资源简介

2024～2025第一学期期末质量检测
高二英语
考生注意：
1．本试卷分选择题和非选择题两部分。满分150分，考试时间120分钟。
2．答题前，考生务必用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔将密封线内项目填写清楚。
3．考生作答时，请将答案答在答题卡上。选择题每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑；非选择题请用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔在答题卡上各题的答题区域内作答，超出答题区域书写的答案无效，在试题卷、草稿纸上作答无效。
4．本卷命题范围：人教版高考范围（侧重必修第一册～选择性必修第一册）。
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
第一节 （共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1．What has Jenny changed since three months ago
A．Her job. B．Her diet. C．Her address.
2．What do we know about the man
A．He is fond of joking. B．He has a digital camera. C．He is living in the temple.
3．What is the man
A．A fireman. B．An architect. C．An actor.
4．Where does the conversation probably take place
A．On the street. B．At the railway station. C．In an office.
5．What are the speakers complaining about
A．A hotel. B．An airport. C．A hospital.
第二节 （共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6．Why does the woman call the man
A．To seek his advice. B．To extend an invitation. C．To postpone their meeting.
7．What day is it today
A．Tuesday. B．Wednesday. C．Thursday.
听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。
8．What does the woman think of developing a web page
A．Boring. B．Easy. C．Challenging.
9．Who is Bob
A．The man’s father. B．The man’s cousin. C．The man’s coworker.
10．What will the man do tonight
A．Make phone calls. B．Go out for pizza. C．Collect some money.
听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。
11．What happened to the man
A．His dog was dead B．His wallet was stolen. C．He lost his schoolbag.
12．What does the man want the woman to do
A．Wash his clothes. B．Leave his room. C．Buy him a dog.
13．What is the relationship between the speakers
A．Mother and son. B．Teacher and student. C．Classmates.
听第9段材料，回答第14至16题。
14．Why did the man go to Rome
A．To go on a business trip B．To take a vacation. C．To attend a party.
15．What did the man do first in Paris
A．He toured a college. B．He went to the Louvre. C．He visited the Eiffel Tower.
16．What made the man surprised about the Mona Lisa
A．The smile of Mona Lisa. B．The skill of the painter. C．The size of the painting.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17．How long does it take the speaker to get to the nearest town from home
A．30 minutes. B．55 minutes. C．85 minutes.
18．How does the speaker feel about the Screen Machine
A．Excited. B．Puzzled. C．Disappointed.
19．What is the Screen Machine’s driver responsible for
A．Selling tickets. B．Showing the film. C．Fixing the engines.
20．How do most people in the speaker’s hometown book tickets now
A．By using the Internet.
B．By going to the ticket office.
C．By contacting the ticket seller.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节 （共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Four Festivals in Indonesia
Nyepi
When: 11th — 12th March, 2024
Nyepi, also known as the “Bali Day of Silence”, is a key event in the Saka New Year calendar and is observed following the new moon in March. The island comes to a standstill for 24 hours, with no lights, music or noise, and everyone must stay at home. Besides, during this period the Bali airport is practically closed.
Eid-Ul-Fitr
When: 9th — 10th April, 2024
As a country with a significant Muslim population, Eid-Ul-Fitr is an important festival in Indonesia. It is a national holiday. All employees receive bonuses (奖金)and shops have special discounts and decorations during this time. It is customary for children to be gifted small amounts of money in colourful envelopes. Families spend the day making a feast together, consisting of dishes like lemang, dodol, sambal goring and cookies.
Baliem Valley Festival
When: 8th — 10th August, 2024
This Indonesian festival is unique to the people of Papua, a set of islands in Indonesia’s eastern province. Over 20 tribes of Indonesia come together for this festival that lasts two days. Aside from the mock-war, traditional dances are performed to the traditional Papua music. Pig-racing is also fairly common during this time.
