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四川省甘孜州、阿坝州 2024年中考英语试题
(满分 150 分,考试时间 120 分钟)
A 卷(共 100 分)
第一部分 听力理解(共两节；满分 30 分)
第一节 (共5 小题;每小题 1.5分,满分 7.5分)
听下面 5 段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有 5 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
1. What would the woman like to drink
A. Water. B. Orange. C. Tea.
2. How long does Mary work at the restaurant every day
A. 5 hours. B.7 hours. C.8 hours.
3. What's wrong with the boy
A. He has a cold. B. He has a headache. C. He has a sore throat.
4. What does the boy want to be
A. A doctor. B. A musician. C. An astronaut.
5. Where does the man work
A. In a hospital. B. In a factory. C. In a school.
第二节 (共 15 小题;每小题 1.5 分,满分 22.5 分)
听下面 5 段对话或独白，每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题 5 秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出 5 秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。听材料，回答以下各小题。
6. Where is the man from
A. France. B. Canada. C. England.
7. What language is the man learning
A. Chinese. B. German. C. Russian
听材料，回答以下各小题。
8. What sport does the boy like best
A. Tennis . B. Basketball. C. Volleyball.
9. How many times does the boy play it a week
A. 3 times. B.4 times. C.5 times.
听材料，回答以下各小题。
10. What is the man
A. A doctor. B. A cleaner. C. A repairman.
11. Where will the woman go
A. A party . B. A show. C. A meeting.
12. When will the woman give the man a phone call
A. At about 5. B. At about 4. C. At about 3.
听材料，回答以下各小题。
13. Where is the woman from
A. Japan. B. China . C. Australia.
14. How long has the woman been in England
A. Half a year . B. One year. C. Two years.
15. What will the woman teach in her hometown
A. Chinese . B. English. C. History.
听材料，回答以下各小题。
16. What does Nick want to be when he grows up
A. A driver . B. A basketball player. C. A pilot.
17. Where is Tina probably going to work
A. In a hospital. B. On a farm. C. In a shop.
18. What is Ken good at
A. Art. B. English. C. Math.
19. How is Helen going to become a writer
A. By learning from teachers. B. By keeping on writing. C. By taking lessons.
20. In which country is Ann going to work
A. Australia. B. America. C. China.
第二部分 基础知识运用(共两节；满分 30 分)
第一节 单项选择(共10 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 10 分)
从 A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
1. Can you lend me book that you bought yesterday
A. an B. the C. a D. 不填
2. — Why are you late for class
—— my alarm clock didn't go off this morning.
A. So B. Because C. However D. Unless
3. My mother's birthday is coming, and I will buy a gift for .
A. she B. hers C. her D. herself
4. — did Mike say when you told him about the party
— He said he would be happy to come.
A. How B. When C. Why D. What
5. I movies since I first went to the cinema.
A. love B. loved C. am loving D. have loved
6. Look at the children. They kites in the park now.
A. flew B. flies C. are flying D. will fly
7. In China, people usually their houses before the Spring Festival.
A. clean up B. look up C. take up D. put up
8. — What are you going to do this summer vacation
—I plan my cousin in Hangzhou.
A. visit B. visiting C. to visit D. visited
9. The little girl is sitting her father's shoulders.
A. in B. on C. above D. under
10. — — Shall we go to a movie this weekend
— . I'd love to.
A. Great idea B. Never mind C. Good luck D. Don't mention it
第二节 完形填空(共15 小题；A篇每小题 2 分，B篇每小题 1 分，满分 20分)
阅读下列短文，从短文后各题所给的 A、B、C和 D 四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
A
When I was young, I lived in a bicycle shop in a small village with my family. The Lim family lived next to our . We were not only neighbors, but also friends.
My family had five children and we didn't have enough to . Mr. Lim ran a food store and he often took some food from the store to my family.
One day, my father got . Mr. Lim knew about it and came to help. He took my father to a hospital and before long, the doctor my father to get back to health.Thanks to Mr. Lim, things got better in my family. We all him for his help. But he said he just did what he should do as a friend.
