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2024-2025学年度第一学期期末检测题
)15.What can we get from the conversation
A.Sarah usually gets up at 6:00 a.m
七年级英语
B.Sarah runs for an hour in the morning
C.Sarah usually listen to music in the evening.
C请听下面一段独白，根据独白内容完成下列句子，每个空格不超过3个单词。听独
题号
二
四
五
六
总分
白前你将有50秒钟的时间阅读句子内容。独白读两遍。（每小题1分）
16.There are
clubs in NO.1 Middle School.
得分
17.Liu Lin wants to join the
18.Liu Lin may be a good
in the future.
说明：全卷满分120分，考试时间120分钟
19.Li Lei usually
with his grandpa.
一、听力测试（共20分）
20.Li Lei wants to join the English club because he thinks it's
to learn English.
A)请听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最
二、单项选择（共8分）
佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都将有10秒钟的时间回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对
请阅读下面各小题，从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最
话读两遍。（每小题1分）
佳选项。（每小题1分）
)1.What's Emmy's last name
)21.-How do you
your name
A.Green.
B.Brown.
C.Smith.
-J-A-C-K.
)2.What can the girl's brother do
A.Play basketball.B.Play the guitar.
C.Play chess.
A.say
B.know
C.Read
D.spell
(
)3.What's on the wall of the classroom
()22.-My name is Jim Smith and my friend's name is Jim Green.
A.A map of China.
B.A map of the world.
C.A map of the UK.
-Ha-Ha,you have the same
name.
)4.Where's the girl's cap
A.first
B.second
C.last
D.family
A.Under the chair.B.On the desk.C.Under the desk.
()23.-What's your
Peter
(
)5.What does the woman mean
-I love dancing and playing Ping-Pong.
A.She has two sisters.
A.name
B.hobby
C.subject
D.problem
B.The girl wears beautiful clothes.
)24.-When is your birthday
C.Her cousin has the same clothes as her sister.
B)请听下面4段对话。每段对话后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中
-It is
17th May.
选出最佳选项。听每段对话前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小
A.in
B.at
C.on
D.for
题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。（每小题1分）
()25.-Let's play soccer,Tom.
请听第1段对话，回答第6、7小题。
-That sounds
,Let's go.
)6.What's LiLei school like
A.interesting
B.boring
C.difficult
D.bad
A.Big and clean.B.Small but beautiful.C.Small and dirty.
)7.Where's the classroom building
()26..Mr Smith often helps
with our English at school.We all like him
A.Behind the library.
B.Next to the Teacher's building
C.In front of the
A.ours
B.we
C.us
D.our
library.
)27.Tim,Don't spend too much time
TV,it's bad for your eyes.
请听第2段对话，回答第8、9小题。
A.watch
B.watches
C.watching
D.watched
(
)8.What does Peter usually have for dinner
()28.What club does he join
A.Meat.
B.A hamburger.
C.Vegetables.
He can pictures,so he
the art club.
(
)9.What's the relationship()between the two speaks
A.draw;join
B.draws;joins C.draws;join
D.draw;joins
A.Classmates.B.Teachers and students C.Father and daughter
请听第3段对话，回答第10至第12小题。
三、完形填空(26分)
()10.How old is the girl
A)请先阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后从各小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出
A.10.
B.12.C.13.
可以填入相应空白处的最佳选项。（每小题1分）
)11.When is the boy's birthday
Emma is a student in Guang Ming School.She goes to school from Monday_29
A.In August.B.In February.
C.In April.
()12.Who's Bill's maths teacher
Friday,PE is her favorite_
30
She likes playing
31 very much,so she 32
A.Mr Zhang.B.Mr Wang.
C.Mr Li.
the sports club.Her classmates laugh at (her because they think it is not for girls.33
请听第4段对话，回答第13至第15小题。
Emma doesn't think so.And she 34 to be a great soccer star.
()13.What time does Mike have breakfast
Every day,after getting home from school,Emma35 her homework first and
A At600am
B.At 7:00 a.m.
C.At 8:00 a.m
)14.What club is Sarah in
after that she goes out to play soccer.It's not36for her at first.She can't play it well.
A.Music club.
B.Art club.
C.Sports club.
But she thinks it's a happy thing for her.Her parents 37 Emma's love for soccer.They2024一2025学年度第一学期期末检测题
七年级英语答题卷
(考试时间：120分钟，满分：120分)
题
号
二
三
四
五
六
总分
得分
剑
一、听力测试（每小题1分，共20分）
2.
3
4.
6.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
二、单项选择（每小题1分，共8分）
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
三、
完形填空（每小题1分，
共26分)
A)29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
B)45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
阳
四、阅读理解（每小题2分，
共46分)
55.
56
57.
58.
59.
茶
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
五、
补全对话（每小题1分，共5分）
78
79.
80,
81.
82
六、书面表达（15分)
通过阅读D篇我们对LiNa有了更深的了解。假如你叫李华，你的英国朋友Rita
将去江西赣州，Alice是你在赣州的朋友，请根据以下要点给Rita写一封信，
向她介绍你的朋友Alice,.让Rita更了解Alice,希望她们能成为朋友。
Alice
Birthday
Family
Hobby
School
Favourite
subject
要求：1短文应包括表中所有的写作要点，条理清楚，行文连贯，可适当发挥；
2.短文中不能出现真实的人名和地名：
3词数80字左右，短文开头及结尾已给出，不计入总词数。
Dear Rita,
How is everything going I'd like to introduce my friend Alice to you.
Yours,Li Hua

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