Dieng Culture Festival
When: 15th August — 15th September, 2024
In central Java, the children in the Dieng Plateau have a fascinating genetic make-up. As they become teenagers, their naturally straight hair starts to form dreadlocks (脏辫). When this happens, they wait till August every year for their hair to be cut off in a ceremony that is the heart of the Dieng Culture Festival in Indonesia. Along with the ceremony, traditional paper lanterns are let go into the sky and puppet shows are held.
1. What is Bali like during the period of Nyepi
A. Silent. B. Lively. C. Noisy. D. Dangerous.
2. How do Indonesians celebrate Eid-Ul-Fitr
A. By cutting off their children’s hair. B. By making traditional paper lanterns.
C. By getting together with family members. D. By dancing to the traditional Papua music.
3. Which festival lasts the longest
A. Nyepi. B. Dieng Culture Festival.
C. Eid-Ul-Fitr. D. Baliem Valley Festival.
B
Elon Musk has been talking about turning the social media platform Twitter into X for months, while being vague about what that exactly means. Does X represent a major business experiment A totally new concept for on-line living Or is it simply one man’s addiction to the 24th letter of the alphabet
Probably it’s all of the above, according to Ashlee Vance, the author of Elon Musk: Tesla, SpaceX, and the Quest for a Fantastic Future. In one of his earliest business adventures, Musk called his online bank X. com. That name was later dropped when the platform was bought by a competitor and became PayPal.
“Everyone tried to talk him out of naming the company that back then, but he really liked it and refused to give in,” said Vance.
X is already in the name of Tesla’s third electric car model, which was announced to the public in 2015. His spaceflight company is called SpaceX. In 2020, Musk even named his youngest son “X E A-12”.
But lately, naming his social media platform “X” may refer to Musk’s newest ambition, building an “everything app” like China’s popular WeChat. “He wants to create an app similar to how WeChat is used in China, where it’s part of day-to-day life. You use it to communicate, to consume news, to buy things, to pay your rent, to make appointments with your doctor and even to pay fines,” said Vance. “Following the WeChat model makes sense with what Musk wants for Twitter. The company clearly needs a new, bigger business if it’s to make the type of money that would justify his investment and satisfy his ambition.”
But social media experts are questioning about Musk’s “everything app”. “I’m not sure he has enough trust from his user base to get people to actually exchange money or attach any type of financial institution to his app,” Jennifer Grygiel, a professor at Syracuse University, told NPR. “I think this is a way to destroy it, instead of recreating it as something else.”
4. Which is closest in meaning to “vague” underlined in paragraph 1
A. Unspecific. B. Curious. C. Uninterested. D. Eager.
5. What does the X in “X E A-12” most probably stand for
A. Musk’s plan to have 26 babies. B. Musk’s blind love for the letter X.
C. Musk’s doubt about his son’s DNA. D. Musk’s ambition to create a new business.
6. What does Ashlee Vance mean in paragraph 5
A. Musk paid too much to buy Twitter. B. WeChat is more popular than Twitter.
C. X may indicate Musk’s new business plan. D. It is not safe to model X on China’s WeChat.
7. What is Jennifer Grygiel’s attitude to the “everything app”
A. Favorable. B. Doubtful.
C. Unconcerned. D. Unclear.
C
In Finland, it’s a basic duty for the government to provide the public with sporting possibilities. That thinking started in the 1970s, when the government built gyms in even the smallest towns. Now, there are about 30,000 sports facilities across the country. Walkways and bike paths snake through the cities. Public swimming pools are everywhere. Here you can just step out of your door and do sports.
Finns do just that. Half of women and a third of men bike to work. About a fifth of the country belongs to sports clubs. Some people even play sports at work. For example, every Wednesday morning, a group of scientists at the University of Jyv skyl leave their desks to play “futsal”, an indoor form of soccer, in a gym across the street. It’s one of the most popular team sports in the country, along with floor ball and Finnish baseball. A nearby chocolate factory has a gym and offers aerobics classes.
