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2024学年第一学期期末学业水平测试七年级英语
试题卷
考生须知：
1、本试卷分试题卷和答题卷两部分。满分120分，考试时间100分钟。
2、答题前，认真核准条形码上的学校、姓名、考号和学科，然后用黑色字迹的水笔填写姓名和考号。
3、所有答案必须做在答题卷标定的位置上，务必注意试题序号和答题序号相对应。
4、考试结束后， 只需上交答题卷。
第一部分 听力(共三节，满分25分)
第一节：听句子，选择符合句子内容的图片。句子仅读一遍。(共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分)
第二节：听小对话，回答问题。对话仅读一遍。(共5 小题，每小题1分，满分5分)
6. How old is that elephant
A. Two. B. Three. C. Four.
7. What colour is Tom's coat
A. Blue. B. White. C. Brown.
8. Where is Eric's book
A. On the bed. B. In the bag. C. On the desk.
9. What time is it now
A.7:50. B.8:00. C.8:10.
10. Why does Jack like the farm
A. Because it's beautiful. B. Because it's big. C. Because it's different.
第三节：听下面 3段对话或独白。每段对话或独白读两遍。(共10小题，每小题1.5分，满分15分)听下面一段对话，回答第11至第13三个小题。
11. How many students are there in Tom's class
A.43. B.45. C.47.
12. What are Mary and Jane good at
A. Drawing. B. Singing. C. Dancing.
13. Who may be speaking to Tom
A. His mother. B. His father. C. His teacher.
听下面 一段对话，回答第14至第16三个小题。
14. How old is the girl
A.13. B.14. C.15.
15. When is the girl's birthday
A. This Monday. B. This Sunday. C. Next Monday.
16. What party does the girl like
A. Birthday Party. B. School Party. C. English Party.
听下面一段独白，回答第17至第20四个小题。
17. Where is Alan now
A. In London. B. In Beijing. C. In New York.
18. Which class are Gina and Linda in
A. Class 4, Grade 2. B. Class 3, Grade 2. C. Class 3, Grade 1.
19. Who is a doctor
A. Alan's father. B. Alan's sister. C. Alan's mother.
20. What do Alan's parents usually do in the evening
A. Watch TV. B. Read books. C. Do sports.
第二部分 语言知识运用(共两小节，满分15分)
第一节 完形填空(共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的四个选项A、B、C、D中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Jane and Jenny are twin sisters. Teachers tell them how to 21 other people at school. This gives them a 22 idea!“Let's start a new club at school, THE CARE CLUB!” Jenny says.“CARE means Caring and Respecting(尊重) Everybody.” Every night, they plan what to do the next day to 23 love for others.
One day, they help a little boy who gets hurt(受伤) when he is24 fast on the playground. Also, they help a girl with 25 math after school. On weekends, they take a friend's dog for a walk and clean it carefully. They love helping others and think it is 26 .
Soon, more students at school ask to join the club, 27 the two sisters open the club to new 28 .Every member in the club needs to show love for others. They have a meeting every week. At the meeting, they talk about 29 to help others. Everyone gives some 30 every week, so they can buy flowers or cards for sick(生病的) people to make them happy. Now, everyone knows THE CARE CLUB and wants to join!
21. A. play with B. look after C. talk about D. learn from
22. A. bad B. funny C. great D. modern
23. A. show B. change C. take D. get
24. A. painting B. singing C. hiking D. running
25. A. his B. her C. our D. their
26. A. helpful B. boring C. hard D. quiet
27. A. because B. so C. but D. or
28. A. teachers B. friends C. members D. classmates
29. A. what B. which C. who D. how
30. A. time B. money C. paper D. food
第二节 补全对话(共5 小题，每小题1分，满分5分)
阅读下面对话，根据对话内容从方框中选择恰当的句子填入空白处，使对话通顺、合理，意思完整。
(Liam and Sarah are talking at school. L: Liam S: Sarah)
L: Hi, Sarah! Welcome to our school. How do you like it
S: I like it a lot. Everyone here is very friendly.
L: That's great! Our school has many activities. We have sports teams, a drama club, and even a robotics club.
S:31.
L: Most clubs meet after school, but some meet during lunch.
S: What about lunch 32.
L: Yes, the food is fresh, and there are lots of options(选择).
S:33.
L: Yes, it's big, and you can borrow books anytime.
S:34.
L: The sports fields are just behind the library, and we have a swimming pool too.
S:35.