11. A. shop B. hospital C. school D. market
12. A. save B. use C. eat D. give
13. A. lost B. angry C. tired D. ill
14. A. helped B. wanted C. forced D. ordered
15. A. encouraged B. asked C. thanked D. visited
I'm Cathy, a middle school student. Last summer vacation, I became a volunteer. Ivolunteered in a children's center. There were about 50 children there. I some babies and elder children.
I liked helping out in the baby rooms. Those babies were so small and lovely. At first, I felt a little to see those babies because their parents left them there and had to work. But after I that they were cared for well, I felt much better.
One of the was special. She was only one year old, but she was very smart. She smiled as soon as she saw me. She liked to be with me and I was every time she was pleased and smiled at me.
The elder children were smart, too. Every day they liked to with me and wanted more attention. I noticed a 5-year-old girl on the first day. She seemed very lonely and often sat at the table. I tried to give her confidence to join other children in different activities. By the end of my there, she had made some friends and looked much happier than before.
I loved every minute there and to see the look of pleasure on every child's face.The children were upset when I was , but I thought I was even sadder. I told hem Iwould visit them if I was free.
16. A. waited for B. looked after C. listened to D. talked about
17. A. hungry B. sad C. excited D. relaxed
18. A. said B. saw C. decided D. explained
19. A. students B. volunteers C. parents D. babies
20. A. happy B. kind C. polite D. lucky
21. A. fight B. work C. play D. travel
22. A. politely B. quietly C. hopefully D. carefully
23. A. trip B. lesson C. meeting D. stay
24. A. hoped B. refused C. went D. failed
25. A. arriving B. smiling C. leaving D. sleeping
第三部分 阅读理解(共两节；满分 40 分)
第一节 阅读理解(共15 小题；每小题 2 分，满分 30 分)
阅读下列短文，从各题所给的 A、BC 和 D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
I am Peter and I come from Vienna, Austria. In March this year, I came to Dalian, China to learn Chinese.
I am studying at Dalian University of Foreign Languages now. There are 15 students in my class and we have listening and speaking classes every day. Mrs. Lin teaches us speaking, and she is a really great teacher. Chinese
is said to be one of the most difficult languages to learn, but Mrs.Lin knows how to teach it in a simple way. At first, I was afraid to ask her questions because of my poor pronunciation. She seemed to know what I was thinking and often asked me to express myself bravely. Because of her encouragement, I decided to join in a speaking competition and now I'm preparing for it, I have learned a lot working on it no matter what the result will be,Ihope to be a teacher like Mrs. Lin in the future.
26. Why did Peter come to China
A. To learn Chinese. B. To find a job. C. To take a trip. D. To visit friends.
27. What does Peter think of Mrs. Lin
A. She's serious. B. She's interesting. C. She's very polite. D. She's good at teaching.
28. What does Peter want to be in the future
A. An artist. B. An engineer. C. A teacher. D. A doctor.
B
From America to Egypt, Hazelip and Hamby showed people around the world that it's never too late to get out and see the world. They come from Texas, USA. The two friends are in their 80s. They did a big thing months ago. They took a world trip in just over two and a half months.
Hazelip said that she wanted to start the trip in 2021. After reading the book Around theWorld in 80 Days, she thought it would be fun for Hamby and her to go around the world in 80days at age 80. Then she told Hamby what she wanted to do.
When Hamby heard this, she just couldn't believe her ears. She asked Hazelip if she was sure what she was talking about. Hazelip said yes. With that, they decided on a world trip. But because of COVID-19, they had to put off their trip. In January this year, the two got a start.
Hamby said their families were supportive of their big dream. “My daughter had no worries about my trip,” Hamby said. “She was happy that I could live the life I wanted to live.”
Hazelip wishes that their story could inspire (激励) people of all ages. “Don't sit in that chair and wait,” she said. “If you don't use your time, you lose it.”