“Employers started to encourage sports participation about a century ago in the forestry industry,” says Hanna Vehmas, a sports scientist at the University of Jyv skyl . “Nowadays, 90% of employers support their employees’ physical activities in some way. Each year, they spend an average of about $220 per employee for physical activities.”
One reason why employers tend to support their employees’ physical activities is due to a tax break. Businesses can deduct (扣除) money spent on employees’ physical well-being.
“But there’s something else. We have a lot of research showing that spending money on employees’ well-being will bring back as much as six times the money spent,” says Vehmas. “Because healthy employees do better work. They also don’t have as many sick days. And staying fit, especially by playing sports together, could help build company loyalty (忠诚) which is actually even more important than the health side.”
Physically active people also save the health care system a lot of money. Data from the Finnish Ministry of Social Affairs & Health shows that people who bike and walk save the health care system as much as $5.5 billion each year.
8. Why are the scientists at the University of Jyv skyl mentioned in paragraph 2
A. To tell the popularity of a unique sport.
B. To describe the process of an experiment.
C. To show the easy access to sports facilities.
D. To call for more public participation in sports.
9. When did the forestry industry start to encourage sports participation
A. About 50 years ago. B. About 60 years ago.
C. About 80 years ago. D. About 100 years ago.
10. What does Hanna Vehmas say about the effort for employees’ physical well-being
A. It is a waste of money. B. It brings in various benefits.
C. It takes too much time. D. It cuts workers’ productivity.
11. What is the best title for the text
A. How Can Finns Make Sports Part of Everyday Life
B. Why Are There So Many Sports Facilities Across Finland
C. Why Has Finland Become the Healthiest Country in the World
D. How Can Employers in Finland Be Encouraged to Spend on Sports
D
“Nurse refuses to perform CPR and lets an elderly woman die at a nursing house in California!” read the headline of an ABC news report several days ago. Later, it turned out that the elderly woman had wished to die naturally.
Then why did the woman refuse CPR It is necessary for us to know what CPR can, and can’t, do.
The discovery that CPR could save life was first reported in 1878, from experiments on cats. It wasn’t until 1959 that researchers at Johns Hopkins applied the method to humans. The excitement at its simplicity was clear: “Anyone, anywhere, can now do CPR,” the researchers wrote. “All that is needed is two hands.” In the 1970s, CPR classes were developed for flight attendants, coaches, and babysitters are now often required to study CPR.
But most people learn what they know about CPR from television. In 2015, researchers found that survival after CPR on TV was 70%. In real life, people similarly believe that survival after CPR is over 75%. This may explain the attitude that everyone should know CPR, and that everyone who experiences heart attack should receive it.
However, it cannot be further from truth. In 2010, a review of 79 studies, involving almost 150, 000 patients, found that the average rate of survival from out-of-hospital heart attack had barely changed in thirty years. It was 7.6%. On-site CPR may increase those chances to 10%. Survival after CPR for in-hospital heart attack is slightly better, but still only about 17%. The numbers get even worse with age. A study in Sweden found that survival after out-of-hospital CPR dropped from 6.7% for patients in their 70s to just 2.4% for those over 90.
The harm as it turns out, can be very serious. Broken bones are the most common problem, but the procedure can also cause lung and liver damage. The biggest problem is brain injury. When the heart stops, the brain begins to die within minutes. So about 30% of survivors will have significant mental disability. The side effects of CPR may be why as many as half of patients who survive wish they hadn’t received it.
12. About one hundred years after the discovery of CPR, __________.
A. it started to be applied to humans
B. it was popularized in some professions
C. it became a necessary qualification for babysitters
D. it was perfected by researchers at Johns Hopkins
13. Which aspect of CPR does the fourth paragraph focus on
A. The failed cases. B. Its real effects.
C. Its important functions. D. The misunderstanding.
14. What did the 2010 study find about CPR
A. The public was unwilling to accept it. B. It had much better effects on the elderly.
C. The average rate of survival remained low. D. It had to be carried out on time by professionals.
15. What is the most serious harm suffered by CPR survivors
A. Hurt backs. B. Broken bones. C. Injured lung. D. Damaged brain.
第二节 （共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
How to Be Best Friends
The relationship between best friends is one of the most important ones we experience in our lives. It’s why we want to do as much as possible to make sure our best friend enjoys spending time with us. ___16___. But every once in a while we need to remind ourselves of the things that make some friends more special than others.