A. When do the clubs meet
B. That sounds amazing!
C. Is there an art building here
D. Do we have a library here
E. Where are the sports fields
F. I don't think I' ll join any activities.
G. Is the food good in the dinning hall
第三部分 阅读理解 (共两节，满分40分)
第一节(共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的四个选项(A、B、C和D)中选出最佳选项。
A
36. Who are the posters for
A. Students. B. Teachers. C. Doctors. D. Parents.
37. What can children do in After-school Club
A. Do their homework. B. Enjoy beautiful music.
C. Talk with teachers. D. Make healthy food.
38. How much does Tom need to pay if he wants to join the two clubs this Friday
A.$7. B.$11. C.$15. D.$22.
B
On Saturday morning, Holly's parents and Holly go to Willow Farm. It's far from their house, so they drive there. On the farm, Holly gets a lovely dog. She's so happy, and the dog is happy too! She names him Eco.
That night, Holly puts a glass of drinking water next to her bed, reads for ten minutes, and then she falls asleep(入睡). ▲ The trees are tall with big green leaves. Small birds fly between the trees, singing all the time. As Holly walks in the forest(森林), she sees smiling green frogs and red butterflies. There are no people anywhere. There are no houses, cars or computers. There is only the sound of the moving leaves, birdsong and something else.
Lap. lap, lap...
What is that sound It sounds like water. Is it raining But Holly can see the blue sky. Is it a river
Lap, lap, lap...
Holly walks toward the sound.
Lap, lap, lap...
The sound is very loud now. It seems very close.
Lap, lap, lap...
Holly wakes up and rubs her eyes. She isn't dreaming(做梦). But she can still hear the sound.
Lap, lap, lap...
Holly turns on the light and sees Eco. He is drinking from the glass!
39. How do Holly and her parents go to the farm
A. By bus. B. By taxi. C. By car. D. By bike.
40. What's the correct order(正确顺序) of Holly's activities on Saturday
a. She falls asleep. b. She visits a farm.
c. She reads for ten minutes. d. She names the dog Eco.
A. a-c-b-d B. d-c-b-a C. c-b-d-a D. b-d-c-a
41. Which is suitable(适合的) for the“▲”
A. She is looking for Eco everywhere.
B. She finds herself in a beautiful forest.
C. Eco is drinking water from Holly's glass.
D. Eco jumps onto her bed and sleeps with her.
42. What can we learn from the passage
A. The sound is far from Holly.
B. The sound comes from Eco.
C. Holly is dreaming of Eco.
D. Holly does not like the sound.
c
Mia is going to junior high school next week, but she is worried about her new school life. Can she make friends easily Are the teachers kind Just at that time, she remembers the paper boat from her parents. She opens it and finds some words.
To: Mia
From: Dad and Mom
Subject: Before your journey starts
Dear Mia,
Time flies! You are now in junior high! Are you ready for your new life
Primary school was like a pool. It was small and safe. Dad and Mum protected(保护) your boat from winds.But junior high is like a river. It is wide(宽的) and the water moves fast. You will face new problems. We are still here to help. But sometimes you have to sail your boat by yourself. Just try your best and work hard.Remember this: No pain, no gain. You will go through(经历) heavy rain towards the sea.
We made this letter into a paper boat. We hope it helps you in the coming years!
With love,
Dad and Mum
43. What does the underlined word“it” refer to(指代)
A. The new school. B. The big building. C. The paper boat.D. The wide river.
44. Which situation(情况) best shows“No pain, No gain”
A. Jack doesn't prepare for the math test but still gets good grades.
B. Sarah plays the piano every day and becomes really good at it.
C. Luke doesn't want to play soccer because he thinks it's difficult.
D. Emma watches TV all the weekend and doesn't finish her work.
45. Why do Mia's parents make this paper boat
A. Because they like making paper boats. B. Because they face a wide river.
C. Because they want to travel by boat. D. Because they hope to help their kid.
46. How may Mia feel after reading the words on the paper
A. Happy. B. Sorry. C. Worried. D. Sad.
D
①Here comes autumn! It is the third season of the year. In China, autumn comes around September. The weather is getting colder and the days are getting shorter. The leaves on the trees begin to turn yellow and red. It's a great season for kids to play outside. What do children do in autumn in different countries
②In China, students often have an autumn picnic. Usually, they go to a park or out into nature. For example,kids in Beijing like to go to the Fragrant Hills. Most children also like to see beautiful views(风景) and play games with their classmates in the open air.