29. How old were Hazelip and Hamby in 2021
A. 76. B. 80. C. 84. D. 86.
30. How did Hamby feel when she first heard of Hazelip's plan
A. Satisfied. B. Worried. C. Interested. D. Surprised.
31. What is Hazelip's advice for people of all ages
A. To do more reading. B. To do what you like right now.
C. To learn from others. D. To wait for good chances.
32. What can be the best title for the text
A. A World Trip at Old Age B. Two Interesting Ladies
C. Support from Families D. Courage from A Book
C
Although people have more free time than ever, it doesn't feel that way. These days, we often spend our free time using our phones. And lots of information and pictures make our minds tired. We don't have enough time to
relax. To really make ourselves relaxed, we can use our free time wisely in the following ways:
Plan your activities
Think about what you want to do in your free time. Do you want to exercise, take a trip or just relax Do
what makes you happy. Free time is for doing what you enjoy. And make sure you have everything you need to
enjoy your free time.
Try something new
Don't always play computer games in your free time. You can do something different. You can try to read
a book, draw or cook. Trying something new can be an exciting way to spend your free time.
Put your phone away
It's important to put your phone away. When you put your phone near you, it may distract you with all kinds of messages. This will make it difficult for you to fix your mind on what you enjoy in your free time.
Meet new people
Join a club to meet people with the same interests. You can talk with different people and also learn from
them. Help others. You' ll feel you are using your free time wisely if you help people in need. So, visit the old or help out in a children's club.
33. What do people often do in their free time according to Paragraph 1
A. Make friends. B. Draw pictures.
C. Use the phones. D. Read books for information.
34. Which of the following ways tells you to do something different
A. Plan your activities. B. Try something new.
C. Put your phone away. D. Meet new people.
35. What do the underlined words“distract you” probably mean
A. Make you unhappy. B. Help you in a friendly way.
C. Take your attention away. D. Improve your understanding.
36. What does the text mainly talk about
A. How to make a living. B. What to do on vacation.
C. How to spend free time wisely. D. What to read in your free time.
D
Shen Hu, from Shenyang, Liaoning, is good at cooking. He came to London, England's biggest city, in 2005. He then started working at a Chinese restaurant. He has brought Chinese dishes and food culture to English people through his excellent cooking skills.
“All the seasonings(调味品) used in my kitchen are brought from China by air to makeEnglish people enjoy great Chinese food,” Shen said. He not only cooks dishes of his hometown but also serves other famous Chinese dishes. English people like Shen's meals. Some even travel far to have meals at the restaurant. They ask to try
more Chinese dishes. Some even try learning cooking Chinese dishes.
Peter, a college student, usually has his lunch in the restaurant, and Beijing Duck is one of his favorites. For him, the flavor(味道) of English food is quite different from that of Chinese food, “English people can have a try,” he advised.
John, owning a store near the restaurant, likes Shen's dishes, too. “I love his veggie rice and sweet and sour
chicken the most,” he said. John comes to the restaurant as long as he finds time and always advises his friends to try the delicious Chinese food served in the restaurant.
“We are trying to keep Eastern food culture alive here and because of Shen, our restaurant represents(代表) this culture,” said Alan, the owner of the restaurant. “I plan to open anotherChinese restaurant in London.”
37. What did Shen go to London to do
A. To enjoy English dishes. B. To make English friends.
C. To start a Chinese restaurant. D. To work as a cook in a restaurant.
38. What does Paragraph 2 tell us about the English people
A. They buy food from China. B. They enjoy Chinese dishes.
C. They often eat at restaurants. D. They are good at cooking Chinese dishes.
39. Who likes Beijing Duck
A. Peter. B. John. C. Alan. D. Shen Hu.
40. What can we know about Alan from the last paragraph
A. He is satisfied with the restaurant.B. He' ll start a restaurant in China.
C. He likes to cook Chinese food. D. He is learning Chinese culture.
第二节 阅读填空(共5 小题；每小题 2 分，满分 10 分)
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有一项为多余选项。
4 ways to become a morning person
Do you want to become an early bird 41 :
Go to sleep five minutes earlier
You need 8—10 hours of sleep a night. It will be hard to wake up if you don't get enough sleep. 42 .
The next night, get into bed five minutes earlier than that. You’ ll get into bed over an hour earlier in just two
weeks.
43
Don't put your alarm beside your bed, especially if it's your phone. Move it to the other side of the room and turn up the volume(音量) so you have to get out of bed to turn it of. Once you' re out of bed, it is far easier to stay out of bed.
