能写明部分要点，短文不完整，语言错误多，影响意思表达，0－4分。给问题的正确答案。（录音播放前你有30秒钟的读题时间）
2024-2025学年第一学期期末考试
11.How many desks in Peter's new classroom
A.40.
B.41
C.42.
六年级英语试题
12.Where is the smart whiteboard
A.In the middle of the classroom
B.Next to the blackboard.
(总分120分考试时间120分钟)
C.At the back of the classroom
注意事项：
13.What's special in Peter's new classroom
A.A teacher's desk.
B.Another blackboard.C.The lockers.
1、本试题分第I卷和第Ⅱ卷两部分。第卷为选择题，70分；第Ⅱ卷为非选择题，
14.Where can Peter put up important notices
50分；共120分。
A.The smart whiteboard.B.On the teacher's desk.
2、答题前请务必将姓名、准考证号和座号填写在试卷和答题卡相应位置上，考试
C.The blackboard at the back of the classroom.
结束后，答题卡收回。
15.Peter can put his things
A.in his locker
B.in teacher's desk
C.in his desk drawer
3、答题前请务必认真阅读答题卡上的注意事项，试题答案必须填涂或填写在答
题卡相应位置上。
(注意：请同学们翻到第川卷第四大题，继续做听力填表题。)
4、听力填表题为第Ⅱ卷的第四大题。
二、单项选择（共15小题，计15分）
第I卷（选择题，共70分）
(一)远出划线宇母读音与其他三项不同的选项。
16.A.name
B.face
C.day
D.what
一、听力选择（共15小题，计15分；每小题约有8秒钟的答题时间）
17.A.now
B.point
C.boy
D.toy
(一)录音中有五个句子，每个句子听两遍，然后从每小题A、B、C中选出能
18.A.near
B.wear
C.ear
D.here
对每个句子做出适当反应的答语。
19.A.sofa
B.road
C.note
D.mouth
D.school
1.A.Yes,they are.
B.No,it isn't.
B.food
C.look
C.Yes,there are.
20.A.rule
2.A.Class 5.
(二)从每小题A、B、C、D中选出一个能填入句中空白处的最佳答案。
B.Chinese.
C.It's fun.
3.A.I'm sorry.
B.Chinese chess.
C.The drums.
21.Sometimes I play
basketball for an hour.
4.A.My grandpa
B.They're my father's.C.My father's parents
A.a
B.an
C.the
D./
5.A.That's great.
B.Sure,you can.
C.Yeah!Me too.
22.Anna
have her own bedroom.She shares one with her sister.
(二)录音中有五组对话，听对话两遍后，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所
A.does
B.do
C.don't
D.doesn't
给问题的正确答案。
23.Which one is wrong(不正确)？
6.What's the girl's name
A.It's a good idea.
B.Come on,Jack!
A.Fu Xing.
B.Ms Gao.
C.Emma.
C.Ask the teacher for it.
D.Can you help me
7.Who has a new bicycle
24.This shopping mall is big.
clothes are on Floors 2 to 4.
A.Ella.
B.Yaming
C.Emma.
A.Woman
B.Women's
C.Women
D.Women
8.What are those plants
25.Ms Gao is
English teacher,
likes English very much.
A.Potato plants.
B.Tomato plants
C.Carrot plants
A.She;her
B.She,she
C.Her;her
D.Her;she
9.Can Sam join the chess club
26.My grandpa often
early in the morning and goes to the park to take a walk.
A.No,he can't.
B.Yes,he can.
C.I don't know.
10.Does Teng Fei want to go to New Zealand one day
A.gets up
B.takes up
C.looks up
D.makes up
A.Yes,he does.
B.No,he doesn't.C.I don't know
27.-Tomorrow is my mother's birthday,but I don't know what to buy.
(三)录音中有一段对话，听对话两遍后，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所
buying a necklace for her
A.Would you like B.Why not
C.How about
D.Should you
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