③For most children in the US, playing in leaf piles is popular. Kids jump onto a leaf pile(堆). They are happy to see the colorful leaves fly all around. They also make leaf rain. It's interesting.
④Japanese students often take a walk with their parents or classmates when the leaves are red and yellow. It is a great way to get exercise. Mountain climbing in nice weather is also a good idea.
⑤In the UK, school kids love to camp with their parents. They make food outside and tell stories. Biking is a good autumn activity, too. Take a mountain bike ride and you can find new roads.
47. What is autumn like in China
a. It comes after December. b. The weather gets colder.
c. The days get longer and longer. d. Some leaves on the trees turn red.
A. ab B. bc C. ad D. bd
48. What do American kids often do for fun in autumn
49. What's the main purpose(目的) of the text
A. To list the sports children love to do. B. To show beautiful views in autumn.
C. To describe kids’ autumn activities. D. To talk about the best season in China.
50. Which is the right structure(结构) of the passage
第二节 任务型阅读(共5 小题，每小题2分，满分10分)
阅读下面文章，左边是四个人的情况介绍，右边是中国谚语及解释。请为每个人选择符合其情况的谚语，将其序号填入51~54题，并回答55题(请注意小题后的词数要求)。
( )51. John is seventy. He thinks learning is a lifelong thing. He always learns with his best friends in the park. ( )52. Peter lets me play with his favorite toy car. I made it go too fast and it is broken. He said some bad words to me and hurt me. ( )53. Ella is not confident(自信的).She always thinks that she can't do anything well. She always feels shy to talk with others, so she has no friends. ( )54. Amy always helps others. She's happy after helping others. Both her friends and classmates like her. A. The roses in her hand, the flavor in mine. You can get happiness by helping others. B. One kind word can warm three winter months. What we say may hurt(伤害) others, so we should be careful about what we say. C. Never too old to learn. There are many things we need to learn. Learning is endless when you' re young or old. D. Don't do to others what you don't want others to do to you.It's bad to make others do what you don't want to do. E. There must be a use for my talent. Be confident in yourself. People always like those who are self-confident.
55. Who do you want to make friends with, John, Peter, Ella, or Amy Why (不超过 15词)
第四部分 词汇运用 (共两节，满分15分)
第一节 词语填空 (共5 小题，每小题1分，满分5分)
用方框中所给的词语的适当形式填空，每词限用一次。
usual brush homework different across from
56. She teeth twice a day, once in the morning and once before bed.
57. My brother and I have routines. He wakes up at 6:30 a. m. and I wake up at 7:00 a. m.
58. After school, I do my before I relax or go out.
59. My house is the park, so it's easy to go there for a walk.
60. We have lunch at 12:30 a. m. but sometimes we eat a little earlier or later.
第二节 单词拼写 (共10小题，每小题1分，满分 10分)
阅读语篇，并根据所给的首字母或中文，写出各单词的正确、完全形式(每空限填一词)。
Sometimes you feel busy and worried. You may have many things to do and want to ask, “61. W does time go ” Here are some ideas to help you make good use of it and find more free time to 62. (享受)your life.
Plan your time. It's 63. (重要的) for you to make a plan at the beginning of a day. Think of what you need and don't need to do.64. F , finish your work. And then, it's time to relax yourself. You can take a 65. s , drink a cup of tea or listen to some beautiful songs.
Say no to yourself. If you are not excited about an after-school 66. (活动), then don't go. It's fine to 67. s at home for a break. If you plan to go to a supermarket but it rains heavily, why not go shopping 68. (另 一) day
Change your plan. You usually go shopping on Saturday, but it's always very busy. So you may69. (选择) a weekday night to go. For example, you can try going shopping on 70. M evening.
第五部分 语法填空 (共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分)
阅读下面材料，在空白处填入适当的内容(1个单词)或括号内单词的正确形式。将答案填写在答题纸的相应位置。
How often do you see a plant you don't know Your 71. (parent) also don't know about it.You want 72. (look) it up on the Internet, but where do you start Now a kind of plant identification(识别) app may help you with the problem.
Take the app called Xingse as 73. example. You can use your phone to take a photo74. a plant. Then you submit( 提 交 )75. (you) photo. After a while, the app will show the name and other 76. (use) information about it. It is77. (real) an easy way to learn about the plant! Other popular identification apps are Huabanlu and Seek.