Get sunlight right away
44 . Natural light tells your body that it's time to wake up. After your alarm goes off,open your curtains(帘) so you can get light rightaway.
45
Becoming a morning person is like creating any new habit— it takes time. If you' re serious about being a morning person, get up early every day, even on weekends.
A. Make it a habit
B. Try out these tips
C. Move your alarm
D. Start the morning slow
E. Get into bed five minutes earlier
F. Sunshine helps you start a new day
B 卷(共 50 分)
一、单词填空(共10 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 10 分)
根据句意及所给首字母补全单词。
46. When I g up, I want to travel the world and see new places.
47. I want to j the art club at school because I love drawing and painting.
48. Grandpa is very good at t stories about his old days.
49. During the exam, the classroom was s , as each student focused on their test papers.
50. They p to read books rather than watch TV in their free time.
51. After finishing my homework, I like to relax and play a computer g for a while.
52. We truly c about animals, so we volunteer at the local animal shelter every weekend.
53. After moving to a new town, Mary felt 1 without her best friends nearby.
54. Robots help with the housework and do j like working in dirty or dangerous places.
55. We n go shopping on Sundays because the stores are always too crowded.
二、语法填空(共10 小题;每小题 1.5分,满分 15 分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填人入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Do you like junk food Do you hate eating vegetables, such as 56 (carrot) and potatoes Do you often
sit in front of the desk without 57 (move) for hours Do you 58 (easy) get angry or stressed out Try to say goodbye 59 these bad habits on April7th, the World Health Day. In 1948,WHO(世界卫生组织) 60 (decide) April 7th to be the World Health Day. It hopes to get 61 (many) people to pay attention to their health.
Each year WHO chooses a 62 (difference) theme(主题). This year, it is about high blood pressure. It may seem far from you, but one in three 63 (adult) even some teenagers have high blood pressure according to WHO. The main causes include stress and too much salt.And too little exercise 64 (be) also one of the main reasons.
So to become 65 healthy person, stop those unhealthy habits from now on! Let's eat better and exercise more! With health, we will have a happy and comfortable life!
三、书面表达(满分 25 分)
66.假如你是李平， 夏季是你的家乡最美的季节，请用英文写一封邮件介绍你的家乡，邀请你的英国笔友 Peter来旅游。邮件内容包括：
Location Sichuan Province, China
Population 300,000
Weather cool in summer
Places to visit villages, mountains, lakes, grasslands.
Things to eat mushrooms, yak meat(牦牛肉), yogurt..
…
注意：
(1)邮件必须包括表格中的信息，可适当增加细节以使行文连贯：
(2)不得出现个人真实信息，如姓名、校名等：
(3)词数：80~100，开头与结尾已给出，不计入总词数。
Dear Peter,
Have you ever seen a place as beautiful as my hometown in summer
Looking forward to your reply.
Li Ping
参考答案
1. B
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. D
6. C
7. A
8. C
9. B
10. A
11. A 12. C 13. D 14. A 15. C
16. B 17. B 18. B 19. D 20. A 21. C 22. B 23. D 24. A25. C
26. A 27. D 28. C
29. B 30. D 31. B 32. A
33. C 34. B 35. C 36. C
37. D 38. B 39. A 40. A
41. B 42. E 43. C 44. F 45. A
46. (g) row
47. (j) oin
48. (t) elling
49. (s) ilent
50. (p) refer
51. (g) ame
52. (c) are
53. (1) onely
54. (j) obs
55. (n) ever
56. carrots 57. moving 58. easily 59. to 60. decided 61. more62. different 63. adults 64. is 65. a
66. 例文:
Dear Peter,
Have you ever seen a place as beautiful as my hometown in summer I am writing to invite you to visit my hometown.
My hometown is located in Sichuan Province, China. It is a beautiful place, especially during the summer . The weather is cool. It has a population of about 300, 000. There are many wonderful places to visit, such as beautiful villages, wonderful mountains, lakes and vast grasslands. You will love the natural beauty here. Moreover, you can enjoy delicious local foods like fresh mushrooms, yak meat and yogurt. I am sure you will have a wonderful time in my hometown.
I would be more than happy to show you around. Looking forward to your reply.
Li Ping
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