Stay together. Best friends don’t have to do something crazy to have a good time. Sometimes, it’s enough to go over to one of your houses and just hang out. Invite your friend over even when you don’t have something special planned. ___17___.
Share happy moments. As you spend time together, there will be moments that cause the two of you to break into laughter. ___18___. It’ll make the two of you smile and start laughing again as well as remind both of you of all the happy moments that you’ve shared with each other.
___19___. We all have moments in life when we feel bad. If your friend is upset, talk to them and encourage them to express why they’re feeling low. Try to see things from their perspective(角度) and offer comfort. They’ll see how important they are to you and return the favor when you need it.
Accept their weaknesses. No one is perfect. ___20___. Don’t try to change things about your friend that you think are bad or holding them back. They probably know what they are just as much as you do. In time, you may realize that these weaknesses are what drew the two of you together in the first place.
A. View friends as family members
B. Most of the time that comes naturally
C. Be there for your friend when they’re sad
D. Just enjoy each other’s company and relax
E. Remember these times and bring them up later
F. These things will break up your friendship forever
G. So you shouldn’t expect perfection from your best friend
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节 （共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
In the eastern state of Virginia, employees of the Richmond Wildlife Center are doing their best to act like mother foxes. They started feeding and ____21____ a baby fox after the young animal became ____22____ from her mother.
In a video on the center’s online page, a worker called Melissa Stanley was shown ____23____ a red fox mask (面具) and equipment like rubber gloves when feeding the fox. In this way, she ____24____ making human sounds and prevented the fox from ____25____ her human caregivers. The post explained the baby fox should not become too ____26____ to humans while she was being raised by them. The ____27____ made it more likely that the baby fox could be ____28____ to the wild.
Stanley said the fox was sent to the ____29____ on February 29. She said a man _____30_____ the animal on the street while walking his dog in Richmond. _____31_____ she was a baby cat, the man _____32_____ turned her over to the Richmond Society for the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals. It is a nonprofit organization that takes in cats and dogs without _____33_____ and finds them homes.
The wildlife center employees _____34_____ to find the fox’s mother and her home, but they were _____35_____ that the foxes had been trapped and removed. So the baby fox will be sent to the Animal Education and Rescue Organization in Virginia.
21. A. waiting for B. caring for C. complaining about D. sending away
22. A. different B. tired C. safe D. separated
23. A. wearing B. painting C. buying D. making
24. A. enjoyed B. imagined C. avoided D. practiced
25. A. forgetting B. admiring C. understanding D. seeing
26. A. kind B. similar C. close D. equal
27. A. course B. measure C. test D. view
28. A. stored B. mixed C. sold D. returned
29. A. center B. hospital C. market D. zoo
30. A. hunted B. found C. raised D. monitored
31. A. Proving B. Identifying C. Thinking D. Ignoring
32 A. secretly B. patiently C. accidentally D. initially
33. A. names B. owners C. training D. breath
34. A. tried B. refused C. pretended D. regretted
35. A. promised B. warned C. told D. awarded
第二节 （共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
On the morning of Oct 9, ____36____ book-sharing event for foreign students was held at the October Literature Compound in Beijing, one of the ____37____ (activity) of the ninth Beijing October Literature Festival organized by the October Literature branch of Beijing Publishing Group. Students from countries, such as Morocco, Laos and Cambodia, ____38____ (share) their favorite Chinese and foreign literary works.
Nejaoui El Batoul from Morocco was attracted by the literary style of Chinese writer Wang Xiaobo. In both Chinese and Arabic, she read a letter ____39____ (title) “Gudu Shi Choude” from Wang’s work Ai Ni Jiuxiang Ai Shengming, a series ____40____ his love letters to his wife Li Yinhe. She said that in recent years, excellent literary works from China, including those by Wang, ____41____ (translate) into Arabic and are well-received.