Maybe plants 78. (be) not the only things you love in nature. Don't worry. There are also other apps. They can help identify(识别) birds, dogs 79. other animals. You may know a lot about the nature like a 80. (science)!
第六部分 书面表达 (共1小题，满分15分)
假如你是李华，你的英国笔友 Tom想了解你的生活。请根据以下图片内容，用英语写一封信，介绍你的家庭、你最喜欢的科目以及你的兴趣爱好。
要求：
(1)邮件需包含家庭、最喜欢的科目以及兴趣爱好三部分内容，可适当发挥；
(2)60-80词左右(开头及结尾已给出，不计入总词数)：
(3)文中不得出现考生姓名、校名等个人信息。
Dear Tom,
I'm so happy to hear from you! Let me tell you something about my life.
What about you Can you tell me something about your life
Yours,
Li Hua
2024学年第一学期期末学业水平测试七年级英语
听力材料及参考答案
听力材料：
第一节：听句子，选择符合句子内容的图片.从题中所给的A、B、C三张图片中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置，听完每个句子后，你都有10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题，每个句子仅读一遍。(停顿00’ 5’ ’ ; 停顿时间打点)
(Text 1)
(W)I can find the word“but”.
(停顿00’ 10’’; 停顿时间打点)
(Text 2)
(M)I can find the word “road” .
(停顿00’ 10’’; 停顿时间打点)
(Text 3)
(W) Ella's favorite subject is math because it's fun.
(停顿00’ 10’’; 停顿时间打点)
(Text 4)
(M) The classroom is really clean and tidy.
(停顿00’ 10’’; 停顿时间打点)
(Text 5)
(W) 21s t March is my brother's birthday.
(停顿00’ 05’’; 停顿时间打点)
第二节：听下面5段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试题的相应位置.听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题.每段对话仅读一遍。 (停顿00’ 5’ ’ ； 停顿时间打点)
(Text 6)
W: How old is that elephant, Tony
M: Is it two years old
W: No, it's four years old.
(停顿00’ 10’’; 停顿时间打点)
(Text 7)
W: Tom, is your coat brown
M: No, it's Bill's. My coat is white.
(停顿00’ 10’’; 停顿时间打点)
(Text 8)
W: Look, there's a book on the bed, is this your book, Eric
M: No, it isn't. My book is on the desk.
(停顿00’ 10’’; 停顿时间打点)
(Text 9)
M: Come on, Lucy! We' re late.
W: OK! What time is it
M: It's ten to eight. Hurry up!
(停顿00’ 10’’; 停顿时间打点)
(Text 10)
M: Mary, do you like Uncle Wang's farm W: Of course, it's so beautiful. What do you think of it, Jack M: It's so big and it has different kinds of animals there. I like it, too.
(停顿00’ 05’’; 停顿时间打点)
第三节：听下面3段对话或独白.每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你有时间阅读各小题，每小题5秒钟。听完后，各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第 11至第13三个个小题。现在，你有15秒钟的时间阅读这三个小题。 (停15秒)
W: Is it a new picture of your class, Tom
M: Yes. Now there are twenty boys and twenty-five girls in our class.
W: So there are two new students in your class
M: Yes. Mary and Jane are from London. They are twins.
W: Do they often play with you
M: Sure. We often sing and dance together after class. They dance well.
W: So would you like to invite them to join your father's birthday party next week
M: Great! I’ ll ask them tomorrow.
(停2 秒，然后重复，后再停15秒)
听下面一段对话，回答第14至第16三个小题。现在，你有15秒钟时间阅读这三个小题。 (停15秒)(停2 秒，然后重复，后再停 15秒)
M: Hello! What's your name, please
W: I'm Susan.
M: How old are you
W: I'm 14 years old.
M: When is your birthday
W:I will have my birthday on 1* January, this Sunday. Every year, our school has a School Party in this month.
M: Do you like your School Party
W: No, but I like the English Party in our school. At the party, we can sing English songs and tell English stories.It is very interesting.
M: That sounds very good.
听下面一段独白，回答第17至第20四个小题。现在，你有20秒钟的时间阅读这四个小题。(停20秒)
Let's look at Alan's family photo. The boy is Alan. He comes from London. Now he and his family are inBeijing. The girl in a blue skirt is his sister Gina. The other one in a white shirt is his sister Linda . They are in the same school. Gina and Linda are in Class 3, Grade 1, and Alan is in Class 4, Grade 2. The man and the woman are their parents. Their father is a doctor and their mother is a teacher. They like reading books at home in the evening. What a happy family!
(停2 秒，然后重复，停20秒)
现在你有一分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题纸上.听力部分到此结束。
参考答案：
第一部分 听力 (共25分)
第一节 (共5小题，计5分)
1—5 CBBAA
第二节 (共5小题，计5分)
6—10 CBCAB
第三节 (共 10小题,计15分)
11—15 BCABB 16—20 CBCAB
第二部分 语言知识运用 (共15分)
第一节 完形填空(共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分)
21—25 BCADB 26—30 ABCDB
第二节 补全对话 (共5小题，计5分)
31—35 AGDEB
第三部分 阅读理解 (共40分)
第一节(共15 小题，每小题2分，满分30分)
36—40 DABCD 41—45 BBCBD 46—50 ADBCD
第二节(共5小题，每小题2分，满分 10分)
51—54 CBEA
55. 本题为开放性试题,没有唯一答案.(例: I want to make friends with John because he never stops learning.)
第四部分 词汇运用(共15分)
第一节 (共5 小题，每小题1分，满分5分)
56—60 brushes, different, homework, across from, usually
第二节 (共10小题，每小题1分，满分 10分)
61—65 Where, enjoy, important, First/ Firstly, shower 66—70 activity, stay, another, choose, Monday
第五部分 语法填空(共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分)
71—75 parents, to look, an, of, your 76—80 useful, really, are, and/ or, scientist
第六部分 书面表达(共15分)
Possible versions:
Dear Tom,
I'm so happy to hear from you! Let me tell you something about my life.
There are five people in my family and we love each other very much. We often have dinner and share interesting things together. My favorite subject is English. It's fun and useful. I enjoy learning new words and reading English stories. I have many hobbies and I love playing basketball best. It's exciting and keeps me healthy. I often play it with my friends and I feel happy when I get the ball into the basket.(74 词)
What about you Can you tell me something about your life
Yours,
Li Hua
评分标准：
一、第1小题至第20小题， 1-10题每小题1分， 11-20题每题1.5分， 不选、多选和错选均不给分。
二、第21小题至第35小题，每题1分，不选、多选和错选均不给分。
三、第36小题至第55小题，每题2分，不选、多选和错选均不给分。
第55 小题，计2分.评分原则：表意为先， 逻辑合理，词数符合要求。
各档次评分细则：
档次 分值 标准描述
第一档 2 分 完成题目要求.内容合理，完全或基本没有语言错误；词数符合要求.
第二档 1.5分 基本完成题目要求。内容比较合理；有少量语言错误；词数符合要求。
第三档 1分 完成部分题目要求.内容基本合理；有较多语言错误；词数不符合要求.
第四档 0.5分 完成部分题目要求.内容不太合理；有较多语言错误；词数不符合要求.
第五档 0分 没有作答或内容与要求无关；书写无法辨认.
四、第56小题至第65小题，每题1分，凡填错或拼写错误均不给分。
五、第66小题至第70小题，每空1分，凡填错或拼写错误均不给分。
六、第71小题至第80小题，每题1分，凡填错或拼写错误均不给分。
七、书面表达共计15分。
评分原则：
1.按5个档次给分.中档属第三档 (7分——9分).
2.按学生所写内容和所用语言确定档次 (内容分和语言分各占一半).
3.总词数不足40个可在本题总得分中扣去3分；超过120个可在本题总得分中扣去1分。
评分要点：
(1)语言得体，逻辑合理 (2分).
(2)涉及家庭、最喜欢学科和爱好三项要点 (每项要点4分，共12分)。
(3) 卷面整洁 (1分)。
各档次评分细则：
第五档 (很好)： (15分—13 分) 完全完成试题规定的任务。
①信息全。②语言可读性强，语言结构基本正确，有少量错误。
第四档 (好)： (12分—10分) 完全完成试题规定的任务。
①有主要信息。②语言基本正确，有 一些错误。
第三档 (还好)： (9分——7分)基本完成试题规定的任务。
① 有主要信息。 ②语言尚可读，有一些错误， 但尚能达意。
第二档 (较差)： (6分——4分) 未能恰当完成试题规定的任务。
① 信息不全。 ②只有个别句子可读，语言错误较多，且不能达意。
第一档 (差)： (3分—1分)未能完成试题规定的任务。
① 不能表达有关信息。 ②只有几个相关单词，语言错误很多，不能达意。
注意：凡不写任何内容、抄袭其它内容、所写内容无法看清者一律给0分。

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