Laotian student Bounlutay Soudthida brought the Chinese version of Harry Potter and the Philosopher’s Stone, ____42____ deeply influenced her-it was her first Chinese reading material in Laos. Starting with this book, she ____43____ (gradual) felt the beauty of the Chinese language.
Chou Kakada from Cambodia talked about the Chinese classic Journey to the West, which accompanied him through childhood. He was originally drawn to the magic described in the book but came ____44____ (appreciate) the richness of traditional Chinese culture. He said he wanted to be as brave as the hero when _____45_____ (face) challenges and overcoming difficulties.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节 （满分15分）
46. 假定你是李华，你的交换生朋友Martin对中国饮食文化很感兴趣，并打算在春节期间邀请家人来中国品尝美食。他想请你给他一些这方面的建议。请你给他回信，内容包括：
1.介绍春节饮食习俗；
2.推荐一道你家乡的特色菜。
注意：1.写作词数应为80个左右；
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Dear Martin,
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节 （满分25分）
47. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
Laura Carney’s father died suddenly, leaving behind an unfinished wish list. The wish list, written on a piece of old and torn paper, was placed in a small brown leather bag, along with his driver’s license, a ring, and various little things. Carney, 46, looked down at it and then said she needed to finish it.
She was 25 when her father was hit by a driver who ran a red light while chatting on a cellphone. In the immediate aftermath of her father’s death, “I didn’t talk about it,” says Carney. “I really had some shame about it, because I thought it was an undignified (不体面的) way to die.”
A few years later, she became an activist for safe driving, writing articles about the subject, fundraising, and giving talks and interviews. But the trauma (创伤) of her father’s death continued to exist. For Carney, the wish list was an unexpected opportunity to work through her pain and reconnect with her dad. The list was written in the year she was born. It had 60 tasks, six of which had already been checked off, leaving 54 items for Carney to complete. The tasks ranged from relatively simple undertakings to harder tasks. Several tasks were seemingly impossible, but Carney did not back down.
While Carney completed many of the wish list tasks on her own, “It didn’t really feel like I was doing things alone, because I knew my dad was with me,” she says. “I feel like my relationship with him is very present.”
Completing the wish list enabled Carney to get to know her dad in a way she hadn’t had the chance to — and never thought she would. His father spent his days working as a salesman and his spare time singing, writing and performing. “My dad was such a dreamer,” Carney says. “He knew what it meant to be alive; he knew how to have fun.” Finishing her father’s wish list was the most satisfying experience of her life, she says.
注意：1.续写词数应为150个左右；
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
So she decided to write her own wish list, which included specific and realistic goals.
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
“I really encourage everybody to write down what they want to do,” she says.
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
1～5 BBABC 6～10 CACBA 11～15 BACAB 16～20 CCABA
2024～2025第一学期期末质量检测
高二英语
考生注意：
1．本试卷分选择题和非选择题两部分。满分150分，考试时间120分钟。
2．答题前，考生务必用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔将密封线内项目填写清楚。
3．考生作答时，请将答案答在答题卡上。选择题每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑；非选择题请用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔在答题卡上各题的答题区域内作答，超出答题区域书写的答案无效，在试题卷、草稿纸上作答无效。
4．本卷命题范围：人教版高考范围（侧重必修第一册～选择性必修第一册）。
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
第一节 （共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1．What has Jenny changed since three months ago
A．Her job. B．Her diet. C．Her address.
2．What do we know about the man
A．He is fond of joking. B．He has a digital camera. C．He is living in the temple.
3．What is the man
A．A fireman. B．An architect. C．An actor.
4．Where does the conversation probably take place
A．On the street. B．At the railway station. C．In an office.
5．What are the speakers complaining about
A．A hotel. B．An airport. C．A hospital.
第二节 （共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6．Why does the woman call the man
A．To seek his advice. B．To extend an invitation. C．To postpone their meeting.
7．What day is it today
A．Tuesday. B．Wednesday. C．Thursday.
听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。
8．What does the woman think of developing a web page
A．Boring. B．Easy. C．Challenging.
9．Who is Bob
A．The man’s father. B．The man’s cousin. C．The man’s coworker.
10．What will the man do tonight
A．Make phone calls. B．Go out for pizza. C．Collect some money.
听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。
11．What happened to the man
A．His dog was dead. B．His wallet was stolen. C．He lost his schoolbag.
12．What does the man want the woman to do
A．Wash his clothes. B．Leave his room. C．Buy him a dog.
13．What is the relationship between the speakers
A．Mother and son. B．Teacher and student. C．Classmates.
听第9段材料，回答第14至16题。
14．Why did the man go to Rome
A．To go on a business trip. B．To take a vacation. C．To attend a party.
15．What did the man do first in Paris
A．He toured a college. B．He went to the Louvre. C．He visited the Eiffel Tower.
16．What made the man surprised about the Mona Lisa
A．The smile of Mona Lisa. B．The skill of the painter. C．The size of the painting.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17．How long does it take the speaker to get to the nearest town from home
A．30 minutes B．55 minutes. C．85 minutes.
18．How does the speaker feel about the Screen Machine
A．Excited. B．Puzzled. C．Disappointed.
19．What is the Screen Machine’s driver responsible for
A．Selling tickets. B．Showing the film. C．Fixing the engines.
20．How do most people in the speaker’s hometown book tickets now
A．By using the Internet.
B．By going to the ticket office.
C．By contacting the ticket seller.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节 （共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
【1~3题答案】
【答案】1. A 2. C 3. B
B
【4~7题答案】
【答案】4. A 5. B 6. C 7. B
C
【8~11题答案】
【答案】8. C 9. D 10. B 11. A
D
【12~15题答案】
【答案】12. B 13. D 14. C 15. D
第二节 （共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
【16~20题答案】
【答案】16. B 17. D 18. E 19. C 20. G
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节 （共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
【21~35题答案】
【答案】21. B 22. D 23. A 24. C 25. D 26. C 27. B 28. D 29. A 30. B 31. C 32. D 33. B 34. A 35. C
第二节 （共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
【36~45题答案】
【答案】36. a 37. activities
38. shared 39. titled
40. of 41. have been translated
42. which 43. gradually
44. to appreciate
45. facing
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节 （满分15分）
【46题答案】
【答案】Dear Martin,
I’m delighted to hear that your family will join you in China during the Spring Festival. During this time, families often enjoy reunion dinners featuring traditional dishes like dumplings, fish, and rice cakes, symbolizing wealth, surplus, and unity.
As for a specialty from my hometown, I'd recommend Mapo Tofu, a spicy and savory Sichuan dish with tender tofu in a rich, meaty sauce. It’s a perfect blend of flavors that truly represents Chinese culinary art. Looking forward to your visit!
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节 （满分25分）
【47题答案】
【答案】
So she decided to write her own wish list, which included specific and realistic goals. Among them were tasks like visiting certain places, trying out new hobbies, and spending more quality time with her loved ones. As she checked off each item, she felt a deep sense of accomplishment and fulfillment. Her own wish list became a testament to her growth and toughness, showing how she had moved forward from the tragedy of her father’s death while still honoring his memory. It was a way for her to continue her father’s legacy of living life to the fullest.
“I really encourage everybody to write down what they want to do,” she says. “It gives you a sense of direction and purpose. And when you look back at what you’ve achieved, it’s incredibly rewarding.This also makes you have a more positive attitude towards life. Plus, it’s a way to connect with your loved ones, even after they’re gone. You can carry on their dreams and aspirations through your own actions. That’s what I did with my dad’s wish list, and it changed my life forever.”
1～5 BBABC 6～10 CACBA 11～15 BACAB 16～20 CCABA

展开更多......

收起↑